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UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - UGC NET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 for UGC NET 2024 is part of UGC NET preparation. The UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UGC NET exam syllabus.The UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for UGC NET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 below.
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UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

In a test, the probability of A passing the test is 3/17 and the probability of B passing the test is 9/14. Find the probability of both of them failing the test.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

Given:

In a test, the probability of A passing the test is 3/17 and the probability of B passing the test is 9/14. 

Formula:

Probability = (Favourable case)/(Total)

Probability(getting a) = 1 – (Probability of not getting a)

Calculation:

The probability of A not passing the test is 14/17

The probability of B not passing the test is = 5/14

The probability of both of them failing the test = (14/17)(5/14) = 5/17

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the Lindahl equilibrium, Wicksell's proposal, marginal social cost, Samuelson's theory of public expenditure, and the free riders' problem?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 2
The correct answer is The Lindahl equilibrium refers to the optimal allocation of public goods based on individuals' willingness to pay for these goods, while Knut Wicksell proposed the idea of equating marginal social cost with the optimal public expenditure, which is a key component of Samuelson's theory and is related to the free riders' problem.
Key Points
  • The Lindahl equilibrium, proposed by Erik Lindahl, is a concept that identifies the optimal level of provision for public goods by valuing them according to each individual's willingness to pay.
    • In this equilibrium, each person contributes to the public good in accordance with their perceived benefit from it, highlighting principles of both efficiency and fairness in public goods provision.
  • Further, the Swedish economist Knut Wicksell proposed that for public expenditure to be optimal, the marginal social cost (the total cost society pays for the production of an extra unit of the good) should be equal to the marginal social benefit (the total benefits society gains from consuming an extra unit).
    • This implies achieving a balance between societal cost and benefit in public good provision.
  • Integrating these concepts is Paul Samuelson's theory of public expenditure, which posits that for optimal provision of a public good, the sum of each individual's marginal rate of substitution (or their willingness to pay) should be equal to the marginal cost of providing that good.
    • These theories are of significant importance in understanding the "free riders' problem," a widely recognised issue in economics that arises due to the non-excludable nature of public goods, allowing individuals to benefit without contributing to the cost, which can lead to under-provision in a free-market economy.
  • In essence, Lindahl's equilibrium, Wicksell's proposal, and Samuelson's theory each provides intricate solutions addressing the complexities inherent in public goods provision, including navigating the free rider problem.
  • Hence, the statement that accurately describes the relationship between Lindahl equilibrium, Wicksell's proposal, marginal social cost, Samuelson's theory of public expenditure, and the free riders' problem is the Lindahl equilibrium refers to the optimal allocation of public goods based on individuals' willingness to pay for these goods, while Knut Wicksell proposed the idea of equating marginal social cost with the optimal public expenditure, which is a key component of Samuelson's theory and is related to the free riders' problem.
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UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

What is the main difference between a stationary and non-stationary time series?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

The correct answer is Stationary time series have a constant mean and variance, while non-stationary time series do not.

Concept: 

  • Stationary vs Non-Stationary time series: A time series is a sequence of data points collected at regular intervals.
  • A stationary time series is one where the mean, variance, and autocovariance are constant over time.
  • This means that the properties of the series do not change over time and patterns in the data are consistent.
  • In contrast, a non-stationary time series has a mean or variance that changes over time, or exhibits a trend or seasonal pattern.
  • The presence of non-stationarity can make it difficult to model and forecast the time series.

Explanation: 

  • A stationary time series is one where the mean, variance, and autocovariance are constant over time. A non-stationary time series, on the other hand, has a mean or variance that changes over time, or exhibits a trend or seasonal pattern.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?  

1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio  

2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate  

3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate  

Select the correct answer using the code given below:  

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

The correct answer is 2 only

In News

  •  The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has raised the policy repo rate by 50 basis points (bps) to 5.9%.

