West Bengal Police SI Mock Test - 1 - West Bengal Police SI MCQ

Bengaluru, known as the ‘garden city,’ faces its worst domestic water crisis. Over 30 localities receive water on a rotational basis every alternate day, with supply lasting only 30-45 minutes. The city, once abundant with 262 lakes, now has only 81 due to real estate development. The remaining lakes are at risk, impacting the city’s water supply. The reliance on the Krishna Raja Sagara reservoir is strained by a weak monsoon, leading to water shortages and skyrocketing tanker prices. Community involvement is crucial for lake preservation.

The RBI’s “Finances of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)” report analyzes data from 2.58 lakh Panchayats for 2020-21 to 2022-23, highlighting key findings. Panchayats heavily rely on grants (95%) due to limited own revenue sources like property taxes. Inter-state variations in devolution impact socio-economic outcomes. Inconsistent data poses challenges in assessing fiscal health. PRIs struggle with local tax revenue generation due to a limited tax base, administrative issues, and unclear guidelines. Revenue sources include Central and State government grants, and PRIs have the authority to impose taxes and fees.

The President and Prime Minister recently extended warm wishes to Indian Army personnel on Army Day, celebrated annually on January 15. Established on January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa became the first Indian Commander-in-Chief, marking a historic transition from British leadership. The 76th Army Day in 2024, themed “In Service of the Nation,” will be commanded by the Army’s Central Command in Lucknow, aligning with the Indian Army’s motto, “Service Before Self.”

The correct answer is Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

Key Points

• The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and AYUSH launched the 'Green Tug Transition Programme' (GTTP).
• India's first National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) was inaugurated in Gurugram, Haryana.

The correct answer is 4.

Important Points

• Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V.
• Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II. 
• There is a history of devastating earthquakes on the Indian subcontinent.
• The key cause for the high frequency and severity of earthquakes is that the Indian plate is driving into Asia at a rate of roughly 47 mm/year.
• India's geological figures indicate that about 54 percent of the land is prone to earthquakes.
• Research by the World Bank and the United Nations predicts that by 2050, about 200 million urban dwellers in India will be vulnerable to storms and earthquakes.
• The most recent edition of India's seismic zoning map given in India's earthquake-resistant design code [IS 1893 (Part 1) 2002] assigns four degrees of seismicity in terms of zone factors for India.
• In other words, unlike its previous edition, which consisted of five or six zones for the region, India's earthquake zoning map divides India into four seismic zones (Zone 2, 3, 4, and 5).
• According to the new zoning map, the maximum degree of seismicity is predicted in Zone 5, while the lowest level of seismicity is correlated with Zone 2.

Revised earthquake hazard zone map of India

Resolution for the Indian Constitution by Indian National Congress:
The Indian National Congress, one of the major political organizations in India during the colonial period, played a significant role in the struggle for independence. The resolution for the Indian Constitution was adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931, at the Karachi session. Here is a detailed explanation:
Background:
- The demand for a separate constitution for India had been growing since the early 1920s.
- The Simon Commission, appointed by the British government, had proposed certain constitutional reforms, but it was met with strong opposition as it did not include Indian representation.
Adoption of Resolution:
- The Indian National Congress held its session in Karachi in 1931.
- During this session, the resolution for the Indian Constitution was adopted.
- The resolution aimed to outline the principles and aspirations for an independent India and its constitution.
Key Points of the Resolution:
- The resolution demanded that the constitution of India should be framed by a representative body elected on the basis of adult franchise.
- It emphasized the importance of fundamental rights, including freedom of speech, expression, and religion.
- The resolution called for the abolition of untouchability and equal rights for all citizens.
- It also advocated for the establishment of a decentralized federal structure, with autonomous provinces enjoying self-governance.
Significance:
- The adoption of the resolution was an important step towards the framing of a constitution for independent India.
- It provided a clear vision and direction for the future constitutional development of the country.
- The resolution reflected the aspirations of the Indian National Congress and the Indian people for a democratic and inclusive constitution.
In conclusion, the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution for the Indian Constitution in 1931 at the Karachi session. This resolution laid the foundation for the constitutional development of independent India and emphasized principles such as adult franchise, fundamental rights, and a decentralized federal structure.

Answer:
The election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member is called a by-election. Here is a detailed explanation of the term:
By-election:
- A by-election is a special type of election that is conducted to fill a single vacancy in a particular constituency.
- It is held when a member of parliament or a representative resigns, dies, or is disqualified from holding the office.
- By-elections are usually limited to specific constituencies rather than being nationwide like general elections.
- The purpose of a by-election is to ensure that the vacant seat in the legislature is filled promptly and that the constituents have representation.
- The candidates who participate in a by-election are typically from the same political parties or individuals who contest as independent candidates.
- By-elections are important as they allow voters to choose a new representative to serve them and ensure the continuity of democratic governance.
In conclusion, the correct answer is A: By-election.

The correct answer is Satluj.

• Bhakra canal has been drawn from the Satluj River near Nangal.

Key Points

• It’s a concrete gravity dam located in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.
• Govind Sagar reservoir is formed by the dam.
• The length of the dam is 518.25 m and the width of the dam is 9.1 m.
• The reservoir of the dam is known as Govind Sagar.
• Bhakra dam has created a 90 km long reservoir.
• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru described the dam as the “New temple of resurgent India”.

