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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 Free Online Test


Full Mock Test & Solutions: BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 (50 Questions)

You can boost your Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam preparation with this BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 60 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 50
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Which of these operating system is used in Apple iPhone 15?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

An operating system (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware and software resources and provides common services for computer programs. Some key points related to the operating systems and their developers:

  • iOS (iPhone OS) is a mobile operating system created and developed by Apple Inc.
  • Before Android, Symbian was the operating system which was used by the companies like Nokia, Sony Ericson, Motorola. It was developed by Bugatti.
  • Android is a mobile operating system developed by Google
  • macOS (previously Mac OS X) is a series of graphical operating systems developed and marketed by Apple Inc.
  • Windows operating system is developed by Microsoft.
  • Hadoop is an open-source framework that allows to store and process big data in a distributed environment across clusters of computers using simple programming models.

Hence, we conclude that iOS operating system is used in Apple iPhone 15.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

What is the name of the 3D-printed rocket engine that NASA successfully tested?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

On December 20, 2023, NASA announced the successful test of a 3D-printed engine called Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine, or RDRE.

Key Points

  • NASA is an agency that frequently conducts research, tests, and develops new space engines and vehicles.
  • The engine in question represents an innovative system of propulsion, specifically designed for use in space missions.
  • It's known as the Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine, or RDRE, highlighting its unique mechanism.
  • The RDRE was subjected to a 'hot fire test' for 251 seconds, generating more than 5800 pounds of thrust.
  • Given these facts, the Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine is the correct answer (Option D).

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

What is the name of India's fastest solar-electric boat launched in December 2023?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Barracuda, hailed as India's fastest solar-electric boat, was launched by Navalt Solar and Electric Boats.

Key Points

  • The vessel is designed to ferry up to 12 passengers and cargo, excelling in rough seas with a top speed of 12.5 knots and a range of seven hours on a single charge.
  • It features twin 50 kW electric motors, a marine-grade LFP battery, and 6 kW solar power, embodying efficient and clean energy usage.
  • The launch event was attended by notable figures, including Sanjay Kumar Singh, the general manager of Mazagon Dock Limited.
  • Barracuda, engineered to navigate waves as tall as four meters, operates silently without noise, vibration, or air pollution.
  • Navalt Solar and Electric Boats, based in Kochi, won the world’s best start-up award in the mobility and transportation category at the Berlin Start-up Energy Transition Awards 2023 for its innovative contributions to eco-friendly maritime transportation.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

With which countries did the Indian Air Force (IAF) conduct Exercise Desert Knight?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted Exercise Desert Knight along with the French and United Arab Emirates (UAE).

Key Points

  • On January 23, 2024, the Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted Exercise Desert Knight in collaboration with the French Air and Space Force (FASF) and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) Air Force.
  • The French participation included Rafale fighter aircraft and a Multi-Role Tanker Transport, while the UAE Air Force deployed the F-16, operating from the Al Dhafra air base in the UAE.
  • The IAF contingent consisted of Su-30 MKI, MiG-29, Jaguar, AWACS, C-130-J, and Air-to-Air Refueler aircraft.
  • The exercise, conducted over the Arabian Sea in Indian FIR, aimed at enhancing synergy and interoperability among the three Air Forces.
  • Operations involved aircraft stationed at bases within India, showcasing the collaborative efforts in a joint training environment.
  • Such joint exercises reflect the increasing diplomatic and military interactions in the region, demonstrating the capabilities of the Indian Air Force.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Consider the following statements related to global efforts to combat plastic pollution:

  1. A legally binding treaty to end plastic pollution was signed alongside the Paris Agreement in 2015.
  2. 'No Ambition coalition' is an informal grouping of countries which favor a global legally binding treaty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Down to Earth: Zero draft of global plastic pollution treaty: What are the hits & misses.

