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ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Mechanical Engineering MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 for Mechanical Engineering 2024 is part of Mechanical Engineering preparation. The ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Mechanical Engineering exam syllabus.The ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for Mechanical Engineering 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 below.
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ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

At the triple point of a pure substance:

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The Triple point is a line on the P-V diagram where all the three phases solid, liquid and gases exist in equilibrium. At a pressure below the triple point line, the substance cannot exist in the liquid phase and the substance when heated, transforms from solid to vapour by absorbing the latent heat of sublimation from the surroundings.

The triple point is merely the point of intersection of the sublimation and vaporization curves. It has been found that on a ‘p-T’ diagram the triple point is represented by a point and on a ‘p-v’ diagram it is a line, and on a ‘u-v’ diagram it is a triangle. In the case of ordinary water, the triple point is at a pressure of 4.58 mm Hg and a temperature of 0.01°C.


ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Shape factor for the radiation exchange between a hemispherical surface and a plain surface is:

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Concept:
Shape Factor is defined as the fraction of radiation energy leaving a surface that reaches another surface,
for example, F12 means the fraction of energy leaving the surface 1 reaches surface 2.
Summation Rule: F11 + F12 = 1 and F21 + F22 = 1
Reciprocity theorem: A1 F12 = A2 F21 (A is the surface area)
Calculation:
Given:
Let us consider the circular part of the hemisphere as one and the spherical part as surface 2


From summation rule F11 + F12 = 1
Radiation energy leaving the surface 1 will not strike the surface again, therefore, F11 = 0
∴ F12 = 1
Now, from reciprocity theorem
A1F12 = A2F21
πR2 = F21 × 2πR2
F21 = 0.5
From F21 + F22 = 1 ⇒ F22 = 0.5

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ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

A thin spherical shell of diameter 200 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 MPa, If admissible tensile stress is 40 MPa, then the thickness of the shell is:

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Concept:

Hoop stress (σh) for a thin spherical shell is given by:

Calculation:

Given:

d = 200 mm, P = 2 MPa = 2 N/mm2, σh = 40 MPa = 40 N/mm2

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

If the current at 100 % duty cycle is 250 A, then what should the required current be, for 50% duty cycle?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Concept:
Current - Duty cycle relation is given by
I2D = Constant
From the above relation,
Ir2Dr = Id2Dd
where Ir and Dr are rated current and duty cycle, Id and Dd are desired current and duty cycle respectively.
Calculation:
Given:
Ir = 250 A, Dr = 100%, Dd = 50%, Id = ?
Now, we know that
Ir2Dr = Id2Dd
2502 × 1 = Id2 × 0.5
∴ Id = 353.55 A

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 5
The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is:
Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Using Torsion equation,

Where,

T = Applied Torque

IP = polar moment of inertia

τ = shear stress

G = Shear modulus

θ = Angle of rotation of the shaft

L = Length of the shaft

Hence, shear stress is directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia.
ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

What is the atomic packing factor for BCC and FCC, respectively?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

The atomic packing factor is defined as the ratio of the volume occupied by the average number of atoms in a unit cell to the volume of the unit cell.
Mathematically, Atomic Packing Factor (APF):


Characteristics of various types of structures are shown in the table below:

For Cubic Unit Cell
Nav = Nc/8 + Nf/2 + Ni/1
Nav = Average no of atoms in unit cell, Nc = No of corner atoms, Ni = No of interior atoms, Nf = No of face centre atoms
Calculation:
No of atoms in f.c.c unit cell = 4


for FCC a = 2√2 r where a is side of the cube and r is atomic radius.

