Telangana Police SI Mock Test - 6 - Telangana Police SI MCQ

As Word is a group of letters similarly Book is a group of papers.

As per the given information;

Hence, Rima is in South direction from her starting point.

The total distance = 15 + 20 + 30 + 15 = 80m

Hence, the correct answer is 80m.

From the common explanation, we get the immediate neighbour of P and U is S.
Hence, Option D is correct.
Final Arrangement:

Common Explanation:
References:
Exactly two persons are sitting between P and Q.
Only one person is sitting between P and U.
Inferences:
From the above references, we get two different cases:

References:
S is sitting second to the right of R.
Inferences:
From the above reference, we get the following arrangements:

References:
T is not sitting beside S.
Inferences:
So, from this case 2 will be eliminated as T is not sitting beside S.
Hence, we get our final arrangement:

r% of r = 49
r² = 49 × 100
r = 7 × 10 = 70
Hence, Option B is correct.

Profit = 6 – 5 = 1

Hence, Option C is correct.

Let AB be the building and AC be its shadow.
Then, AC = 20m and ∠ACB = 60°. Let AB = x m.
Presently AB/AC = tan 60° = √3 => x/10 = √3
=> x = 10√3m = (10 * 1.732) m = 17.32m.
∴ Height of the building is 17.32m.

As cat has Paw similarly Horse has Hoof.

Checking → statement I:

References:

Point A is 3km north of library.

Point C is 3km North of Point B.

Point D is 3km East of point C.

Inferences:

From the above references, we can conclude that instruction about college is missing in statement I.

So, we can’t determine the direction between library and college.

Thus, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Checking → Statement II:

References:

College is 7km North of point F.

Point D is 6km North of point E.

Library is 7km west of point E.

Point F is 4km East of point E.

Inferences:

From the above references, we can conclude the following.

We can conclude that library is to the South West direction with respect to college.

Thus, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option B is correct.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "216".

Checking Statement I:

Since there is no data given about Player and Champion, therefore, No player is Champion can not be derived.

Clearly, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Checking Statement II:

Statement II is the converse statement of the required conclusion.

Clearly, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, Option B is correct.

A.P. given in the question is 10, 7, 4, …
a = 10
d = a(2) – a(1) = 7 − 10 = −3
a(n) = a + (n−1) x d
a(30) = 10 + (30−1) x (−3)
a(30) = 10 + (29) x (−3)
a(30) = 10 − 87 = −77

Chalk box and soap have breadth,length and height . Cylinder has 2 radii and height. A ring (here) is made up of two concentric circles which is a 2d figure. Hence ring is 2 dimensional

Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 9. If the sum of the numbers is 112, then the larger number is:

First, let's find the total parts in the ratio (7 + 9 = 16 parts).
Since the sum of the numbers is 112 and there are 16 parts in total, each part represents 
112/16=7
So, the larger number (which has 9 parts) is 
9x7=63
Therefore, the answer is (c) 63.

Following the common explanation, we get “7 seats are there to the left of C”.
Hence, option D is correct.
Final Arrangement:

Common Explanation:
References:
1. Two people are sitting between A and Z.
2. C sits fourth to the right of Z.
3. The number of people sitting to the right of A is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Z.
4. The number of people sitting between A and C is the same as the number of people sitting between X and C.
5. X is an immediate neighbour of D, who sits on one of the ends.
6. The number of people sitting between D and C is the same as the number of people sitting between C and Y.
7. At most 25 people are sitting in a row.
Inferences:
From reference 1, we get two possible cases.
From reference 7, case2 was eliminated.
Hence, Case 1 is the final arrangement.

From Statement I:

From this statement, we get the following ranking.

Person in the row = 8 persons + Akansha + 4 persons + Rhea + 7 persons + Harshita + 8 persons

So, we get that Rhea is 17th from the bottom in the class.

Clearly, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement II:

From this statement, we get the following ranking.

Person in the row = 11 persons + Yamini + 13 persons + Rhea + 4 persons

So, we get that Rhea is 5th from the bottom in the class.

Clearly, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Clearly, Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Resolution for the Indian Constitution by Indian National Congress:
The Indian National Congress, one of the major political organizations in India during the colonial period, played a significant role in the struggle for independence. The resolution for the Indian Constitution was adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931, at the Karachi session. Here is a detailed explanation:
Background:
- The demand for a separate constitution for India had been growing since the early 1920s.
- The Simon Commission, appointed by the British government, had proposed certain constitutional reforms, but it was met with strong opposition as it did not include Indian representation.
Adoption of Resolution:
- The Indian National Congress held its session in Karachi in 1931.
- During this session, the resolution for the Indian Constitution was adopted.
- The resolution aimed to outline the principles and aspirations for an independent India and its constitution.
Key Points of the Resolution:
- The resolution demanded that the constitution of India should be framed by a representative body elected on the basis of adult franchise.
- It emphasized the importance of fundamental rights, including freedom of speech, expression, and religion.
- The resolution called for the abolition of untouchability and equal rights for all citizens.
- It also advocated for the establishment of a decentralized federal structure, with autonomous provinces enjoying self-governance.
Significance:
- The adoption of the resolution was an important step towards the framing of a constitution for independent India.
- It provided a clear vision and direction for the future constitutional development of the country.
- The resolution reflected the aspirations of the Indian National Congress and the Indian people for a democratic and inclusive constitution.
In conclusion, the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution for the Indian Constitution in 1931 at the Karachi session. This resolution laid the foundation for the constitutional development of independent India and emphasized principles such as adult franchise, fundamental rights, and a decentralized federal structure.

