Assam Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 3 - Judiciary Exams MCQ

• Meaning of Indict: Formally accuse of or charge with a crime.
• Meaning of Condemn: express complete disapproval of; censure.
• Meaning of Reprimand: a formal expression of disapproval
• Meaning of Allege: claim or assert that someone has done something illegal or wrong, typically without proof

One word substitution is Centrifugal.

Centrifugal: moving or tending to move away from a centre.
Centripetal: moving or tending to move towards a centre.
Axiomatic: self-evident or unquestionable.
Awry: away from the usual or expected course
 

Basic rules to be followed for Active/Passive conversions are:

The object of the active verb becomes the subject of the passive verb.
The finite form of the verb is changed (to be+ past participle).
The subject of the active sentence becomes the object of the passive sentence (or is dropped).
Preposition "by" is used before object.
The given sentence is in active voice. It is simple form of present tense.

The structures for active/passive voices are:

Active: Subject + verb ("s" or "es" with singular noun) + object…

Passive: Object + Is/are/am + verb (IIIrd form) + by + subject…

The correct answer is '75.84'.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 census, the average literacy rate of Punjab is 75.84%.
• The literacy rate in Punjab has seen an upward trend, it was 34.12% in 1971.
• Punjab ranks 14th as per the current census at all India ranking of literacy.
• The male literacy rate is 80.44% and the female literacy rate is 70.73% in Punjab.
• The total literacy rate of Punjab is greater than the average literacy rate of 72.98% in India.

Important Points

Additional Information The literacy rate is defined by the percentage of the population of a given age group that can read and write.

The correct answer is It is a closed system.
Key Points

• Ecosystem:
  • Ecosystem, a natural resource system, the complex of living organisms, their physical environment, and all their interrelationships in a particular unit of space.
  • An ecosystem is an open system that can be categorized into its abiotic constituents, including minerals, climate, soil, water, sunlight, and all other nonliving elements, and its biotic constituents, consisting of all its living members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Linking these constituents together are two major forces: the flow of energy through the ecosystem, and the cycling of nutrients within the ecosystem.
  • The fundamental source of energy in almost all ecosystems is radiant energy from the Sun.
  • The energy of sunlight is used by the ecosystem’s autotrophic, or self-sustaining, organisms. Consisting largely of green vegetation, these organisms are capable of photosynthesis i.e., they can use the energy of sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into simple, energy-rich carbohydrates.
  • The autotrophs use the energy stored within the simple carbohydrates to produce the more complex organic compounds, such as proteins, lipids, and starches, that maintain the organisms’ life processes.
  • The autotrophic segment of the ecosystem is commonly referred to as the producer level.

Additional Information

• The organic matter generated by autotrophs directly or indirectly sustains heterotrophic organisms.
• Heterotrophs are the consumers of the ecosystem; they cannot make their own food.
• They use, rearrange, and ultimately decompose the complex organic materials built up by the autotrophs.
• All animals and fungi are heterotrophs, as are most bacteria and many other microorganisms.
• Together, the autotrophs and heterotrophs form various trophic (feeding) levels in the ecosystem: the producer level, composed of those organisms that make their own food; the primary consumer level, composed of those organisms that feed on producers; the secondary consumer level, composed of those organisms that feed on primary consumers; and so on.
• The movement of organic matter and energy from the producer level through various consumer levels makes up a food chain.
• For example, a typical food chain in a grassland might be grass (producer) → mouse (primary consumer) → snake (secondary consumer) → hawk (tertiary consumer).
• Actually, in many cases the food chains of the ecosystem overlap and interconnect, forming what ecologists call a food web.
• The final link in all food chains is made up of decomposers, those heterotrophs that break down dead organisms and organic wastes.
• A food chain in which the primary consumer feeds on living plants is called a grazing pathway; that in which the primary consumer feeds on dead plant matter is known as a detritus pathway.
• Both pathways are important in accounting for the energy budget of the ecosystem.

Lalu Prasad Yadav was a member of the Janata Dal before he formed the Rashtriya Janata Dal.

The correct answer is 'alluvial soil'.

Key Points

• The greater part of Punjab is covered with alluvial soil.
• Alluvial soils are formed mainly due to silt deposited by Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra rivers.
• Alluvial soil has the highest productivity with respect to other soils.
• As most of the state lies in a fertile alluvial plain, Punjab's economy has been primarily agriculture-based since the Green Revolution.

Additional Information

• Desert soil
  • India has approximately 4% of the total area covered with desert soil in the regions of Rajasthan, adjoining areas of Punjab and Haryana lying between the Indus and the Aravallis, the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, and coastal regions of Orissa, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
  • More than 60% of the desert lies in Rajasthan.
• Grassy lands
  • In India, the grasslands span across North India, central India and some regions of Gujarat, and some regions of the Ghats.
  • These grasslands in India are usually found around the river plains, the Indo-Gangetic and the Brahmaputra plains in the north, the Narmada plain in Gujarat, etc.

From the common explanation, we get the immediate neighbour of P and U is S.
Hence, Option D is correct.
Final Arrangement:

Common Explanation:
References:
Exactly two persons are sitting between P and Q.
Only one person is sitting between P and U.
Inferences:
From the above references, we get two different cases:

References:
S is sitting second to the right of R.
Inferences:
From the above reference, we get the following arrangements:

References:
T is not sitting beside S.
Inferences:
So, from this case 2 will be eliminated as T is not sitting beside S.
Hence, we get our final arrangement:

The correct option is Option B.

