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Full Mock Test & Solutions: UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) (125 Questions)

You can boost your CDS 2026 exam preparation with this UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of CDS 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 125
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 1

Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front has been the ruling party in Zimbabwe since independence in 1980. The party was led for many years under Robert Mugabe, first as Prime Minister with the Zimbabwe African National Union and then as President from 1987 after the merger with the Zimbabwe African People's Union and retaining the name ZANU–PF, until 2017 when he was removed as leader.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 2

In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The Lok Sabha the Lower house of the Indian Parliament comprising of elected represented and the Vidhan Sabha is the state legislative assembly comprised of the legislatures elected by the voters. Elections for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha are usually held after every five years.
However, if the ruling party loses the majority, the President dissolves the House and calls for fresh elections. Likewise, if the state government loses the majority, the Governor dissolves the state assembly and calls for fresh polls.
 

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 3

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 3


The correct statement is D: King of Nepal rules because he is elected by the people of Nepal. This statement is not correct because the King of Nepal does not hold any political power and is a ceremonial figurehead. The monarchy in Nepal was abolished in 2008 and the country transitioned to a federal democratic republic. Therefore, the King of Nepal is not elected by the people.
Let's break down the statements and analyze each one:
A: Pinochet is not elected by the people
- This statement is correct. Augusto Pinochet was a Chilean military officer who came to power through a coup in 1973. He ruled as a dictator until 1990 and was not elected by the people.
B: King of Nepal rules because he happens to be born into a royal family
- This statement is correct. In a hereditary monarchy, the position of the king or queen is passed down through generations within a royal family. The King of Nepal held power based on their birthright.
C: King of Saudi Arabia rules because he belongs to a royal family
- This statement is correct. Saudi Arabia is an absolute monarchy, and the king's position is inherited within the Al Saud royal family. The King of Saudi Arabia holds significant political power.
D: King of Nepal rules because he is elected by the people of Nepal
- This statement is not correct. As mentioned earlier, the monarchy in Nepal was abolished in 2008, and the King of Nepal does not hold any political power. The country is now a federal democratic republic.
In conclusion, the statement that is not correct is D: King of Nepal rules because he is elected by the people of Nepal. The monarchy in Nepal was abolished, and the King of Nepal is now a ceremonial figurehead without any political authority.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 4

Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
PIL stands for Public Interest Litigation, which is a legal mechanism that allows individuals or organizations to bring cases to the court for the protection of public interest or the enforcement of legal rights. It is an important tool in promoting social justice, holding authorities accountable, and ensuring access to justice for marginalized groups. Here are the key points about PIL:
1. Definition: PIL is a legal action initiated by an individual or a group of individuals, acting in the interest of the public, to seek justice, protect fundamental rights, and address issues of public concern.
2. Scope: PIL can be filed in various areas such as environmental protection, human rights violations, consumer protection, corruption, gender equality, public health, and more. It allows citizens to challenge unconstitutional laws, government policies, or administrative actions.
3. Access to Justice: PIL provides an avenue for individuals who may not have personal standing or resources to approach the court. It helps in bridging the gap between the marginalized sections of society and the justice system.
4. Role of Courts: Courts play a crucial role in PIL cases by intervening in matters of public importance and issuing directions or guidelines to the government or other authorities to enforce constitutional rights and fulfill public obligations.
5. Public Interest: PIL focuses on issues that affect a large section of society or have a significant impact on public welfare. The court evaluates the merit of the case based on the public interest involved.
6. Judicial Activism: PIL has been instrumental in promoting judicial activism, where the courts proactively engage in social issues and policy matters to protect citizens' rights and ensure good governance.
In conclusion, PIL, which stands for Public Interest Litigation, is a legal mechanism that allows individuals or organizations to bring cases to the court in the interest of public welfare. It plays a vital role in promoting social justice, accountability, and access to justice for marginalized groups.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 5

Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report? 

Detailed Solution: Question 5

According to the Mandal Commission's report (headed by B.P. Mandal), 27% of the total number of jobs which were available in the government and public sector were reserved for the caste OBC. This meant that the people from other castes could not compete for those seats which in turn affected the job opportunities of thousands of peoples. That's why people reacted strongly to the Mandal Commission's Report.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 6

What was the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) primarily about?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The Non-Aligned Movement was primarily about economic development and independence for small nations, and not about joining one of the two power groups of the world.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 7

Which of the following is correctly matched.