APF = 0.74
For BCC:

Nav = 8/8 + 0 + 1/1 = 2
√3a = 4r
Put all values in equation 1
(APF)BCC = 0.6

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 7
In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each ball is 2.5 kg. Maximum and minimum speeds of rotation are 10 rad/s and 8 rad/s respectively. Maximum and minimum radii of rotation are 20 cm and 14 cm respectively. The length of horizontal and vertical arms of ball crank levers are 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. Neglecting obliquity and gravitational effects, the lift of the sleeve is
Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Concept:

For Hartnell governor:

s = stiffness of the spring, h = movement of the sleeve

a = length of the vertical or ball arm of the lever

b = length of the horizontal or sleeve arm of the lever

Calculation:

Given: m = 2.5 kg, r2 = 20 cm, r1 = 14 cm, b = 10 cm, a = 20 cm

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Tolerances for a hole and shaft assembly having a nominal size of 40 mm are as follows :

Determine Maximum material Limit (MML) of the hole.
Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The maximum material Limit (MML) in case of the hole is the lower limit of the hole.

Or the 'GO' condition,

Given dimension of hole =

base size of hole = 40 mm

upper limit of hole = 40 + 0.06 = 40.06 mm

lower limit of hole = 40 + 0.02 = 40.02 mm

So MML for hole = lower limit of hole

and 'NO GO' condition or minimum material limit or the upper limt of hole = 40.06 mm

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The break-even output for total fixed cost of Rs. 40,000, for which price per unit is Rs. 10, and variable cost is Rs. 5

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Concept:

Calculation:
Given:
TFC = Rs.40000
P = Rs.10
VC = Rs.5
Calculation:
Break even point = 40000/10−5
∴ Break-even point = Rs.8000

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding resolvers,
1) Resolver is an internal state sensor
2) Resolver converts available A.C signal into digital form
3) It can be used as an incremental encoder
Which of the above statements are true?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Concept:

  • Resolver is a robotic sensory device which is analogical in nature.
  • It is an internal state sensor, whose output is proportional to the angle of a rotating element with respect to a fixed element point.
  • It is a form of 'synchro' in which the stator and rotor windings of the resolver are displaced mechanically at 90° to each other.
  • It consists of a single rotor and two stator windings.

Resolvers
A resolver is another type of analog device whose output is proportional to the angle of a rotating element with respect to a fixed element. In its simplest form a resolver has a single winding on its rotor and a pair of windings on its stator. If the rotor is excited with a signal of the type A sin(ωt) the voltage across the two pairs of stator terminals will be

  • Vs1(t) = A sin(ωt) sin θ
  • Vs2(t) = A sin(ωt) cos θ

where θ is the angle of the rotor with respect to the stator. This signal may be used directly, or it may be converted into a digital representation using a device known as a "resolver-to-digital" converter. Since a resolver is essentially a rotating transformer it is important to remember that an ac signal must be used for excitation. If a de signal were used there would be no Output signal.
Characteristics:

  • It consists of devices used to measure position, velocity and acceleration of robot joints or end effector.
  • The resolver converts available A.C signal into digital signal.
  • It can be used a s servo system.
  • It eliminates the separate input and output transformers.
  • It can be used a san incremental encoder.
  • A resolver produces torque output
  • It performs all the synchronous functions.
ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

If the size of a standard specimen for fatigue testing machine is increased the endurance limit for the material will

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

The endurance limit of the specimen is given by
Se = Ka Kb Kc Kd Se'
where Ka = Surface finish factor, Kb = Size factor, Kc = Reliability factor, Kd = Modifying factor to account
for stress concentration, Se = Endurance limit stress of a particular mechanical component subjected to reversed bending stress (N/mm2), Se' = Endurance limit the stress of a rotating beam specimen subjected
to reversed bending stress (N/mm2)

  • When the surface finish is poor, there are scratches and geometric irregularities on the surface. These surface scratches serve as stress raisers and result in stress concentration. The endurance limit is reduced due to the introduction of stress concentration on these scratches.
  • When the machine part is larger greater is the probability that a flaw exists somewhere in the component, the chances of fatigue failure originating at these flaws are more. The endurance limit, therefore, reduces with the increasing size of the component.
  • The greater the likelihood that a part will survive, the more is the reliability factor. The reliability factor Kc depends upon the reliability that is used in the design of the component.

