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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 Free Online Test


Full Mock Test & Solutions: BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 (50 Questions)

You can boost your Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam preparation with this BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 60 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 50
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The official housing price index (HPI) of India is determined by whom?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Key Points

  • National Housing Bank (NHB) is responsible for determining the official Housing Price Index (HPI) in India.
  • NHB is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), established to promote housing finance institutions and to provide financial and other support to such institutions.
  • The HPI by NHB helps in understanding the price changes in residential housing sectors across different cities and periods.
  • The index serves as a crucial tool for policymakers, investors, and researchers in making informed decisions related to the housing sector.

Additional Information

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Match the column named 'Windows10 Keyboard Shortcut' with the column named 'Description'.

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Key Points

Windows10 Keyboard Shortcuts

  • Shift + Delete - This shortcut is used to delete selected items without moving them to the Recycle Bin. It is a permanent delete option. Hence, (a) matches with (ii).
  • Alt + Spacebar - This shortcut is used to open the shortcut menu for the active window. This menu typically includes options like Restore, Move, Size, Minimize, Maximize, and Close. Hence, (b) matches with (iii).
  • Shift + Ins - This shortcut is used to paste selected items. It is an alternative to the more commonly known Ctrl + V shortcut. Hence, (c) matches with (iv).
  • Ctrl + X - This shortcut is used to cut the selected item. It removes the item from its current location and stores it in the clipboard for pasting elsewhere. Hence, (d) matches with (i).

Additional Information

  • Windows Keyboard Shortcuts - Windows operating systems provide a variety of keyboard shortcuts to enhance user efficiency and productivity. These shortcuts allow users to perform tasks quickly without the need for a mouse.
  • Shift + Delete - This shortcut is particularly useful when you want to permanently delete files or folders without sending them to the Recycle Bin. Be cautious when using this shortcut as it bypasses the Recycle Bin, making recovery more difficult.
  • Alt + Spacebar - This shortcut opens the system menu for the active window. It is useful for managing windows, especially when the title bar is not accessible or visible.
  • Shift + Ins - This shortcut is often used in text editors and document processors to paste content from the clipboard. It is less common but equally effective as Ctrl + V.
  • Ctrl + X - The cut command is essential for moving text, files, or folders from one location to another. It temporarily stores the cut item in the clipboard until it is pasted elsewhere using Ctrl + V or Shift + Ins.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Which of the given options best describes the truth of the following statements?

i) An assembler is a program for converting instructions written in a high-level language into relocatable machine code, and generating information for the loader.

ii) The assembler must remain in main memory during the exaction of the assembly code.

iii) Different types of assemblers include One pass assemblers and load-and-go assemblers.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Key Points

  • Statement (i): "An assembler is a program for converting instructions written in a high-level language into relocatable machine code, and generating information for the loader."
    • This statement is incorrect because an assembler converts instructions written in an assembly language, not a high-level language, into machine code.
    • Assemblers translate low-level assembly language into machine code that the computer's CPU can execute directly.
    • Hence, statement (i) is incorrect.
  • Statement (ii): "The assembler must remain in main memory during the execution of the assembly code."
    • This statement is correct because the assembler is typically loaded into memory to translate assembly language code into machine code.
    • Once the translation is complete, the machine code can be executed by the CPU.
    • Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
  • Statement (iii): "Different types of assemblers include One pass assemblers and load-and-go assemblers."
    • This statement is correct as there are indeed various types of assemblers, including one-pass assemblers and load-and-go assemblers.
    • One-pass assemblers process the source code in a single pass, whereas load-and-go assemblers generate the machine code and load it directly into memory for immediate execution.
    • Hence, statement (iii) is correct.