Key Points

Global plastic pollution treaty:

  • The second meeting of the intergovernmental negotiating committee (INC), was held from May 29-June 2, 2023.
    • The meeting had concluded with the member states mandating the INC secretariat to develop a zero draft for an international legally binding instrument to end plastic pollution including in the marine environment.
  • INC Chair Gustavo Adolfo Meza Cuadra Velasquez released the zero draft of the global plastic pollution treaty on September 4, 2023.
  • The draft will be negotiated in the third meeting of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) scheduled in Nairobi, Kenya from November 13-19.
  • The zero draft has 10 placeholders to discuss issues like the preamble, definitions, principles, and scope, in addition to the institutional arrangements and the final provisions.
    • A placeholder is a recognition of the fact that all the matters of the legal instrument have not been discussed by the member states in detail.
    • Member states such as Saudi Arabia, Iran, and China at INC-2 stressed the importance of defining the scope of the legally binding instrument.
    • India had agreed with this proposal.
    • The United Nations Environment Assembly resolution 5/14 clearly defined the scope of the future instrument, which is to “cover the full life cycle of plastics”.
  • Zero draft:
    • The term "zero draft" refers to the first draft of a treaty or agreement.
    • It serves as a starting point for negotiations and discussions among member states.
    • In this case, the zero draft of the global plastic pollution treaty lays out the foundation for a legally binding instrument to address plastic pollution and its impact on the environment and human health.
  • There was no legally binding treaty to end plastic pollution signed alongside the Paris Agreement in 2015. In fact, the first concrete step towards a legally binding treaty to regulate plastic was taken in 2023. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The 'No Ambition coalition' is not an informal grouping of countries that favor a global legally binding treaty. Instead, it is a group of countries with economic interests in increased and unsustainable production of polymers/plastic. These countries have been known to delay discussions on substance and create roadblocks for a strong legally binding instrument. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

What is the name of India's first septic tank cleaning robot?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

India's first septic tank cleaning robot is named Homosep Atom.

Key Points

  • Developed by a startup incubated in the Department of Science and Technology (DST)-Technology Business Incubator (TBI) of IIT Madras.
  • The technology offers an end-to-end solution to eliminate manual scavenging.
  • It transforms manual cleaning methods into robotic cleaning methods.
  • Homosep Atom has reached 16 cities across India, according to the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  • The robot empowers extensive blade cleanings, solid waste desilting, suction, and storage at one device.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Who was the President of Indian National Congress in 1905?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress decided to take up the Swadeshi Call in its Benaras Session in 1905.
  • It was presided over by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • The resolution of the INC supported the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement in Bengal started against the partition of the province by the British.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the features of NISAR Satellite:

  1. The S-band payload has been made by the US and the L-band by the ISRO
  2. It can completely map earth in 14-15 days and capable of monitoring the vegetation cover and snow cover

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

As per ISRO Chief the NISAR satellite can monitor tectonic movements accurately

Key PointsNISAR mission:

  • NISAR represents an equal collaboration between NASA and ISRO, marking the first time these two agencies have cooperated in the development of hardware for an Earth-observing mission.
  • The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission is a joint project between NASA and ISRO to co-develop and launch a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite.
  • Scheduled for launch in early 2024, it is poised to facilitate the exploration of how shifts in Earth's forest and wetland ecosystems impact the global carbon cycle and influence climate change.
  • NISAR's advanced radar systems will comprehensively scan nearly all of Earth's land and ice surfaces every 14-15 days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It can monitor the tectonic movements to centimeter accuracy.
  • It can measure water bodies accurately. It can look at water stressing on the earth, wherever there is deficiency of water.
  • It can ground-penetrate to a certain depth. It is capable of monitoring the vegetation cover and snow cover.
  • It, therefore, basically looks at the whole of the earth in terms of surface, water, greenery, and all of that. It gives full coverage of the earth two times a month.
  • The NISAR radar satellite mission will provide in-depth insights into two crucial ecosystem types: forests and wetlands, which play a vital role in naturally regulating the greenhouse gases responsible for global climate change, according to NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL).
  • The data it gathers will enable researchers to comprehend two fundamental functions of these ecosystems: the absorption and release of carbon.
  • The radar technology on NISAR will provide us with a comprehensive view of the planet in terms of both space and time.
  • It will offer a highly reliable perspective on the evolving state of Earth's land and ice.
  • The S-band payload has been made by the ISRO and the L-band by the U.S. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Match the following countries with their capitals:

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Key Points

Here are the correct matches for the countries and their capitals:

(i) Zambia - Lusaka

(ii) Cuba - Havana

(iii) Rwanda - Kigali

(iv) Bahrain - Manama

Additional Information

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Molecules of carbon are held together by which of the following bonds in Graphite?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Important Points

  • Graphite has a giant covalent structure in which: each carbon atom is joined to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds.
    • The bonds which are formed by the medium of mutual sharing of electrons are called covalent bonds.

Additional Information

  • When the complete transfer of the valence electron takes place, the bond formed is called the Ionic Bond.
  • The partial intermolecular bonding of the lone pair of electrons in the second-row elements like nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine is called a Hydrogen bond.
  • Van der Waals bond is basically a secondary bond which is a weak force of attraction between electrically neutral molecules that collide with or pass very close to each other.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Salt is used as a preservative in pickles because it :

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Key Points

  • Provides an acidic environment to kill microorganisms: Salt itself does not provide an acidic environment. However, pickles are often made using an acidic solution such as vinegar, which is responsible for creating an acidic environment that helps preserve the pickles.
  • Salt is commonly used as a preservative in pickles due to its ability to reduce moisture content. When salt is added to pickles, it draws out the water from the food through the process of osmosis.
  • This reduction in moisture inhibits the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria, yeasts, and molds that require moisture to thrive. By creating an environment with lower moisture levels, salt helps to prevent spoilage and extend the shelf life of pickles.
  • Cuts off the air so that microorganisms cannot enter: While oxygen can contribute to the spoilage of certain foods, the use of salt in pickles is primarily focused on reducing moisture content rather than cutting off air.
  • contains chemicals that kill microorganisms: Salt itself does not contain specific chemicals that kill microorganisms. However, the process of osmosis, which occurs when salt is added to food, can have a dehydrating effect on microorganisms and inhibit their growth.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Magnetic force on a conductor of length 'L' and carrying a current 'I' kept in an external magnetic field 'B' is equal to?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Concept:

The magnetic force experienced by a current-carrying conductor of finite length is given by

F = BIL sin θ

Where,

B = Magnetic flux density of the field

I = Current

L = Length of the conductor perpendicular to the magnetic field

Here angle θ represents the direction of the field and the current.

Explanation:

From the above explanation, we can see that magnetic force exerted by the finite current-carrying conductor is expressed as

F= BIL sin θ

Now the direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to a current-carrying conductor (i.e., θ = 90°) the above equation can be modified as

F = BIL (∵ sin 90° = 1)

Hence option 1 is correct among all

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Which of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen ?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Key Points

Radium

  • ​Radium (Ra) is a radioactive chemical element.
  • Its atomic number is 88.
  • It is the sixth element and the heaviest alkaline-earth metal in group 2 of the periodic table,
  • Radium is silvery white in appearance and does not occur freely in nature.

Additional Information

  • Protium
    • It is also known as Hydrogen-1.
    • It is the most common isotope of hydrogen and comprises around 99.98% of the hydrogen in the atmosphere.
    • It has one proton and zero neutrons in its nucleus.
    • Its mass number is one.
  • Deuterium
    • It is also known as Hydrogen-2 and heavy hydrogen.
    • It has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus, making it twice as heavy as protium.
    • Its mass number is 2.
    • Although it represents only about 0.02% of all hydrogen found on Earth, it has important uses in various scientific applications.
  • Tritium
    • It is also known as Hydrogen-3.
    • It is rare and not stable.
    • It has one proton and two neutrons in its nucleus.
    • Its mass number is 3.
    • Tritium is radioactive and has a relatively short half-life of 12.32 years

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Which of the following acids is also known as aqua fortis?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Key Points