The endurance limit is reduced due to stress concentration.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

In which of the following microconstituents, α-Ferrite + Fe3C phases are present?
1. Spheroidite
2. Coarse pearlite
3. Fine pearlite
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Pearlite:

  • It is formed by decomposition of austenite at 723° C.
  • The decomposition of austenite leads to the formation of a eutectoid mixture of 88% α - ferrite and 12% cementite called pearlite.
  • The pearlite constituent consists of alternate lamellae of ferrite and cementite and contain 0.8% carbon.
  • For microstructure of a 0.2% carbon, steel would consists of a quarter of pearlite and three quarters of ferrite.
  • Ferrite is soft and ductile and pearlite is of medium hardness and it imparts mechanical strength to steel.
  • The higher the carbon content, the higher would be the pearlite content and hence higher mechanical strength.
  • Conversely, when the pearlite content increases, the ferrite content decreases and hence the ductility is reduced.
  • Pearlite is formed when homogeneous austenite steel is slowly cooled in either air (called Normalizing) or furnace atmospheres (called annealing) below eutectoid point (temperature 723°C and 0.8%C).
  • Structure will be coarser in case of furnace atmosphere and finer in case of cooling in air.
  • When coarseness of pearlite increases, the layers resist slipping very less, relative to each other. Hence steel become more ductile.
  • Both coarse pearlite and fine pearlite α-Ferrite + Fe3C phases are present.

​Eutectoid reaction:
At 727° C, 0.8 % Carbon:

Spheroidite:

  • It consists of sphere like cementite particles in an α - ferrite matrix.
  • Spheroidite is formed when carbon steel is heated for more than 30 hours at a temperature of more than 690°C.
  • Spheroidite is relatively soft and allows more formability.
  • It finds wide application in railroad tracks, tyre cords, bridge cables etc.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

A catalog lists the basic dynamic load rating for a ball bearing to be 8000 kg for a rated life of 1 × 106 rev. What is the expected L10 life of the bearing if it is subjected to a load of 4000 kg? (Take k = 3 for ball bearing)

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Concept:
Dynamic load carrying Capacity:

  • It is defined as the radial load in radial bearing (Thrust load in thrust bearing) that can be carried for a minimum life of one million revolutions.
  • It is based on the assumption that the inner race is rotating and the outer race is stationary.

Equivalent / Actual bearing Load:

  • The equivalent dynamic load is defined as the contact radial load in radial bearings (Thrust load in thrust bearing), which if applied to the bearing would give the same life as that which the bearing would attain in actual condition.

Bearing life under variable load:
​Life, (L / L90 / L10 )
= (C/Pe)n million revolution
n = 3 for ball bearing, n = 10/3 for roller bearing, C = basic dynamic load, Pe = Dynamic load
Calculation:
Given:
life = 1 × 106 rev = 1 million revolution, Radial load (Pe1) = 8000 Kg, Pe2 = 4000 kg, n = 3 (ball bearing)


⇒ L2 = 8 × L1
⇒ L2 = 8 ×106 rev.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
For the purpose of sampling inspection, the maximum percent defective that can be considered satisfactory as a process average is
Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Concept:

The operating characteristics curve for an attribute sampling plan is a graph of fraction defective in a lot against the probability of acceptance.

For different sampling plans, the operating characteristics curve will be different. To construct we should know the mathematical probability of accepting lots with varying percent defectives.

Acceptance Quality Level (AQL):

  • AQL represents the maximum proportion of defectives that the consumer finds definitely acceptable.
  • Ideally, at AQL the probability of acceptance should be one i.e.100%. The probability of rejecting the lot at AQL represents the producer’s risk.

Rejection Quality Level (RQL):

  • RQL represents the proportion of defects that the consumer finds definitely unacceptable. The probability of accepting a lot at the RQL level represents the consumer’s risk.
  • It is also called Lot Tolerance Percentage Defective (LTPD).
ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Which of the following statements regarding hydraulic pumps are correct?

1. The gear pump consists of two close meshing gear wheels which rotate in opposite directions.

2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the vanes follow the contours of the casing.