Key Points 
Expansionary monetary policy

  • Expansionary monetary policy is when the Reserve Bank of India uses its monetary policy tools to stimulate the economy.
  • It increases the money supply, lowers interest rates, and increases demand.  
  • A reduction in SLR would mean higher liquidity for the banks, so they would have more funds to lend.
    • This would tend to reduce lending rates and increase demand in the economy.
    • The SLR is the reserve that commercial banks in India are required to maintain in the form of cash, gold reserves, and government-approved securities before providing credit to customers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • Marginal Standing facility (MSF) is a special window for commercial banks to borrow from the RBI against approved government securities, in case of an emergency such as an acute cash shortage.
    • MSF rate is generally higher than the Repo rate.
    • An increase in the MSF rate leads to higher borrowing costs for the banks and thus, reduces the money supply in the economy.
    • It is a contractionary monetary policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct
  • A cut in the repo rate means the cost of borrowing from the Reserve Bank will be lower for commercial banks.
    • The rate cut will further help banks to lower loan interest rates for borrowers.
    • Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. If there is cut in Repo Rate the banks will be able to borrow from RBI at lower rates. This will increase the liquidity in the market as customers will be getting money at lower rates. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 
    • In the event of inflation, central banks increase repo rate as this acts as a disincentive for banks to borrow from the central bank.
    • This ultimately reduces the money supply in the economy and thus helps in arresting inflation.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 5
Whose model of the following Economists makes use of the "Stock Adjustment Principle" to explain business cycle?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

The correct answer is N. Kaldor

  • The stock adjustment principle was given by The Kaldor.
  • Before this The Accelerator Theory of Investment was proposed.

 Key Points

  1. The acceleration principle held that the demand for capital goods is a derived demand and that changes in the demand for output lead to changes in the demand for capital stock and, hence, lead to investment.
  2. The flexible accelerator theory removes one of the major weaknesses of the simple acceleration principle that the capital stock is optimally adjusted without any time lag.
  3. In the flexible accelerator, there are lags in the adjustment process between the level of output and the level of capital stock.
  4. This theory is also known as the capital stock adjustment model.

Additional Information

  1. The flexible accelerator included both demand and supply allowing for lags in the adjustment of the actual capital stock towards the optimal level.
  2. The theory of flexible accelerator has been developed in various forms by Chenery, Goodwin, Koyck and Junankar. But the most accepted approach is by Kock.

Hence, The correct answer is N. Kaldor.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

The correct answer is Pair 4 only.

Key Points

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Which of the following does not come under the category of Revenue receipts?

1. Receipts by the government through Provident Fund and other Small-saving schemes

2. Grants which the governments receive.

3. Loan recovery.

4. Profits from PSUs.

5. Fees, Penalties and fines received by the government.

6. External borrowings by the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Revenue receipts of a government are of two kinds—Tax Revenue Receipts and Non-tax Revenue Receipts.

Tax Revenue Receipts: This includes all money earned by the government via the different taxes the government collects, i.e., all direct and indirect tax collections.

Non-tax Revenue Receipts: This includes all money earned by the government from sources other then taxes. In India they are:

  • Profits and dividends which the government gets from its public sector undertakings (PSUs).
  • Interests received by the government out of all loans forwarded by it, be it inside the country (i.e., internal lending) or outside the country (i.e., external lending). It means this income might be in both domestic and foreign currencies.
  • Fiscal services also generate incomes for the government, i.e., currency printing, stamp printing, coinage and medals minting, etc.
  • General Services also earn money for the government as the power distribution, irrigation, banking, insurance, community services, etc.
  • Fees, Penalties and fines received by the government
  • Grants which the governments receive—it is always external in the case of the Central Government and internal in the case of state governments.

Hence, option C is correct.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Payment banks - which can accept deposits but are prohibited from lending - need to be part of the UPI ecosystem.

Reason R: Loading fees on transactions through UPI, payment banks can widen the adoption of wallets among customers and merchants.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 

Key Points

  •  Assertion A: It's accurate that payment banks would benefit from being integrated into the UPI ecosystem. This strategy would allow them to facilitate instant money transfers and a host of other advantages brought by the UPI framework, enhancing their competitiveness and the value offered to customers.
  • Reason R: By having a form of fees on transactions or alternatively, while providing some valuable and unique benefits along with UPI, payment banks could increase the adoption of their wallets. Simultaneously, it could provide an attractive alternative for merchants and customers, and thus, it would give a compelling reason to use the UPI-enabled wallet, thereby driving adoption.