  • Nitric acid:
    • It ​is a strong acid with the chemical formula HNO3.
      • Its ​PH is approximately 3.01.
    • It is also known as the spirit of nitre and aqua fortis.
      • ​Aqua fortis means strong water.
      • It is so-called because it reacts with nearly all metals.
    • ​​It is a highly corrosive and toxic acid that can cause severe skin burns.
    • It is used as a strong oxidizing agent.
    • It reacts with hydroxides, metals, and oxides to form nitrate salts.​

Additional Information

  • ​Hydrochloric acid
    • ​It is a strong corrosive acid with a chemical formula HCl.
    • It is also known as hydrogen chloride or muriatic acid.
  • ​Sulphuric acid
    • It ​is a highly corrosive, clear, colourless, odourless, strong mineral acid with the formula H2SO4.
    • It is also known as hydrogen sulfate.
  • ​Tartaric acid
    • It ​is an organic acid found in many vegetables and fruits such as bananas, grapes, tamarinds and other citrus fruits.
    • Its chemical formula is C4H6O6.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Assertion (A): The pH scale is essential in determining the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, impacting numerous biological and chemical processes.

Reason (R): The pH scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions, influencing how substances interact chemically in environments ranging from industrial processes to biological systems.

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The pH scale is a critical tool in various fields, including chemistry, biology, environmental science, and medicine, due to its role in measuring the acidity or alkalinity of solutions. The concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) or hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in a solution directly impacts its pH, which in turn affects chemical and biological processes.

  • pH Scale Fundamentals: The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with pH values less than 7 indicating acidity, values greater than 7 indicating alkalinity (basicity), and a value of 7 representing a neutral solution, like pure water. The scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole pH value below 7 is ten times more acidic than the next higher value, and each whole pH value above 7 is ten times more alkaline than the next lower value.
  • Role of Hydrogen Ion Concentration: The pH scale quantifies the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. An increase in H⁺ concentration results in a lower pH (more acidic), while a decrease in H⁺ concentration (or an increase in OH⁻ concentration) results in a higher pH (more alkaline). This characteristic is fundamental to understanding how substances will interact in different environments.
  • The pH scale is indispensable for determining how acidic or alkaline a solution is, directly impacting various chemical and biological processes through the measurement of hydrogen ion concentration. This fundamental understanding enables precise control and manipulation in scientific research, industrial applications, healthcare, and environmental management.

Conclusion:

Thus, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are not only true but also, Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A), emphasizing the importance and application of the pH scale across multiple domains.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

________ is the Dimensional Formula of Planck's Constant?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

  • The Planck’s constant (h) is a proportionality constant that relates the energy of a photon to the frequency of its associated electromagnetic wave.
  • The Planck’s constant is equal to approximately 6.626176 x 10-34 joule-seconds.
  • The dimensions of Planck's constant are the same as those of angular momentum.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Which of the following is called "wood spirit"?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Key Points

  • Methanol, also known as wood alcohol or wood spirit, is the simplest alcohol with the chemical formula CH₃OH.
  • It is a light, volatile, colorless, and flammable liquid with a distinctive odor similar to that of ethanol (drinking alcohol).
  • Methanol was historically produced by the destructive distillation of wood, which is why it is often referred to as wood alcohol.
  • In modern times, methanol is primarily produced industrially from natural gas.
  • Methanol is used in various applications including as a solvent, antifreeze, fuel, and as a denaturant for ethanol.
  • It is also used to produce formaldehyde and other chemicals that are used in plastics, paints, explosives, and textiles.

Additional Information

  • Ethanol
    • Ethanol, also known as ethyl alcohol, is the type of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages.
    • It is widely used as a solvent and in the manufacture of various chemicals.
    • Ethanol is also used as a fuel and fuel additive, particularly in the form of bioethanol.
  • Phenol
    • Phenol is an aromatic organic compound with the molecular formula C₆H₅OH.
    • It is used primarily in the production of plastics and related materials.
    • Phenol is also used in medical products, such as throat sprays and ointments.
  • Butanol
    • Butanol is an alcohol with a 4-carbon structure and the molecular formula C₄H₉OH.
    • It is used as a solvent and in the production of other chemicals.
    • Butanol is also being explored as a biofuel.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Which of the following symbols refers to programs, applications, or a shortcut to an item, file, or program on a computer in Windows XP?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Key Points

  • An icon in Windows XP represents programs, applications, or shortcuts to items, files, or programs on a computer.
  • Icons are small graphical representations that help users quickly identify and access various types of content on their computer.
  • Icons typically appear on the desktop or within file directories, making it easy to launch applications or open files with a double-click.
  • In Windows XP, icons can be customized with different images to represent different types of files or programs.
  • Users can also create shortcuts to programs or files, which are represented by icons with a small arrow in the corner.