Japan is an island country in East Asia located in the northwest Pacific Ocean. It is bordered by the Sea of Japan to the west and extends from the Sea of Okhotsk in the north to the East China Sea and Taiwan in the south.

New Zealand is an island country in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. It consists of two main landmasses—the North Island (Te Ika-a-Māui) and the South Island (Te Waipounamu)—and around 600 smaller islands, covering a total area of 268,021 square kilometres (103,500 sq mi). New Zealand is about 2,000 kilometres (1,200 mi) east of Australia across the Tasman Sea and 1,000 kilometres (600 mi) south of the islands of New Caledonia, Fiji, and Tonga. 

Known as Ceylon until 1972, Sri Lanka is an independent island nation located in the Indian Ocean just southeast of the tip of the Indian subcontinent.

The Indian subcontinent is a peninsula, the only land feature in the world widely recognized as a subcontinent in the English language

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India upheld the constitutionality of the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts of 1999 and 2002 in the landmark case of Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India .
• The case was decided by a bench of three judges, Justices Y.K. Sabharwal, D.M. Dharmadhikari, and Tarun Chatterjee, on August 2, 2005.
• The amendments to the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) were aimed at reforming the civil justice system in India by introducing various measures to expedite the disposal of cases and reduce pendency.
• The Salem Advocate Bar Association challenged the constitutionality of the amendments, arguing that they infringed upon the fundamental rights of litigants and the independence of the judiciary.
• However, the Supreme Court upheld the amendments, finding that they were in the public interest and did not violate any constitutional provisions.

Section 2 of Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939 states the various grounds of dissolution of muslim marriage.
Whereabouts of the husband are not known for four years is provided under section 2(i) of the Act.
The husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of three years is provided under section 2(iv) of the Act.
Non-maintenance of the wife by the husband for two years is provided under 2(ii) of the Act.
Option 4, i.e. Non-payment of mahr is not provided as a ground for dissolution of a Muslim marriage under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939.

According to Section 11 in The Specific Relief Act, 1963
Cases in which specific performance of contracts connected with trusts are enforceable when the act agreed to be done is in the performance wholly or partly of a trust. A contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced.

According to Section 60 of the CPC, the properties which are liable to be attached and sold in execution of a decree are, namely, lands, houses or other buildings, goods, money, bank notes, cheques, bills of exchange, hundis, promissory notes, government securities, bonds or other securities for money, debts, shares in a corporation and, save as hereinafter mentioned, all other saleable property, movable or immovable, belonging to the judgement debtor, or over which, or the profits of which, he has a disposing power which he may exercise for his own benefit, whether the same be held in the name of the judgement debtor or by another person in trust for him or on his behalf. Therefore, 'books and accounts' is not liable to be attached and sold in execution of a decree.

As per Order VIII, Rule 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a set-off can be pleaded in the case for recovery of ascertained sum of money.
Also, the ascertained sum of money must be legally recoverable from the plaintiff.

Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit 'theft'.

As per Section 64 of the Act, where the mortgaged property is a lease, and the mortgagee obtains a renewal of the lease, the mortgagor, upon redemption, shall, in the absence of a contract by him to the contrary, have the benefit of the new lease. Thus, (2) is the correct option.
The previous lease has already expired. Thus, (3) cannot be the correct option. (1) is incorrect because such benefits are applicable.

Article 41 of the Constitution provides that the State shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
It is one of the Directive Principles of the State Policy.

The provision regarding inter-pleader suit has been incorporated in Section 88 and Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure. Option (2) is correct.
Section 90 of the Code of Civil Procedure states that where any persons agree in writing to state a case for the opinion of the Court, then the Court shall try and determine the same in the manner prescribed. Thus, option (4) is incorrect.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Section 23 deals with suits for compensation for acts that do not give rise to a cause of action unless some specific injury actually results.
• Nature of the Suit:
  • This section applies to suits for compensation for acts that do not immediately give rise to a cause of action.
• Specific Injury Requirement:
  • For such acts, a cause of action arises only when a specific injury resulting from the act occurs.
• Computation of Period:
  • The period of limitation for filing a suit for compensation begins from the time when the injury resulting from the act actually occurs, not from the time when the act causing the injury took place.
• Example:
  • For instance, if exposure to a harmful substance eventually leads to illness, the period of limitation for filing a suit for compensation would begin from the time when the illness resulting from the exposure actually occurs, not from the time when the exposure happened.

Clause (1) of Section 6 of the Limitation Act states that where a person entitled to institute a suit or make an application for the execution of a decree is, at the time from which the prescribed period is to be reckoned, a minor or insane or an idiot, then he may institute the suit or make the application within the same period after the disability has ceased, as would otherwise have been allowed from the time specified therefor in the third column of the Schedule.
Thus, Section 6 is available to the plaintiffs only and hence, option (1) is the answer.

Section 23 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Admissions in civil cases, when relevant.—In civil cases no admission is relevant, if it is made either upon an express condition that evidence of it is not to be given, or under circumstances from which the Court can infer that the parties agreed together that evidence of it should not be given. Explanation.—Nothing in this section shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence under section 126.

Evidence is any matter of fact that a party to a lawsuit offers to prove or disprove an issue in the case. A system of rules and standards that is used to determine which facts may be admitted and to what extent a judge or jury may consider those facts, as proof of a particular issue in a lawsuit.

Section 26 of CPC contains the principle behind the institution of suit. It states that
(1) every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a plaint or in such other manner as may be prescribed
(2) in every plaint, facts shall be proved by an affidavit

Original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more states or between the Government of India and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other or between two or more states, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.