Additional Information

  • Assemblers:
    • An assembler is a type of computer program that translates assembly language into machine code.
    • Assemblers are used to create executable programs from human-readable assembly language source code.
    • They play a crucial role in the software development process by providing a bridge between high-level programming languages and machine code.
  • Types of Assemblers:
    • One-Pass Assembler: Assembles the code in a single pass, meaning it reads and processes each line of the source code only once.
    • Load-and-Go Assembler: Generates machine code and loads it directly into memory for immediate execution, often used in real-time systems.
  • High-Level vs. Assembly Language:
    • High-Level Language: Examples include C, C++, Java, and Python. These languages are closer to human languages and abstract away hardware-specific details.
    • Assembly Language: A low-level programming language that is closely related to machine code, providing direct control over hardware.
  • Memory Management:
    • Assemblers and other system software must be loaded into memory to perform their functions, which involves translating code or managing hardware resources.
    • Effective memory management is critical for the efficient execution of programs and overall system performance.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Which of the given options best describes the truth of the following statements?

i) Microsoft Outlook is an email application software.

ii) Email clients use mail access protocols such as POP/IMAP protocols to retrieve/sync emails from the server.

iii) Microsoft Exchange Server is a mail server and calendaring server developed by SunMicrosystems.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Key Points

  • Statement i: Microsoft Outlook is an email application software.
    • Microsoft Outlook is indeed a popular email application that is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
    • It is used for email communication, calendar scheduling, task management, contact management, note-taking, and journal logging.
    • Outlook can be used as a stand-alone application or can work with Microsoft Exchange Server and Microsoft SharePoint Server for multiple users in an organization.
    Hence, statement i is correct.
  • Statement ii: Email clients use mail access protocols such as POP/IMAP protocols to retrieve/sync emails from the server.
    • POP (Post Office Protocol) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) are standard protocols used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server.
    • POP downloads emails from the server to the local computer and usually deletes them from the server, whereas IMAP synchronizes emails between the server and the client, allowing for better management of emails across multiple devices.
    • These protocols ensure that users can access their emails from different devices while keeping their messages up-to-date.
    Hence, statement ii is correct.
  • Statement iii: Microsoft Exchange Server is a mail server and calendaring server developed by Sun Microsystems.
    • Microsoft Exchange Server is actually developed by Microsoft, not Sun Microsystems.
    • It is a mail server and calendaring server used by businesses and organizations for email communication, scheduling, and collaboration.
    • Sun Microsystems was known for developing other technologies like the Java programming language and the Solaris operating system but not for Exchange Server.
    Hence, statement iii is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Outlook:
    • It was first released in 1997 as part of the Office 97 suite.
    • Outlook offers integration with other Microsoft applications and services, making it a versatile tool for professional communication and organization.
  • POP and IMAP Protocols:
    • POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving email.
    • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) was designed to allow multiple clients to manage the same mailbox, making it more suitable for users who access their email from various devices.
  • Microsoft Exchange Server:
    • First released in 1996, Exchange Server supports various communication protocols, including SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), POP3, IMAP, and MAPI (Messaging Application Programming Interface).
    • It provides email, calendaring, contacts, and tasks, and supports data storage and search functionalities.
    • Exchange is widely used in enterprise environments due to its robust security features and integration with Active Directory.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Where is the famous temple of Angkor Wat located?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Key Points

  • Angkor Wat is a Buddhist temple complex located in northern Cambodia.
  • It was originally built in the first half of the 12th century as a Hindu temple, dedicated to the Hindu god Vishnu.
  • The Angkor Wat is the largest religious monument in the world, Spread across more than 400 acres.
  • The builder of Angkor Wat was a king named Suryavarman II.
  • Cambodia is a Southeast Asian nation, the capital city is Phnom Penh.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Who among the following wrote Ain-I Akbari?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Key Points

  • A major source for the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries are chronicles and documents from the Mughal court.

  • One of the most important chronicles was the Ain-i Akbari authored by Akbar’s court historian Abu’l Fazl.

  • This text meticulously recorded the arrangements made by the state to ensure cultivation, to enable the collection of revenue by the agencies of the state, and to regulate the relationship between the state and rural magnates, the zamindars.

  • This book was written in a mixture of Turkis and Persian languages.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Who developed the computer language COBOL?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Key Points

  • The computer language COBOL (Common Business-Oriented Language) was developed by a committee called the CODASYL (Conference on Data Systems Languages) in 1959.
  • This committee was a joint initiative between the United States government and the private sector.
  • The objective was to create a programming language that could be used across different types of computers for business applications, emphasizing readability and portability.
  • Notably, Rear Admiral Grace Hopper, a pioneering computer scientist, played a significant role in the development of COBOL, advocating for the creation of a language that would use English words to facilitate business data processing.