3. This leakage is more in vane pump compared to gear pump.

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Concept:
A gear pump
is a type of positive displacement (PD) pump.
It moves a fluid by repeatedly enclosing a fixed volume using interlocking cogs or two gears, transferring it mechanically using a cyclic pumping action. It delivers a smooth pulse-free flow proportional to the rotational speed of its gears.

These pumps have a disadvantage of small leakage due to a gap between teeth and the pump housing.

Vane pumps generate a pumping action by tracking of vanes along the casing wall. In vane pump vanes are located on the slotted rotor. The rotor is eccentrically placed inside the casing. When the prime mover rotates the rotor, the vanes are thrown outward due to centrifugal force. In vane pumps leakage is less and its volumetric efficiency is around 95%.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Statement (I): SCARA configuration provides substantial rigidity for the robot in the vertical direction, but compliance in the horizontal plane.

Statement (II): A special version of the Cartesian coordinate robot is the SCARA, which has a very high lift capacity as it is designed for high rigidity.

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Concept:

A special version of the jointed arm robot is the SCARA stands for selective compliance assembly robot arm, and this configuration provides substantial rigidity of the robot in the vertical direction, but compliance in the horizontal plane. This makes it ideal for many assembly tasks

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

A domestic food freezer maintains a temperature of –15°C. The ambient air temperature is 30°C. If heat leaks into the freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the least power necessary to pump this heat out continuously will be nearly

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Concept:

It is asked least work required, the work will be minimum only when refrigerator operates on reversed Carnot cycle.

For reversed Carnot cycle,

COP = TL/TH−TL = QL/W

Calculation:

Given TL = -15°C = 258 K, TH = 30°C = 303 K, QL = 1.75 kJ/s;

⇒ W = 0.3 kJ/s = 0.3 kW

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

In cycloidal motion of cam follower, the maximum acceleration of follower motion fmax at θ = ϕ/4 is

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

A cycloidal is the locus of a point on a circle rolling on a straight line.
Mathematically,
Acceleration in the cycloidal profile is expressed by:

where:
h = Maximum follower displacement
ω = Angular velocity of cam
ϕ = Angle for the maximum follower displacement for cam rotation
This acceleration at θ = ϕ/4
Maximum acceleration is

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

If the axes of the first and last wheels of a compound gear coincide, it is called

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Concept:
Reverted gear train:
When the axes of the first gear (i.e. first driver) and the last gear (i.e. last driven or follower) are co-axial, then the gear train is known as reverted gear train and here the motion of the first gear and the last gear is like.
The reverted gear trains are used in automotive transmissions, lathe back gears, industrial speed reducers, and clocks.

Additional Information
Simple gear train:
When every gear axes are fixed relative to the fixed frame and, there is only one gear on each shaft. The number of shafts may be any.

Compound gear train: When any shaft has more than one gear (first shaft or second shaft or intermediate shaft) i.e. two gear have the same angular velocity, the gear drive is called compound gear drive.

Epicyclic gear train: When the gear train is having a relative motion of axes it is called the epicyclic gear train. The axis of at least one of the gears also moves relative to the frame.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

A 120 mm wide uniform plate is to be subjected to a tensile load that has a maximum value of 250 kN and a minimum value of 100 kN. The properties of the plate material are : endurance limit stress is 225 MPa, yield point stress is 300 MPa. If the factor of safety based on yield point is 1.5, the thickness of the plate will be nearly

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Concept:
The factor of safety is based on yield point. So, we have to use Soderberg equation i.e.

where, σm = mean stress, σv = amplitude stress, Syt = yield strength, Se = endurance limit stress, N = factor of safety

Calculation:
Given:
Width of the plate w = 120 mm, Syt = 300 MPa, Se = 225 MPa, N = 1.5
Maximum value of the applied force P1 = 250 kN, Minimum value of the applied force P2 = 100 kN
Let t be the thickness of the plate
Now Maximum stress σmax = = MPa
Minimum stress σmin = = MPa
Mean stress, σm = σm 
Amplitude stress σa = σv
Now by applying Sodeburg equation,


⇒ t = 11.45 mm ≈ 12 mm
Important Point

For Brittle materials, we will use Goodman's Theory i.e.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following are essential for a good combustion chamber of turbojet engine?