Venus is the brightest planet. It is brighter than any other planet viewed in Earth’s sky. After the sun and moon, it is the third-brightest object in the sky. Venus is relatively nearby to Earth. Venus has the highest albedo of any major planet in our solar system. Its albedo is close to 0.7. Albedo compares how much light strikes any object and how much it is reflected. Venus 
reflects about 70% of sunlight striking it. So, Venus is the brightest planet.

Canada's area is 9.985million sq KMs, Australia is 7.692million sq KMs, Russia is 17.1million sq KMs, and Argentina is 2.78million sq KMs and India's area is 3.287million sq KMs. 

In 2003, around 75% of the credit needs of rural households in India were met through informal sources. This indicates a significant reliance on non-formal credit sources for financial support in rural areas.

A is the correct option.The Sangam period, or Sangam Age is the period of history of ancient Tamil Nadu and Kerala and parts of Sri Lanka (then known as Tamilakam) spanning from c. 6th century BCE to c. 3rd century CE.
Erythraean Sea refers to Korkai as Colchis and Ptolemy, an Egyptian geographer calls it Kolkhai. Multiple classical works of the Sangam literature. 
 

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms introduced dyarchy in provinces, which meant control was divided between elected Indian ministers and appointed British officials, not completely transferred to Indian hands. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the Rowlatt Act did allow detention without trial to curb seditious activities, and the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was indeed a direct result of the protests against the arrest of nationalist leaders Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal.

Electron and proton were embedded in nucleus as said in watermelon experiment.

P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Z are sitting around a circle facing at the centre not necessarily in this same order.

i) T is second to the right of R who is third to the right of P.

Mistake Points

Who is used for the second person in a connecting statement.

For example: 

T is second to the right of R who is third to the right of P.

Here, who is used for R and not for T.

ii) S is second to the left of P and fourth to the right of Q.

iii) V who is not an immediate neighbour of P. (This means V cannot sit immediate left or right of P).

iv) Z is third to the right of V 

Thus we can see S is immediate left of Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern followed is, 

Logic: For all the other option sum of place value is 14 except “DJA”

Hence, “DJA” is the correct answer.

Given:

Number of work completed by Rita and Meena = 10 days

Number of work completed by Rita alone = 15 days

Formula used:

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

LCM of 10 and 15 is 30

Efficiency of Rita and Meena = (30/10) = 3 units/day

Efficiency of Rita = (30/15) = 2 units/day

Efficiency of Meena = [30/(3 – 2)] units/day

⇒ (30/1) unit/day

⇒ 30 days

∴ The required time to complete the work by Meena is 30 days

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

A possible tree diagram will be:

Praveena’s father’s sister’s mother is the grandmother of Sandhya.

Hence, "Grandmother" is the correct answer.

Hence. the person will be allowed to appear in the interview.

The pattern followed is,

In the first row,

The first figure is surrounded by two circles.

The second figure is surrounded by one circle.

The third figure is not surrounded by any circle.

In the second row,

The first figure is surrounded by one square.

The second figure is not surrounded by any square.

 In the third figure there is no outline.

In the third row,

The first figure is surrounded by two triangles.

The second figure is surrounded by one triangle.

And,

The third figure should not be surrounded by any triangle.

The correct image that fits is,

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The word that can be suffixed to form new words is ‘ure’

Fail + ure = Failure

Press + ure = Pressure

Depart + ure = Departure

Advent + ure = Adventure

Hence, the correct answer is "ure".

Checking Statement I:

As per hints, following arrangements can be formed

H > J > K > I > G > F

Clearly H earns the maximum amount.

Hence data in statement I is sufficient to answer the question.

Checking Statement I:

As per hints, following arrangements can be formed

H > J > K > I > G > F

Clearly H earns the maximum amount.

Hence data in statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Here, the data in either Statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, Option C is correct.

All the terms given in the question are cereals and gram is also one of the cereals.

Peel : Peal

The above words represent pair of homophones.

(c) is a pair of homophones. (a), (b) and (d) do not have pairs of homophones.

Hence, correct option is C.

x% of a = y% of b
z × x% of a = z × y% of b

Hence, Option C is correct.

X × 20 + 40 – 4 = X × 22
36 = 2X
X = 18
Hence, Option A is correct.

v₁ = speed in first half

D = total distance traveled = 50 km

d₁ = distance of the first half = 25 km

t₁ = time taken in first half

t₁ = d₁ /v₁

t₁ = 25/v₁                                                 (1)

for the second half :

v₂ = speed in second half = v₁ + 10

d₂ = distance of the second half = 25 km

t₂ = time taken in second half

t₂ = d₂ /v₂

t₂ = 25/(v₁ + 10)                                          (2)

given that :

t₁ - t₂ = 5/60                        (5 min in h = 5/60 h)

(25/v₁ ) - (25/(v₁ + 10)) = 5/60

v₁ = 50 km/h

Area of Rectangle = product of length and breadth (L * B)
Area of Parallelogram = A = ½ × d₁ × d₂ sin (y) where d1 & d2 are diagonal and y is the angle of intersection of diagonal.
 
Area of Trapezium = 1/2(sum of parallel sides)*height. 

So the answer = 30 × 63 = 1890 meters
Hence, Option D is correct.