Additional Information

  • John Backus is known for leading the team that invented FORTRAN (FORmula TRANslation), the first widely used high-level programming language. He was also the inventor of the Backus-Naur form (BNF), a notation that is widely used to define the syntax of programming languages.
  • Robert Noyce, often referred to as "the Mayor of Silicon Valley," was a co-inventor of the integrated circuit (microchip) and co-founder of Fairchild Semiconductor in 1957 and Intel Corporation in 1968.
  • Alan Shugart was a pioneer in the disk storage industry. He was the founder of Shugart Associates and Seagate Technology. Shugart Associates played a significant role in the development of the floppy disk, and Seagate Technology was pivotal in the mass production of hard disk drives, crucial for data storage in computers.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Which is the hottest planet of our solar system?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Key Points

  • Planetary surface temperatures tend to get colder the farther a planet is from the Sun.
  • Venus is the exception, as its proximity to the Sun and dense atmosphere make it our solar system's hottest planet.

Additional Information

  • Venus is the second planet from the Sun and our closest planetary neighbour.
    • Its thick atmosphere traps heat in a runaway greenhouse effect, making it the hottest planet in our solar system with surface temperatures hot enough to melt lead.
  • The Solar System is about 4.6 billion years old.
  • Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System.
    • It is the fifth planet from the Sun.
    • Jupiter is a gas giant, both because it is so large and made up of gas.
  • Earth is a terrestrial planet.
    • It is the third planet from the Sun.
    • It is the only planet known to have life on it.
    • The Earth formed around 4.5 billion years ago.
  • Neptune has four rings which are hard to see from the Earth.
    • It is seventeen times heavier than Earth and is a little bit heavier than Uranus.
    • It was named after the Roman God of the Sea.

  • There are many different types of objects found in the solar system: a star, planets, moons, dwarf planets, comets, asteroids, gas, and dust.
    • 1 star (The Sun)
    • 8 planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune)
    • 5 dwarf planets (Pluto, Ceres, Haumea, Makemake, and Eris)
    • 181 moons
    • 566,000 asteroids
    • 3,100 comets

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for heat?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Calorimetry

  • Calorimetry is the science of measurement of heat. Its methods are used for determining the specific heat and latent heat of a substance. This method uses the basic premise that when two bodies at different temperatures are brought into contact, the hotter body loses heat and the colder body gains heat till their temperature becomes equal. The heat thus lost by the hotter body equals the heat gained by the colder body.
  • You must remember, however, that even though the heat exchanged is equal the temperature changes are different. Another important thing to remember here is that when two bodies are brought together their final temperature will always be greater than (or equal to) the temperature of the colder body and always less than (or equal to) the temperature of the hotter body.
  • The heat content per gram of steam at 100°C is greater than the heat content per gram of water at 100°C.
  • This is because the heat energy supplied to convert water into steam is retained by steam.
  • the sum of the heat of an individual body will always be equal to the total amount of heat unless the heat energy is not transformed into another form of energy.
  • Therefore, here option 4 is incorrect as it is not completely given.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

In general, a neutralization reaction can be written as:

Detailed Solution: Question 10

In general, a neutralization reaction can be written as Base + Acid → Salt + Water.

Key Points

Neutralization Reaction:

  • It is a chemical reaction in which an acid and base react together to form salt and water as products.
  • The formation of Sodium Chloride is an example of the neutralization reaction.
    • HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

Additional Information

  • Acid:
    • An acid is a substance which:
    • Is sour in taste.
    • Turns blue litmus paper into red.
    • Contains replaceable hydrogen.
    • Gives hydrogen ion (H+) in an aqueous solution.
    • Can donate a proton.
    • Can accept an electron
  • Bases:
    • A Base is a substance which:
    • Is bitter in taste.
    • Turns red litmus paper into the blue.
    • Gives hydroxyl ions (OH–) in an aqueous solution.
    • Can accept a proton.
    • Can donate electrons.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Gold and silver are extracted from their respective ores by ________.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Gold and silver are extracted from their respective ores by ​Hydrometallurgy.