1. It should allow complete combustion of fuel.

2. It should maintain sufficiently high temperature in the zone of combustion in addition to proper atomization of fuel thus leading to continuous combustion.

3. It should not have high rate of combustion.

4. The pressure drop should be as small as possible
Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Concept:

In the combustion chamber is where the combustion takes place. Here, heat is added to the jet engine in the Brayton Cycle. Compressed air flows from the compressor into the chamber and ignites after being mixed with the fuel.

The principal requirements of a combustion chamber are

  • Low weight and small frontal area
  • Low pressure loss.
  • Stable and efficient combustion
  • Thorough mixing of hot and cold fluid streams to give a uniform temperature distribution (sufficiently high) for continuous combustion
  • A high velocity and a high fuel-air ratio will give a rich blowout. Which means that oxygen is displaced by fuel, which lowers the temperature of the flame and in some cases distinguishes it. So it should not have high rate of combustion.
  • A lean blowout is where not enough fuel is given to the flame and could also cause it to be distinguished, this is also used for lowering the engine RPM.
  • Because of turbine material limitations, only a limited amount of fuel can be burnt in the combustion chamber. The exhaust products downstream of the turbine still contain a considerable amount of excess oxygen.
ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

A fluidized bed combustion system having an output of 35 MW at 80% efficiency when using a coal of heating value 26 MJ/kg with a sulphur content of 3.6% requires a particular limestone to be fed to it at a calcium-sulphur molar ratio of 3.0 so as to limit emissions of SO2 adequately. The limestone used contains 85% CaCO3. The required flow rate of limestone will be

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Calculation:

Given

Output = 35 MW; η = 80%

⇒ Heat supplied = 35/0.80 = 43.75 MW;

Heating value of coal = 26 MJ/kg

⇒ Mass flow rate of fuel supplied = 43.75/26 = 1.6827 kg/s;

Given coal has sulphur content of 3.6 %

⇒ Mass flow rate of sulphur = 1.6827 × 0.036 = 0.0605 kg/s;

Moles of sulphur = 0.0605/32 = 1.89 × 10-3 kmol/s;

A particular limestone to be fed to it at a calcium-sulphur molar ratio of 3.0

Moles of calcium (CaCO3) required = 3 × 1.89 × 10-3 kmol/s = 5.679 × 10-3 kmol/s;

Mass of CaCO3 required = 0.5679 kg/s;

Mass of limestone required = 0.5679/0.85 = 0.668 kg/s = 2405 kg/hr;

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

In heat exchanger, 50 kg of water is heater per minute from 50°C to 110°C by hot gases which enter the heat exchanger at 250°C. The value of Cp for water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K and for air is 1 kJ/kg.K. If the flow rate of gases is 100 kg/min, the net change of enthalpy of air will be nearly

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Concept:
The energy balance equation for heat exchanger gives:
Heat gain by cool body = Heat loo by hot body
⇒ Increase in the enthalpy of cold water = Decrease in enthalpy of hot air
Calculation:
Given:
= 50 kg/min, Cpw= 4.186 kJ/kg.K, Inlet water temperature, Tci = 50˚C, Exit water temperature, Tco = 110˚C
∴ Net enthalpy change in water = Net enthalpy change in water = Cpw (Tco- Tci)
= 50 × 4.186 × (110-50)
= 12558 kJ/min ⇒ 12.6 MJ/min

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Which one of the following is an enclosure or housing for the generator, gear box and any other parts of the wind turbine that are on the top of the tower?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Concept:

A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind turbine, including the generator, gearbox, drive train, and brake assembly.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

What is the solidity of American multiblade wind turbine rotor?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Rotor Solidity:

  • Solidity is one of the most important parameters that can affect the performance of straight-bladed wind turbines. The solidity σ, states a relation between the blade area and the turbine swept area.
  • Solidity is the ratio of total rotor planform area to total swept area.