Additional Information

  • Task bar
    • The taskbar is a graphical element at the bottom of the screen in Windows XP.
    • It contains the Start button, system tray, and open application windows.
    • The taskbar helps users manage and switch between open applications and windows.
  • Path
    • A path refers to the specific location or address of a file or folder in a computer's file system.
    • It is typically written as a series of directories separated by backslashes (e.g., C:\Program Files\).
    • Paths help users and programs locate specific files within the storage hierarchy of the computer.
  • Start button
    • The Start button is located on the taskbar and provides access to the Start menu.
    • The Start menu includes shortcuts to programs, folders, and system settings.
    • It is the primary way to access installed applications and system functions in Windows XP.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

A liquid drop, contracts because of the attraction of its particles and occupies the smallest possible area. This phenomenon is known as -

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Property of a liquid is it always occupies minimum surface area, this phenomenon of liquid is known as Surface Tension.

A force which is known as “Van der Waals” forces, draw the liquid particles together.

Mathematically surface tension is defined as the ratio of Forces and the ratio of the surface force F to the length d along which the force acts.

Example of Surface Tension –

  • In a dropper, the water does not flow in a continuous stream, but rather in a series of drops.
  • Several insects are able to walk on water.
  • Bubbles are round.
  • Needle floating on water.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Which of the following is a device designed to protect electrical devices from voltage spikes?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

When voltage of the connection drastically increases to a very high value suddenly for a very short period of time is called a voltage spike.

A surge protector is a device that protects or shields your appliances against a voltage surge/ voltage spike

When the voltage increases beyond a certain level, the surge protector either blocks or transfers the excess energy to the ground. By doing this, it ensures that the appliances connected to it do not get affected or broken down due to a voltage surge.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to copy content to the clipboard?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Key Points

  • Ctrl + C is the standard keyboard shortcut for copying content to the clipboard.
  • This shortcut works across most operating systems, including Windows, macOS (where it is Command + C), and various Linux distributions.
  • When you press Ctrl + C, the selected text, image, or other content is stored in the clipboard, allowing you to paste it elsewhere using Ctrl + V.
  • This function is essential for tasks that involve repetitive data entry or moving content between different applications or documents.
  • Other related shortcuts include Ctrl + X for cutting and Ctrl + V for pasting.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + A
    • Ctrl + A is used to select all content within the current document, window, or field.
    • This shortcut is especially useful when you need to quickly select and modify or delete all the content.
  • Ctrl + V
    • Ctrl + V is the standard keyboard shortcut for pasting content from the clipboard.
    • It complements the Ctrl + C and Ctrl + X shortcuts.
  • Ctrl + F
    • Ctrl + F is used to open the find dialog in most applications, allowing you to search for specific text within the document or webpage.
    • This shortcut is crucial for quickly locating information without manually scanning through the entire content.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Vacuum tube is a feature of which generation of computers?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Key Points

  • Vacuum tubes were the primary technology used in First generation computers.
  • First generation computers were developed during the period of the 1940s to the early 1950s.
  • Vacuum tubes were used for circuitry and magnetic drums were used for memory.
  • These computers were very large, often taking up entire rooms, and required a significant amount of electricity.
  • They generated a lot of heat and were prone to frequent malfunctions.
  • Examples of first generation computers include the ENIAC, UNIVAC, and IBM 701.
  • Programming was done in machine language, which is the most basic programming language understood by computers.