Given these points, the answer - "Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A" - makes sense. The integration of payment banks with the UPI ecosystem (A) can, as a strategy, spur the adoption and wider utility of wallets (R).

Additional Information Let's explore additional nuances regarding statements A and R, which support the selected answer:

Assertion A:

Expanded Services: Payment banks, although not allowed to lend, can provide a range of services like money transfers, bill payments, and other transactional operations. Being part of the UPI ecosystem allows them to expand these services significantly.

  • Financial Inclusion: Payment banks usually target underbanked and unbanked sections of society. UPI, with its usability and reach, can aid payment banks in this objective, promoting financial inclusion.
  • Competitive Edge: Being part of the UPI ecosystem provides payment banks with a competitive edge, particularly against traditional banks. It allows them to offer quick, seamless digital transactions in competition with full-service banks.

Reason R:

  • Incentives for Wallet Use: While the loading fees might be seen as a disadvantage initially, the overall convenience, speed, and ease of use can provide enough incentive for users to adopt the wallet despite the fees. This could result in wider adoption among users and merchants.
  • Revenue Stream: The fees generated from UPI transactions can be a valuable revenue stream for payment banks, which don't have lending services.
  • Unified Platform: With their integration into the UPI ecosystem, payment banks can offer a more unified and seamless platform for their customers, where they can manage their funds and perform transactions effortlessly.

In summary, the link between payment banks and the UPI ecosystem signifies an important shift in financial transactions – from traditional, often cumbersome methods to quicker, more flexible digital payments, which in part, drive adoption due to their convenience and ease of use.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 9
The capital that is consumed by an economy or a firm in the production process is known as
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 9
The capital that is consumed by an economy or a firm in the production process is known as Depreciation. In economics, depreciation is the gradual decrease in the economic value of the capital stock of a firm, nation or other entity, either through physical depreciation, obsolescence or changes in the demand for the services of the capital in question.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

Which of the following is a producer good?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 10
Hammer is a producer good. A hammer is a durable rival good.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised regulations for _____ lenders by directing them to get themselves rated by March 2016.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
In the revised regulatory framework on NBFCs notified late last evening, RBI further said, those asset finance companies (AFCs) failing to achieve investment grade ratings by the end of March 2016, should not accept fresh public deposits and renewing existing ones. In such an event, all existing deposits should runoff to maturity and NBFCs should report to the concerned RBI's Regional Offices within 15 days.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 28th Jan 15 approved a proposal of which bank to raise the foreign holding limit to 74 per cent?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 12
HDFC Bank would raise the fund through issuing of equity shares to non-resident Indians (NRIs) or foreign institutional investors (FIIs) or foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) subject to aggregate foreign shareholding not exceeding 74 percent of the post issue paid-up capital.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
A temporary increase in marginal tax rate will
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
A temporary increase in marginal tax rate will lower the output. If tax rate will increase temporarily, production will be low to reduce the tax liability.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 14
Personal disposable income is equal to personal income
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 14
Personal disposable income is equal to personal income minus personal taxes, which is also equal to consumption plus saving.
Personal income is the sum of all incomes actually received by an individual during a given year (including income received, but not earned) minus all corporate taxes and social contributions.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Match the following lists.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 15
  • Compensation Criterion was given by Kaldor-Hicks.
  • Impossibility Theorem was given by Kenneth Arrow.
  • Managerial Discretion Model was given by Williamson.
  • Uncertainty Theory of Profits was given by F. H. Knight.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

The correct answer is 3 only.