Low solidity (0.10) = high speed, low torque.
High solidity (>0.80) = low speed, high torque.
The solidity of American Multiblade: 0.7
The solidity of savonious rotor: 1

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

A turbine develops 8000 kW when running at 1000 rpm. The head on the turbines is 30 m. If the head is reduced to 18 m, what is the speed developed by the turbine?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Concept:
Unit Quantities:
If the speed, discharge, and power developed by a turbine under a head are known, then by using unit quantities the speed, discharge, and power developed by the same turbine under a different head can be obtained easily. They are as follows:




Calculation:
Given:
P1 = 8000 kW, N1 = 1000 rpm, H1 = 30 m, H2 = 18 m


N2 = 774.6 rpm

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The stresses on two perpendicular planes through a point in a body are 160 MPa and 100 MPa, both compressive, along with a shear stress of 80 MPa. What is the normal stress on a plane inclined at 30° to the plane of 160 MPa stress ?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Concept:
If σx and σy are normal stress on vertical and horizontal plane respectively and this plane is accompanied by shear stress τxy then normal stress and shear stress on plane a-a, which is inclined at an angle θ from plane of σy.

where θ taken from Y-axis or σy

Calculation:

Given:

σx = -160 MPa, σy = -100 MPa, & τxy = 80 MPa.



Here θ = 60°


σ60 = −130 + 15 + 69.282 = −45.71

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding typical analysis of bolt failure :
1. 15% failure of bolt occur at the fillet under the head.
2. 50% failure of bolt occur at the end of threads on the shank.
3. 80% failure of bolt occur in the threads that are in contact with the nut.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Bolt Failure Analysis: In this bolts are tested in different conditions and loadings and results are recorded for better understanding of failure.
According to bolt failure analysis:

  • 15% failures occur at the fillet under the head
  • 20% failures occur at the end of threads on the shank.
  • 65% failures occur in the threads that are in contact with the nut
ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Which one of the following is the cutter with a curved tooth outline of the same shape as the profile of the workpiece ?

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

There are different milling operations:
Form/Profile milling:

This milling process is used for machining those surfaces which are of irregular shapes. The form milling cutter used has the shape of its cutting teeth conforming to the profile of the surface to be produced.

Plain or slab milling:
Slab milling is used to machine flat and horizontal surfaces. Here plain milling cutter is used, which is held in the arbor and rotated. The table is moved upwards to give the required depth of cut.

Face milling:
It is an operation that can be used for machining a flat surface, perpendicular to the axis of the cutter. It may use periphery cutters or face cutters.

ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

180 kJ of heat one supplied to a system at constant volume. Then the system rejects 85 kJ of heat at constant pressure and 35 kJ of work is done on it. The system is brought to its original state by an adiabatic process. Determine adiabatic work if internal energy in the constant volume process is 105 kJ.

Detailed Solution for ESE (ME) Paper II Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

According to the first law of thermodynamics:

When a system undergoes a thermodynamic cycle then the net heat supplied to the system from the surrounding is equal to net work done by the system on its surroundings.

Given:

Q12 = 180 kJ, Q23 = -85 kJ, W23 = -35 kJ, U1 = 105 kJ, W31 = ?

Process 1 – 2 constant volume W12 = 0

Q12 = W12 + ΔU12

Q12 = U2 – U1

Q12 + U1 = U2

∴ U2 = 285 kJ.

Process 2 – 3 constant pressure

Q23 = W23 + ΔU23

∴ Q23 – W23 = U3 – U2

∴ U3 = -85 + 35 + 285 = 235 kJ

Process 3 – 1 adiabatic process

Q31 = 0

Q31 = W31 + (U1 – U3)

∴ W31 = -(U1 – U3) = -(105 – 235) = 130 kJ.

Check ΣW123 = ΣQ23

ΣW123 = 130 – 35 = 95 kJ

ΣQ23 = 180 – 85 = 95 kJ

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