  • In the hydrometallurgy process uses aqueous solutions to extract metals from ores.
  • This process is used in the extraction of least reactive metals like gold and silver.
  • Hydrometallurgy is divided into three general areas -
    • Leaching,
    • Solution concentration and purification.
    • Metal or metal compound recovery.
  • Most of the gold, silver, copper, and zinc are produced by the hydrometallurgy process.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

The "race to the bottom" phenomenon, often associated with globalization, implies:

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The "race to the bottom" phenomenon, often associated with globalization, refers to the tendency of countries to compete against each other by lowering their environmental and labor standards in order to attract foreign investment and boost economic growth. As corporations seek to maximize profits and minimize costs, they are drawn to countries with less stringent regulations, lower wages, and fewer restrictions on their operations.

Key Points

  • Lowering of environmental standards: Countries may relax regulations on pollution, emissions, and natural resource exploitation to attract industries seeking to minimize compliance costs.
  • Weakening of labor protections: Nations may reduce minimum wage requirements, overtime pay, safety standards, and other worker protections to provide a more business-friendly environment.
  • Deregulation and tax incentives: Governments may offer tax breaks, subsidies, and other incentives to attract foreign investment, further eroding their ability to enforce standards and regulations.
  • Shifting production to developing countries: Companies may relocate their operations to developing countries with lower standards, leading to a decline in manufacturing and job losses in developed nations.
  • Increased global competition: As more countries engage in this "race to the bottom," the pressure to lower standards intensifies, making it difficult for nations to maintain higher levels of protection without risking economic disadvantages.

Additional Information

  • The "race to the bottom" concept highlights the potential negative consequences of globalization and the need for international cooperation and regulation to prevent the erosion of environmental and labor standards. Critics argue that this phenomenon can lead to the exploitation of workers, environmental degradation, and a widening gap between rich and poor nations.
  • To counter this trend, various international agreements, such as the Paris Agreement on climate change and the International Labour Organization's conventions, aim to establish minimum standards and promote cooperation among nations. However, the effectiveness of these agreements is often limited by the lack of enforcement mechanisms and the reluctance of some countries to participate.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox in 1798?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Key Points

  • Edward Jenner, an English physician, is credited with the discovery of the smallpox vaccine.
  • In 1796, Jenner performed an experiment in which he inoculated a young boy with material from cowpox lesions.
  • This process, known as vaccination (derived from the Latin word "vacca," meaning cow), provided immunity against smallpox.
  • Jenner's groundbreaking work laid the foundation for modern immunology and vaccination practices, saving countless lives and leading to the eventual eradication of smallpox, which was declared by the World Health Organization in 1980.

Additional Information

  • Alexander Fleming:
    • Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist, pharmacologist, and botanist.
    • He is best known for his accidental discovery of the antibiotic penicillin in 1928.
    • Penicillin revolutionized medicine by providing an effective treatment for bacterial infections.
  • Robert Koch:
    • Robert Koch was a German physician and microbiologist.
    • He is considered one of the founders of modern bacteriology and is known for his groundbreaking work on identifying the causative agents of various infectious diseases.
    • Koch is famous for his discoveries of the bacteria that cause tuberculosis and cholera.
  • Louis Pasteur:
    • Louis Pasteur was a French biologist, microbiologist, and chemist.
    • He is renowned for his contributions to the understanding of microbial fermentation, pasteurization, and the development of vaccines.
    • Pasteur's work in vaccine development includes the rabies vaccine, which was a significant milestone in the prevention of rabies.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Who won the Batch Open Squash title by defeating France's Melvil Scianimanico?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

  • Velavan Senthilkumar, the national men's Squash champion, secured his eighth PSA (Professional Squash Association) title by winning the Batch Open Challenger Squash.

Key Points

  • The tournament was held at Jeu de Paume, Paris, France, from April 24-28, 2024, organized by the Professional Squash Association in collaboration with the French Squash Federation.
  • Senthilkumar, ranked World No. 58, clinched victory in the final against Melvil Scianimanico of France in straight sets, with scores of 11-6, 11-9, and 11-9.
  • His path to victory included defeating Andes Ling from Hong Kong in the semifinals, setting up the title clash with Scianimanico.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

"Siderite" is the ore of which among the following metals ?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Key Points

  • Siderite is an ore of Iron. Its chemical formula is FeCO3
  • Though it contains only 48% Iron, it is a valuable iron mineral, since it does not contain any sulfur or phosphorus.​