  • The ‘Digital India’ Programme was launched by the Prime Minister on 1st July 2015.
  • Digital India aims to provide the much-needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology, e-Kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services, Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs and Early Harvest Programmes.
  • The programme is centred around three key areas, namely, Digital Infrastructure to every citizen, Digital services & governance on demand and Digital empowerment of citizens.
  • The Government’s ambitious “Digital India” plan aims to digitally connect all of India's villages and gram panchayats by broadband internet, promote e-governance and transform India into a connected knowledge economy. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with reference to the regulation of minerals in India:

1. Asbestos and china clay falls under the category of major minerals.

2. The Union Government is the owner of minerals located in any of the States of India.

3. The District Mineral Foundation are statutory bodies established to address the longtime grievance of the people affected by mining of minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

In News

  • The Bihar government has decided to accord permission for exploration of the “country’s largest” gold reserve in Jamui district.

Key Points

  • As per a Geological Survey of India (GSI) survey, around 88 million tonnes of gold reserve, including 37.6 tonnes of mineral-rich ore, are present in Jamui district. 
  • The largest reserves of gold ores are located in Bihar (44 per cent), followed by Rajasthan (25 per cent), Karnataka (21 per cent), West Bengal (3 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (3 per cent), Jharkhand (2 per cent). 
  • The remaining 2 per cent reserves are in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. 
  • As per the available legislations in the country, all minerals have been classified into two categories namely. 
    • Major minerals: major minerals are minerals like agate, asbestos, barytes, bauxite, cadmium, calcite, china clay, coal. Copper lead, manganese, mica, nickel, rock phosphate, soapstone, tungsten, wollastonite, zinc, etc., as specified in second schedule appended with the mmdr act 1957. 
    • Minor minerals: the minor mineral are building stone, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand and any other mineral which the central government may by notification in the official gazette declare as minor mineral.
  • The MMDR Amendment Act of 2015 introduces Mineral Concessions Grant through auctions to bring transparency and remove discretion; The District Mineral Foundation (DMF) to address the longtime grievance of the people affected by mining; and the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) for incentivizing regional and detailed exploration to fill the gaps in exploration in the country, and stringent measures to check illegal mining.
  • The State Governments are the owners of minerals located within the boundary of the State concerned. 
  • District Mineral Foundations are statutory bodies in India established by the State Governments by notification. They derive their legal status from Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
  • The objective of District Mineral Foundation is to work for the interest of the benefit of the persons and areas affected mining related operations in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Government. 
  • The Central Government is the owner of the minerals underlying the ocean within the territorial waters or the Exclusive Economic Zone of India.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 18
The criteria that a voting system must meet according to Arrow's Impossibility Theorem include all of the following except 
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 18
The correct answer is Perfect Information
Key Points
  • The criteria that a voting system must meet according to Arrow's Impossibility Theorem include all of the following except Perfect Information. 
  • According to Arrow's Impossibility theorem, a voting system is required to fulfil three conditions:
    • Non-Dictatorship: Decisions cannot be decided by a single voter, meaning the voting process cannot allow for a single person to solely determine the outcome.
    • Pareto Efficiency: If all individuals prefer one alternative over another, then the group should rank that alternative higher. Essentially, the group choice must respect the individual rankings.
    • Independence of Irrelevant Alternatives: The group's relative ranking between two alternatives should not depend on their ranking of other alternatives.
  • While 'perfect information' may be a concept used in various economic theories, it is not a specific condition set forth by Arrow's theorem.
  • So, a voting system could potentially satisfy Arrow's conditions without all participants having perfect information.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

If  then find f(A) where f(x) = x2 - 2x + 3 ?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Concept:

Scalar Multiplication:

If any matrix is multiplied by a scalar k ∈ R, then each element of the matrix is multiplied by k i.e If A = [aij]m × n then k × A = A = [k × aij]m × n

Multiplication of Matrices:

If A and B are two matrices such that the no. of columns of A is equal to the no. of rows of B. If A = [aij] is a m × n matrix and B = [bij] be a n × p matrix, then the product AB is the resultant matrix of order m × p and is defined as:

Calculation:

Given:  and f(x) = x2 - 2x + 3

Here, we have to find the value of f(A)

∵ f(x) = x2 - 2x + 3

⇒ f(A) = A2 - 2 ⋅ A + 3 ⋅ I where I is an identity matrix of order 2.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Consider the following graph.