(A) SAARC - Kathmandu

(B) Act East Policy - Narasimha Rao

(C) Neighbourhood first policy - Narendra Modi

(D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank - Kualalampur

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Analysis of Correct Matches

  • SAARC - Kathmandu: SAARC comprises eight member states with its headquarters and secretariat located in Kathmandu. The SAARC Charter was ratified in Dhaka on December 8, 1985.
  • Act East Policy - Narasimha Rao: The Look East Policy was replaced by the Act East Policy, unveiled in November 2014 by the government of Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Shangrila dialogue.
  • Neighbourhood first policy - Narendra Modi: India's foreign policy has always prioritized "Neighbourhood First," with Narendra Modi emphasizing the importance of friendly connections and synergistic economic growth.
  • Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank - Kualalampur: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was founded in 2015 to enhance social and economic outcomes in Asia. It commenced operations in January 2016 with its headquarters in Beijing.

Therefore, the correct matches are A and C Only.

Additional Information

  • The Look East Policy was replaced by the Act East Policy in 2014.
  • The Act East Policy was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Shangrila dialogue.
  • The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) aims to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and was established in 2015 with headquarters in Beijing.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 8

Land pollution in which land is unsuitable for farming due to high salt content is known as:

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The correct answer is Salinization.

  • Salinization is an increase in the total dissolved solids (TDS) as the salt of the aquifer caused by natural or anthropogenic factors.
  • Salinization is a global problem.
    • It tends to be concentrated in the world’s arid and semi-arid regions.
  • Gypsum (calcium sulfate) or lime can be used to help leach salt from the soil.

Important Points

  • Desertification is an environmental degradation that reduces the productivity of dryland ecosystems by reducing plant.
    • Overgrazing is the major cause of desertification worldwide.
    • Other factors that cause desertification are urbanization, climate change, overuse of groundwater, deforestation, natural disasters, and tillage practices in agriculture that make soils more vulnerable to wind.
  • Carbonization is a process in which fuel is heated (900–1,200 °C) without air to leave solid porous carbon.
    • By this process, cole creates coke and sub byproducts.
  • Oxygenation is a process where the addition of oxygen takes place to any chemical or physical system, including the human body.
    • By the process of oxygenation of the water, fish and seafood farmers can protect their stock against oxygen deficiencies during peak consumption and growth periods.

Additional Information

  • The dissolved oxygen content of the water can be expressed as the absolute quantity of oxygen in one unit of water (mg/l, ppm) or as relative oxygen saturation (%).

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 9

Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Combustion or Burning:

  • Combustion is a chemical process in which a substance reacts rapidly with oxygen and gives off heat
  • Waste like plastic and rubber tires can be burned using this combustion process
  • These make use of the heat energy generated by the combustion & incineration process to electricity
  • It is the most effective method of waste disposal at reducing the volume of solid waste
  • It is not an acceptable practice, as it creates lots of pollution and it is harmful to both the environment as well as organisms

Important Points:

Recycling:

  • It is the process of converting waste materials into reusable objects to prevent waste
  • The materials from which the items are made can be reprocessed into new products
  • Recycling such material saves the product and it also reduces the amount of manufacture to make new products
  • It also helps in energy saving and reducing global climate change

Landfill or Burying:

  • Landfill refers the disposal of waste material by burying it
  • It is extended storage area for non-biodegradable waste
  • Landfill is an area, which prevent contamination from the waste entering the area surrounding by soil and water and it also helps to reduce odour and pests

Composting:

  • Due to lack of adequate space for landfills, biodegradable yard waste is allowed to decompose in a medium designed for the purpose
  • Only biodegradable waste materials are used in composting
  • Good quality environmentally friendly manure is formed from the compost and can be used for agricultural purposes

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 10

A level of expenditure at which minimum food needs are met is called

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Poverty line expenditure.
- The poverty line refers to the minimum level of income or expenditure required to meet the basic needs of an individual or a family.
- It is the level of expenditure at which minimum food needs are met.
- This expenditure level is often determined by governments or organizations as a benchmark to measure poverty and to determine eligibility for social welfare programs.
- It serves as a threshold to identify individuals or families who are living below the poverty line and in need of assistance.
- The poverty line expenditure may vary from country to country and is often adjusted periodically to account for changes in the cost of living and inflation.
- By setting a poverty line expenditure, governments and organizations can track and monitor poverty rates, design targeted interventions, and allocate resources to address poverty and inequality.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 11

The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in goods, services and investments between countries.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 12