Additional Information

  • Some Ores of Iron:-

Some facts about Iron:-

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

What is the full from of ASCII?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Key Points

ASCII:

  • It stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • It is a standard data-transmission code that is used by smaller and less-powerful computers to represent both textual data (letters, numbers, and punctuation marks) and noninput-device commands (control characters).
  • It's a 7-bit character code where every single bit represents a unique character.
  • It converts information into standardized digital formats that allow computers to communicate with each other and to efficiently process and store data.
  • On this webpage, you will find 8 bits, 256 characters, ASCII table according to Windows-1252 (code page 1252) which is a superset of ISO 8859-1 in terms of printable characters.
  • In the range, 128 to 159 (hex 80 to 9F), ISO/IEC 8859-1 has invisible control characters, while Windows-1252 has writable characters.
  • Windows-1252 is probably the most-used 8-bit character encoding in the world.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

When a light undergoes reflection, the velocity of the reflected light is always:

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Reflection

  • The property of light to fall on a surface and then reflect back the same medium is known as reflection.
  • As a result, the medium of light does not change during reflection.
  • Reflection is the change in direction of light when it strikes a surface.
  • In the case of reflection, the light returns to the medium from which it originated.
  • The speed of the wave does not change because it remains in the same medium from which it originated.
  • As a result, the wavelength and frequency of the wave do not change when it is reflected.
  • Hence, when a light undergoes reflection, the velocity of the reflected light is always equal to the velocity of the incident light .

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Why goldsmiths use the outermost zone of a flame for melting gold and silver, considering the temperature distribution within a flame.

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The art of melting metals like gold and silver demands precision, efficiency, and a deep understanding of the properties of fire. In this context, goldsmiths strategically utilize the outermost zone of a flame during the melting process. This choice is based on the inherent temperature distribution within a flame. Contrary to some beliefs, the outermost zone is not the coolest but the hottest part of the flame, making it exceptionally well-suited for efficiently melting high-melting-point metals such as gold and silver.

In the typical structure of a flame, especially one produced by a gas burner, the temperature increases from the inner core towards the outer zones. The outermost zone, known as the “non-luminous flame,” is characterized by complete combustion and, consequently, reaches the highest temperatures. Such temperatures are necessary to surpass the melting points of gold (approximately 1064°C) and silver (approximately 962°C), ensuring that these metals become sufficiently fluid for molding and casting. Using this zone, goldsmiths can melt precious metals with the efficiency required for their delicate tasks.

Concepts:

  1. Temperature Distribution in a Flame: A flame's temperature is not uniform; it increases from the interior zones to the outermost zone, with the outer zone being the hottest.
  2. Complete Combustion: Occurs in the outermost zone of the flame, ensuring the maximum release of energy and thus the highest temperatures.
  3. Melting Points of Metals: Metals like gold and silver have high melting points that can only be reached with the temperatures available in the outermost zone of a flame.
  4. Efficiency in Melting Metals: The use of the hottest part of the flame allows goldsmiths to melt metals quickly and efficiently, reducing the time and energy needed for the process.

Conclusion:

So, goldsmiths use the outermost zone of a flame for melting gold and silver, considering the temperature distribution within a flame is It is the hottest part, efficiently melting metals.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Match the substances with the correct descriptions of their reactions or properties in chemical terms, illustrating the varied interactions of acids and bases.

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Mixing substances from column A with the properties or reactions of substances in column B illustrates foundational chemical interactions involving acids, bases, and their role in everyday substances.

  • Baking Soda and Carbon Dioxide Production: Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3) reacts with acids like vinegar (acetic acid, CH3COOH) to produce carbon dioxide gas (CO2), water (H2O), and a salt. This reaction is a classic example of an acid-base reaction producing a gas, fitting the description (C).
  • Antacid and Stomach Acid Neutralization: Antacid is one which is taken to neutralizes excess stomach acid.
  • Soap as a Base: Soap is a basic substance that can turn red litmus paper blue, fitting the standard property of a base. This aligns with (B), highlighting soap's role in cleaning and its basic nature.
  • Stomach Acid and Digestion: Stomach acid, which contains hydrochloric acid (HCl), aids in digestion by breaking down food. This characteristic aligns with (D), emphasizing the critical role of acids in the human digestive process.