The above graph shows different effects of tariffs in partial equilibrium. Which one of the following indicates the revenue effect of a tariff equal to PP' per unit?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

The correct answer is the area represented by 'c'.

Key Points

  • Revenue effect of tariff
    • The imposition of import tariff provides revenue to the government and the revenue receipts due to tariff signify the revenue effect.
    • When PP' per unit import tariff is imposed, the revenue receipts can be determined by calculating the product of per unit tariff and the quantity imported, i.e., PP' • Q3Q4 = Area represented by the region 'c'.

  • In the figure, curves D and S represent the domestic demand and supply.
  • In the figure, Q3Q4 represents the demand for foreign products or the quantity of imports after the imposition of per unit tariff PP'

Important Points

  • The area represented by the region 'a' indicates the gain in the producer's surplus due to the imposition of tariffs.
  • The area represented by the regions 'b' and 'd' indicate deadweight loss due to the imposition of tariff.

Thus, the region or area represented by 'c' indicates the revenue effect of the imposition of per unit tariff equal to PP'.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Which of these are the types of the financial market?

1. Money market

2. Capital market

3. Government market

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

The answer is option 1 i.e. (1 and 2 only)

Key Points

Financial Market:

  • Financial Market refers to a marketplace, where the creation and trading of financial assets, such as shares, debentures, bonds, derivatives, currencies, etc. take place. It plays a crucial role in allocating limited resources, in the country’s economy. It acts as an intermediary between the savers and investors by mobilizing funds between them.
  • Some examples of financial markets and their roles include the stock market, the bond market, and the real estate market. Financial markets can also be broken down into capital markets, money markets.

Important Points

  • The money market is a market for short-term funds, which deals in financial assets whose period of maturity ranges up to one year.
  • Its instruments help the business units, other organizations, and the Government to borrow the funds to meet their short-term requirement.
  • The Indian money market consists of the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial banks, Co-operative banks, and other specialized financial institutions
  • Capital Market is an institutional arrangement for borrowing medium and long-term funds, and it also provides facilities for marketing and trading of securities.
  • Capital Market is further divided into
  1. Primary Market: A financial market, wherein the company listed on an exchange, for the first time, issues new security or already listed company brings the fresh issue.
  2. Secondary Market: Alternately known as the Stock market, a secondary market is an organized marketplace, wherein already issued securities are traded between investors, such as individuals, merchant bankers, stockbrokers, and mutual funds.
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 22
Which of the following economists has given the model which makes use of the stock adjustment principle to explain business cycles?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

According to Kaldor, “The key to the explanation of the trade cycle is to be found in the fact that each of these two positions is stable only in the short period—that as activity continues at either one of these levels, forces gradually accumulate which sooner or later will render that particular position unstable”.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Which of the following statements are true about Wholesale and Long-term finance (WLTF) banks?

1. It will be a combination of term-lending institution and an investment bank.

2. They can’t accept savings deposits.

3. They can raise money from current accounts, fixed accounts, equity and bonds.

4. They can also act as market makers in corporate bonds, credit derivatives, warehouse receipts, and take-out financing, etc.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Wholesale and Long-term finance (WLTF) banks:

  • It will be a combination of term-lending institution and an investment bank. Promoters eligible to apply for banking licence can apply. However, minimum capital proposed is Rs 1,000 cr. Hence statement 1 is true.
  • While they can’t accept savings deposits, they can raise money from current accounts, fixed accounts, equity and bonds. Hence statement 1 and 3 are true.
  • The WLTF banks could also act like market makers in corporate bonds, credit derivatives, warehouse receipts, and take-out financing, etc. Hence statement 4 is true.
  • WLTF is the third category of a differentiated bank licence after payments banks and small finance banks. In 2013 the Nachiket Mor committee recommended issuing differentiated bank licenses to work within a specific vertical.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below : 

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Key Points

Demographic Transition Theory

Demographic transition is the process by which some societies have moved from high birth and death rates to relatively low birth and death rates as a result of technological development.