Mohan Yadav has been officially announced as the chief minister-elect for Madhya Pradesh by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).

The correct answer is Adilabad.

Key Points

• Nirmal Painting- Nirmal Paintings Actually related to the newly formed Nirmal District.
  • Amid the thick forests of the newly formed district of Nirmal (formerly Adilabad District) in Telangana, Nirmal town is situated.
  • This town is known as the gifted land of art and crafts and is popular throughout the nation.
  • 'Naqash' is also the name of the art and craft culture of artisans living in Nirmal.
  • This town is very famous for its paintings and toys by Nirmal.
  • Nirmal, this art form named after its place of origin, has been practiced from the 14th century by the 'Naqash.'
  • Nirmal Paintings represent the typical scenes of art associated with the Ramayana and Mahabharata Hindu epics.
  • The Indian Schools of Art, such as Kangra, Ajanta, and Mughal miniatures, inspired these paintings.
  • The evolution of the art and craft of Nirmal is also traced back to the old age of the dynasty of Kakatiya.

Additional Information

About Telangana State

The solution is All of these

Concept

• Soil pollution- the presence of toxic chemicals (pollutants or contaminants) in soil, in high enough concentration to pose a risk to human health and/or the ecosystem.
•  It can be also defined as the addition of substances to the soil, which adversely affects the physical, chemical, and biological properties of soil and reduces its productivity.
  •           Negative Pollution- Deterioration in the productivity of soil due to a reduction in quality or quantity of topsoil is called negative soil pollution. It is caused by over-use and erosion.
  • Positive Pollution- It is a reduction in soil productivity and deterioration in the quality of plants.due to the addition of pollution from the air, faulty sanitation, industrial effluents, supra-optimum fertilizers, and pesticides.
  • Third Pollution- It is landscape pollution in which the land is so severely misused that it becomes filthy and odorous because of the dumping of garbage, rubbish, sludge, ash, industrial wastes, etc. over it.

Explanation

• The use of pesticides should be minimized. Biological control should be known and imple­mented.
• The use of fertilizers should be highly judicious.
• Cropping techniques should be improved so that weeds are unable to take a foothold in the fields. This would automatically reduce the use of weedicides or herbicides.
• Special pits or low-lying areas are selected for the dumping of industrial wastes.
• Improvement in mining techniques and transport of extracted materials so that spread of mine dust should be minimized. The area should not be left barren and dry. Instead, afforestation should be carried out as soon as it becomes feasible.
• Controlled grazing and proper forest management.
• Windbreaks and windshields in areas exposed to wind erosion.
• Planting of soil binding grasses and other perennials along the banks and slopes prone to rapid erosion.
• Afforestation and reforestation.

In the case of normal goods indifference curve is always convex.

Tarun Bajaj, the former Revenue Secretary and Secretary of Economic Affairs to the Government of India, has been appointed as the chairman of the US-India Tax Forum by USISPF, showcasing his expertise in economic matters and international relations.

The Weimar Republic is an unofficial historical designation for the German state from 1918 to 1933. The name derives from the city of Weimar, where its constitutional assembly first took place. The official name of the republic remained Deutsches Reich unchanged from 1871, because of the German tradition of substates. 

Exporters aiming for duty concessions on shipments to the UK must comply with new British regulations under the Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS). Introduced by the UK Government, DCTS aims to integrate developing nations into the global economy, fostering trade partnerships and strengthening supply chains. It offers simpler, more generous preferential trading terms, reducing or eliminating tariffs on imports from 65 eligible countries, benefiting UK consumers and businesses while excluding certain upper-middle-income nations and those with UK free trade agreements.

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Hydrofluorocarbons.

• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) has the highest global warming potential as compared to other gases. 
• Global Warming Potential (GWP) is used to measure the total energy that a particular gas absorbs over a particular period of time ( normally 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide. 
• Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.
• The major atmospheric gases responsible for causing global warming are Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous Oxide.
• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) and Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) are less prevalent GHGs but are very powerful.

Correct answer is Both 1&2.

Key Points

• Telangana's Tax Revenue has share of 65.8% for the year 2021-2022.
• Whereas for India the average tax revenue's share of general states is 48.9%.
• Telangana's revenue is mainly comes from Stamp duties, VAT, SGST etc.
• Compounded Annual Growth Rate of Telangana for the year 2017-2020 of VAT and SGST is 11.94%.
• For stamps and registration fee Telangana's share of CAGR is 7.79% whereas for India is 3.48%.
• For Excise duty the Telangana's share is 12.82% whereas for India it is 8%.

The ordinal utility theory or the indifference curve analysis is based on four main assumptions.

Rational behavior of the consumer.

Utility is ordinal.

Diminishing marginal rate of substitution.

Consistency in choice. 

Statement 1: The Bhopal Gas Tragedy led to a settlement of $470 million between Union Carbide and the Indian government.

This statement is true. In 1989, Union Carbide, the company responsible for the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, reached a settlement with the Indian government for $470 million as compensation for the victims and environmental damage.
 

Statement 2: The tragedy was caused by a leak of methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas.

This statement is also true. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy occurred in December 1984 when a chemical plant owned by Union Carbide leaked methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas, resulting in the exposure of thousands of people to the toxic gas.
Both statements provide accurate information related to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. Therefore, the correct answer is A) Both statements are true.