Those who regularly move in and out of poverty like small farmers are called

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Churning poor is a sub category of poor, in which a person keeps on struggling to stay above the poverty line. In this type they regularly move in and out of poverty.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 13

Which one amongst the following has nothing to do with India’s trade and commercial contacts with the rest of the world?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The correct answer is D as Zoroasterv’s end Avesta. has nothing to do with India’s trade and commercial contacts with the rest of the world.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 14

The immediate cause of Shahjahan’s rebellion against Jehangir was​

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Option C is correct. The immediate cause of Shahjahan's rebellion against Jahangir was that Shahjahan refused to go to Qandhar, which had been besieged by the Persians. Shahjahan believed that Jahangir's orders were reckless and that he should not have to risk his life in such a risky campaign. This led to a rift between the two and eventually resulted in Shahjahan's rebellion against Jahangir.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 15

The empire was divided into several administrative units. Which one of the following gives the administrative divisions of the empire in the correct descending order?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The correct option is B.
The empire was divided into a number of Iqtas.
Iqtadars administered the Iqtas.
Iqtas further were divided into smaller units called Parganas, Shiqqs, and the villages.
Amil or Munsif – an important official of the Pargana.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 16

Who says, “A crowned king should always rule with an eye towardsdharma”?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Krishnadevaraya (also Krishna Deva Raya) was the most important king of Vijayanagar Empire. He believed in the principle that a crowned king should always rule with an eye towards dharma.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 17

Which one of the following Rashtrakuta king built the famous rock-out temple of Shiva at Ellora?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Rashtrakuta king, krishna-1 had built the kailash temple of ellora. It is considered as the wonder of rock-out architecture.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 18

Who has been appointed as the Joint Director of CBI?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Anurag Kumar (IPS), a 1994-batch Indian Police Service officer, has been appointed as the Joint Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC). This appointment is significant in the context of government appointments.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 19

In which event did Jyothi Yarraji win the gold medal at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championship?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Jyothi Yarraji secured the gold medal in the 60m hurdles event at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championship in Tehran. She achieved this feat with a timing of 8.12 seconds, breaking her national record set in the previous edition of the championship.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 20

Weight of a body due to the Earth acts

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The weight of the body is the measure of force by which object is attracted towards the centre of earth. It always acts vertically downwards.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 21

 Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum? 

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The site of energy generation is mitochondria. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the transportation of protein and other material as well as the site for some biochemical activities. 

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 22

Where are many plant waste products stored?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Many plant waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 23

Which substance undergo sublimation process –

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Naphthalene because it changes from solid to gaseous without undergoing liquid as it is a sublime substance.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 24

The conclusion of Rutherford’s scattering experiment does not include

Detailed Solution: Question 24

From the α scattering experiment, Rutherford concluded that:

  1. There is a positively charged centre in the atom called the nucleus. Nearby all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
  2. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbitals.
  3. The size of the nucleus is very small compared to that of an atom.
    (i) Scattering follows Columb's law
    (ii) Radius of the nucleus is less than 10−14 m
    (iii) α particles can approach with a distance of the order of 10−14 m of the nucleus.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 25

Which of the following glands add their secretions to the sperm to form semen in the male reproductive system?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The prostate gland and seminal vesicles are the associated glands that add their secretions to the sperm to form semen in the male reproductive system. These secretions provide nourishment to the sperm and help in the transport of sperm during ejaculation.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 26

A change in the physical state can be brought about

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Changing the physical state of matter typically requires energy input or removal to overcome intermolecular forces.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 27

The value of  is 

Detailed Solution: Question 27



UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 28

In the 1000 m race, A runs at 9 Km/hr. If B beats A by 80 seconds, what is the speed of B?

Detailed Solution: Question 28



Time taken by B = 400 – 80 = 320 seconds

Hence, Option A is correct.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 29

√8+2√32−5√2 is equal to

Detailed Solution: Question 29

√8 = 2√2.

√32 = 4√2.

Substitute these into the expression to get: 2√2 + 2×4√2 - 5√2

Combine like terms: (2 + 8 - 5)√2 = 5√2

Therefore the value of the expression is 5√2,
So, option A is correct.

UPSC CAPF Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (General & Mental Ability) - Question 30

Direction: In a family, there are six members P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are a married couple. P being the male member. S is the only son of R, who is the brother of P. T is the sister of S. Q is the daughter-in-law of U, whose husband has died.

Q. How is U related to R?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

U is the mother of P and R is the brother of P. So, U is mother of R.

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