Demographic transition is linked to four stages of economic development:

  1. Stage 1: Preindustrial Societies—little population growth occurs, high birth rates are offset by high death rates.
  2. Stage 2: Early Industrialization—significant population growth occurs, birth rates are relatively high, and death rates decline.
  3. Stage 3: Advanced Industrialization and Urbanization—very little population growth occurs; both birth rates and death rates are low.
  4. Stage 4:  Postindustrialization—birth rates continue to decline as more women are employed full-time and raising children becomes more costly; population growth occurs slowly, if at all, due to a decrease in the birth rate and a stable death rate.

Critics suggest that demographic transition theory may not accurately explain population growth in all societies; this theory may best explain the growth in Western societies.

Hence, the correct matching is a- 2, b- 3, c- 4, d - 1

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 25
As per the provisions of Union Budget 2021-22, how many public sector banks have been lined up for disinvestment? 
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

  • As per the provisions of Union Budget 2021-22, 2 public sector banks have been lined up for disinvestment.
  • In the budget speech, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that two banks will be privatized along with one general insurance company.
  • This is another attempt by the government to bring reforms in public sector banking.
  • Privatization Highlights-
    • Foreign Direct Investment in the insurance sector will increase from 49 percent to 74 percent.
    • The initial public offering (IPO) of LIC will be brought in Financial Year 2022.
    • Plans to complete the divestments of BCL, CONCOR, and SCI in 2021-22.
    • NITI Aayog to work on strategic disinvestment for the next list of central public sector companies.
    • Further recapitalization of Rs 20,000 crore is proposed in 2021-22 for the banking sector.
    • The government expects to raise Rs 1 lakh crore from disinvestment in public sector banks and financial institutions in FY22.

Additional Information

  • The Union Budget is presented by Union Finance Minister.
  • The union budget comes under Article 112.
  • The Budget has to be passed by the Lok Sabha before it can come into effect.
  • The Union Budget is also known as the Annual Financial Statement.
  • The Budget is presented on the 1st of February (until 2016, it was presented on the last working day of February).
  • Union Finance Minister-Nirmala Sitharaman (as of Feb 2021).
  • Constituency-Karnataka
UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 26
In a two variable regression Y is the dependent variable and X is the independent variable. The correlation coefficient between Y and X is 0.6. For this which of the following results is correct?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

In a two variable regression Y is the dependent variable and X is the independent variable. The correlation coefficient between Y and X is 0.6 which means 36% variations in Y are explained by X.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

Who among the following economists considered the portfolio approach to demand for money?
(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) M.Friedman
(c) James Tobin
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

It is worth mention­ing that Tobin’s portfolio approach, according to which liquidity preference (i.e. demand for money) is determined by the individual’s attitude towards risk, can be extended to the problem of asset choice when there are several alternative assets, not just two, of money and bonds.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
Who among the following economists emphasized the role of non-economic factors in explaining growth?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

Kaldor’s Three Laws of Economic Growth (Inductive Approach)

(i) Close relationship between manufacturing and GDP growth (ornon-manufacturing growth).

(ii) Strong relationship between the growth of industrial productivity and industrial output (Verdoorn’s law) Increasing returns in other sectors

(iii) Close relationship between aggregate productivity growth and (a) the growth of manufacturing and (b) inversely with the growth non manufacturing employment (consequence of (i) and (ii))

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
According to monetary approach, a revaluation of a nation&aposs currency
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

The monetary approach to the balance of payments is associated with the names of R. Mundell and H. Johnson. The other writers who have made contribution to it include R. Dornbusch, M. Mussa, D. Kemp and J. Frankel. The basic premise of the approach is the recognition that the BOP disequilibrium is fundamentally a monetary phenomenon. It attempts to explain the BOP deficits or surpluses through demand for and supply of money.

UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
The classical model of economic development emphasises
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

The classical growth theory argues that economic growth will decrease or end because of an increasing population and limited resources. Classical growth theory economists believed that temporary increases in real GDP per person would cause a population explosion that would consequently decrease real GDP.

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