Conclusion:-

So, the correct match will be (i) - C, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - D.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Consider a mixture of sand, iron filings, and salt. Describe a step-by-step method to separate each component.

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Concept:

  • Magnetism: A method of separating magnetic materials from non-magnetic ones. Iron filings, being magnetic, can be easily separated from a mixture using a magnet.
  • Solubility: The ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent. Salt is soluble in water, whereas sand is not, making it possible to separate them by dissolving the salt in water.
  • Filtration: A separation technique used to separate solids from liquids. It involves passing the mixture through a filter, which allows the liquid to pass through while retaining the solid particles.
  • Evaporation: A process of turning liquid into vapor. This method can be used to separate a dissolved solute from a solvent by evaporating the solvent, leaving the solute behind.

Key Points

To separate a mixture of sand, iron filings, and salt effectively, we need to consider the properties of each component:

Use a magnet, add water, then filter:

  1. Use a magnet: Pass a magnet over the mixture. Iron filings, being magnetic, will be attracted to the magnet and can be removed from the mixture, leaving behind sand and salt.
  2. Add water: Dissolve the remaining mixture of sand and salt in water. Salt will dissolve in the water due to its solubility, whereas sand, being insoluble, will not.
  3. Filter: The sand and saltwater solution is then filtered. The sand will remain on the filter as the residue, while the saltwater solution (filtrate) passes through. To retrieve the salt, the saltwater solution can be subjected to evaporation, where the water is evaporated, leaving behind salt crystals.

This method utilizes the magnetic properties of iron filings, the solubility of salt in water, and the insolubility of sand in water, followed by filtration and evaporation to separate each component.

Conclusion:

The correct step-by-step method to separate each component of a mixture containing sand, iron filings, and salt is A) Use a magnet, add water, then filter. This method efficiently separates all three components based on their distinct physical properties: magnetism, solubility, and the ability to be filtered.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

The time difference between the actual sunset and apparent sun set is about:

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Key Points:

  • The Earth rotates around the Sun, resulting in day and night and changes in years.
  • The day begins with the sunrise, and the night begins with the sunset.
  • When the Sun crosses the horizon, it is said to be sunset.
  • The line where the Earth's surface and the sky appear to meet is known as the horizon.
  • And, as we know, if we look at the Sun from Earth, the Earth's atmosphere is denser than the Sun's. As a result, we are seeing it from denser atmospheric air.
  • As a result, the Sun appears to be raised above the horizon, and we can see it 2 minutes before sunrise.
  • The same thing happens at sunset, where we can see the Sun 2 minutes after sunset.
  • As a result, the time difference between the actual sunset and the apparent sunset is approximately 2 minutes.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Where will the maritime cooperative activity involving the defense forces of the US, Japan, Australia, and the Philippines take place?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The maritime cooperative activity involving the defense forces of the US, Japan, Australia, and the Philippines will take place in the South China Sea.

Key Points

  • Specifically, the activity will occur in Manila's exclusive economic zone (EEZ) in the South China Sea.
  • Participating vessels include the USS Mobile, HMAS Warramunga, JS Akebono, and two Philippine warships.
  • The activity aims to strengthen the interoperability of the countries' armed forces and support a free and open Indo-Pacific.
  • The joint statement reaffirms the final and legally binding nature of the 2016 South China Sea Arbitral Tribunal Award.
  • This initiative comes amid rising tensions in the region due to China's growing assertiveness and territorial disputes.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Which of the following is/are incorrect about neutralisation reaction?

(A) It is a reaction between an acid and a base

(B) In this reaction, a new substance is formed, called salt

(C) Salts formed are only either acidic or basic in nature

(D) Heat is always absorbed in the reaction

Detailed Solution: Question 23

  • (A) It is a reaction between an acid and a base: neutralization reaction is a chemical reaction between an acid and a base, where they react to form water and salt. The general equation for a neutralization reaction is:
    • acid + base → salt + water
  • (B) In this reaction, a new substance is formed, called salt: In a neutralization reaction, a new substance called salt is formed. Salts are ionic compounds composed of a positively charged ion (cation) from the base and a negatively charged ion (anion) from the acid. For example, when hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH), the resulting salt is sodium chloride (NaCl).
  • (C) Salts formed are only either acidic or basic in nature: this statement is incorrect. Salts formed in a neutralization reaction can be either acidic, basic, or neutral, depending on the strength of the acid and base used. If a strong acid reacts with a strong base, the resulting salt will be neutral (e.g., NaCl from HCl and NaOH). However, if a weak acid reacts with a strong base, the resulting salt may be basic, and if a strong acid reacts with a weak base, the resulting salt may be acidic.
  • (D) Heat is always absorbed in the reaction: this statement is Incorrect. Heat can be either absorbed or released in a neutralization reaction, depending on the specific reactants and reaction conditions. If the neutralization reaction is exothermic, it releases heat to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature. On the other hand, if the neutralization reaction is endothermic, it absorbs heat from the surroundings, leading to a decrease in temperature.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding euthanasia:

  1. Active euthanasia entails the use of substances to end the life of the patient.
  2. Passive euthanasia involves simply stopping lifesaving treatment or medical intervention.
  3. Both passive and active euthanasia are allowed in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The Delhi High Court recently refused to order the constitution of a medical board to consider if a 30-year-old man can undergo passive euthanasia.

Key Points

  • Active euthanasia entails the use of substances, such as lethal injections or medications, to actively end the life of the patient. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Passive euthanasia involves stopping or withholding lifesaving treatments or medical interventions, allowing the patient to die naturally. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • In India, only passive euthanasia is legally allowed under strict guidelines set by the Supreme Court in the 2018 landmark case. Active euthanasia is not permitted. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Passive euthanasia was legalized in India by the Supreme Court in 2018, allowing patients in a persistent vegetative state or terminally ill to refuse life support and medical treatment.
  • Active euthanasia remains illegal and is considered equivalent to murder or culpable homicide under Indian law.
  • The guidelines for passive euthanasia include the consent of the patient, if capable, or a surrogate decision-maker, and the approval of a medical board.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the right to privacy in India:

  1. The right to privacy is protected under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
  2. The Supreme Court described the right to privacy under Part III of the Constitution in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The correct answer is 2 only.

  • The landmark judgment on the right to privacy in India.

Key Points

Right to privacy:

  • The right to privacy is indeed protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Supreme Court of India, in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India case, recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right, describing it under Part III of the Constitution, which includes the fundamental rights. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): A landmark judgment where a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously affirmed that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
  • Article 21: States that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law."
  • The judgment has significant implications for various laws and policies, particularly concerning data protection and individual privacy.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Lubrication of all moving parts is essential to

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is Reduce friction.

Key Points

  • Friction is a force that resists the movement of one object over another.
  • High friction can cause damage to parts and reduce efficiency.
  • Lubrication is applied to all moving parts of a machine to reduce friction.
  • This helps in efficient operation, reduces wear and tear, and extends the life of the machine.

Let's look at the other options:

  • Increase friction: The purpose of lubrication is actually to decrease friction, not to increase it.

Hence option 1 is not correct.

  • Increase speed: While it's true that reducing friction might allow a system to move more easily which could in some cases result in increased speed.
    • But, the primary goal of lubrication is not specifically to increase speed.
    • Rather, the goal is to reduce friction and prevent wear, which in turn may lead to better performance and potentially higher speeds.

Hence option 3 is not correct..

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Gallantry Awards in India:

  1. Kirti Chakra: It is the second-highest peacetime gallantry award.
  2. Shaurya Chakra: It is awarded for gallantry, courageous action, or self-sacrifice while engaged in direct action with the enemy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu presented Gallantry Awards at the Defence Investiture Ceremony-2024.

Key Points:

Kirti Chakra:

  • It is the peacetime equivalent of the Maha Vir Chakra, the second-highest peacetime gallantry award. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Awarded for displaying conspicuous gallantry, indomitable courage, and extreme devotion to duty. or self-sacrifice away from the field of battle.
  • Eligibility and Design: Open to civilians as well as military personnel, including posthumous awards. A circular silver medal with a lotus flower in the center and a chakra around it, suspended from a green ribbon with two orange stripes.

Shaurya Chakra:

  • An Indian military decoration awarded for gallantry, courageous action, or self-sacrifice while not engaged in direct action with the enemy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Represents the spirit of bravery, valor, and devotion to duty in peacetime.
  • Eligibility and Design: Open to civilians as well as military personnel, including posthumous awards. Circular bronze medal with a replica of the Ashoka Chakra, the national emblem of India, in the center.
  • Features a lotus wreath around the Ashoka Chakra symbol. Suspended from a green ribbon with three vertical lines.

Additional Information

Gallantry Awards in India:

  • Post-Independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra were instituted by the government of India on 26th January 1950 and were deemed to have effect from 15th August 1947.
  • Thereafter, three other gallantry awards — the Ashoka Chakra Class-I, the Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and the Ashoka Chakra Class-III — were instituted in 1952 and were deemed to have effect from 15th August 1947.
  • These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January 1967.
  • The order of precedence of these awards is the Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas ?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Key Points

  • Xenon(Xe) gas is also known as stranger gas.
  • It is called 'STRANGER GAS' because the word 'XENON' means 'STRANGE' in Greek.
  • It was discovered by William Ramsay and Morris Travers in 1898.
  • It is more than 4.5 times heavier than air.
  • xenon is colorless, odorless, and tasteless.
  • It is used in instruments for radiation detection.

Additional Information

  • Nobel Gasses:
    • Nobel gasses are a group of chemical elements that do not interact with other elements in a manner.
    • General because their electron orbits are complete and filled with electrons.
    • ​Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon, and Radon are Nobel gasses.
    • These elements are in the eight groups of the periodic table.
    • Nobel gasses contain 0.93% of the atmospheric volume and 1.29% of its mass.​
  • Properties of Nobel Gasses:
    • ​​Show as gases in room conditions.
    • No color and no smell.
    • Have 8 electrons equivalent.
    • Produce vehicles only in special circumstances.
    • It is drawn from the air in liquefaction and distillation.
    • Found in the form of single-atom gases.
    • The very weak internal attraction between their atoms.
    • It has very low melting and boiling grades.
  • Nitrous Oxide:
    • Nitrous oxide, also known as laughing gas, is a colorless gas with a slightly sweet odor that has various applications.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

A _________ hides your IP address by redirecting your IP address across the network through a specially configured remote server run by the VPN host.

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Key Points

  • A virtual private network (VPN) conceals your IP address by redirecting it through a specially configured remote server run by the VPN host.
  • This process ensures that your online actions are virtually untraceable, providing privacy and security.
  • VPNs are commonly used to bypass geographic restrictions on websites, protect data from hackers on public Wi-Fi, and maintain anonymity online.
  • When you connect to a VPN, it creates a secure tunnel between your device and the internet.
  • VPNs use encryption protocols to ensure that any data transmitted over the internet is secure and confidential.
  • Examples of popular VPN services include NordVPN, ExpressVPN, and CyberGhost.

Additional Information

  • Global Area Network (GAN)
    • A Global Area Network (GAN) refers to a network that spans multiple countries and continents, providing a global reach.
    • It is used to support global communication and data exchange across vast distances.
    • GANs are often utilized by multinational corporations to connect their worldwide offices.
  • Private Area Network (PAN)
    • A Private Area Network (PAN) is a network designed for a specific organization or individual, providing secure and controlled access to resources.
    • PANs are typically used within a single location, such as an office or home.
    • They are not intended for large-scale public use.
  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    • A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a larger geographic area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN).
    • MANS are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area.
    • They are often employed by cities, universities, and large organizations to provide high-speed network access across multiple locations.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

The study of human populations including their size, composition and distribution across space and the process through which populations change is called _______.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Key Points

  • The scientific study of the population is called demography.
  • Demography today has become a widespread part of the study of economists, sociologists, anthropologists, geographers, environmentalists, and academics.
  • Demography is a systematic science. This is a new branch of population study as compared to other sciences, which started in 1662 AD.
  • Its father is considered to be Joan Grant.
  • Robert Malthus is credited with providing the scientific basis for this.
  • The word demography is derived from two Greek words demo and graphic (demo = public, graphi = writing) which means writing about the people. The term was first used by Ashille Guilai.

Additional Information Ethnography

  • Ethnography is a branch of anthropology and a study of a particular human society or the process of making such a study.
  • It is also a type of social research, as it involves the behavioural examination of the participants in a given social situation.

Stenography

  • A stenographer is a person trained to type or write in shorthand methods, enabling them to write as quickly as people speak.

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