Additional Information

  • Second generation computers
    • Second generation computers used transistors instead of vacuum tubes.
    • These computers were developed during the late 1950s to the mid-1960s.
    • Transistors made computers smaller, faster, cheaper, and more energy-efficient.
  • Third generation computers
    • Third generation computers utilized integrated circuits (ICs).
    • This generation spanned from the mid-1960s to the early 1970s.
    • ICs allowed for even more miniaturization of computers and increased performance.
  • Fourth generation computers
    • Fourth generation computers are based on microprocessors.
    • These computers started to appear in the 1970s and continue to be used today.
    • Microprocessors allowed for the development of personal computers (PCs).

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Who said the ‘The Rise and Fall of Empires is not a matter of greased cartridges’?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Key Points

  • Attributing the quote to Benjamin Disraeli highlights an understanding of the deeper, systemic issues that lead to the dramatic events like the rise and fall of empires, moving beyond simplistic explanations.
  • Disraeli, a prominent British politician and a prime minister, known for his involvement and commentary on imperial affairs, would have been keenly aware of the complexities of governing an empire and the multifaceted causes leading to unrest.

Implications of the Quote

  • The statement emphasizes the importance of understanding historical events' socio-political, economic, and cultural contexts. It warns against oversimplification and highlights how seemingly minor issues can become the focal point for much broader discontent. In the case of the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and indeed in the analysis of the rise and fall of empires more generally, it's a reminder that the roots of such monumental events are often deep, involving long-standing grievances and systemic issues rather than isolated incidents.

This quote serves as a profound commentary on the complexity of historical causes and the dangers of reductionism when explaining events as significant as revolutions and the reconfiguration of empires.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

A block is submerged partially in water and remaining 1/3 part is outside the water level, then the density of the block is-

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Archimedes' principle: Every object is bouncing upwards by a force equal to the weight of the fluid the object displaces. This force is also known as the bouncing force.

Fb = ρ g Vf

Where Fb is bouncing force, ρ is the density of the fluid, Vf is the volume of the displaced fluid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Calculation:

Given that 1/3 part is out of water.

So, 2/3 part is submerged in water.

Let D is the density of the block

The density of wood/Density of Water = Part of block submerged/Total Part

D/1 = (2/3)/1

D = 2/3 = 0.67 g/cm3.

D = 0.67 g/cm3. So option 1 is correct.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

What kind of change occurs when electricity is passed through water (electrolysis)?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

Concept:-

  • Chemical vs. Physical Change: Understanding the difference between physical and chemical changes is fundamental. Physical changes affect the form of a material but not its chemical identity, such as melting or boiling, where no new substances are created.
  • Electrolysis: A process where electrical energy is used to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction, leading to the decomposition of compounds, in this case, splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen gases.
  • Conservation of Mass: The mass of the substances before and after a chemical change remains constant, as illustrated by electrolysis, where the total mass of hydrogen and oxygen gases produced equals the mass of the water decomposed.

Key Points:

When electricity is passed through water, a process known as electrolysis occurs. This process involves the decomposition of water (H2O) into its constituent elements, hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2), through the application of an electric current. This is an example of a chemical change for the following reasons:

  • Formation of New Substances: The defining characteristic of a chemical change is the transformation of one or more substances into new, different substances with distinct chemical and physical properties. In the case of the electrolysis of water, the original substance (water) is transformed into two different gases: hydrogen and oxygen.
  • Breakage and Formation of Bonds: During electrolysis, the electric current causes the bonds between hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water molecules to break. This requires energy input. Subsequently, new bonds form when hydrogen and oxygen reform into their diatomic molecular states (H2 and O2), which is indicative of a chemical change.
  • Energy Change: Chemical changes often involve a change in energy. In electrolysis, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy stored in the bonds of the hydrogen and oxygen molecules produced.
  • Irreversibility under the Same Conditions: Another hallmark of many chemical changes is that they are not easily reversible under the same conditions. While water can be reformed from hydrogen and oxygen through combustion, this process requires different conditions and an energy input quite distinct from simply removing the electrical current used in electrolysis.
  • The electrolysis process does not clarify the nature of chemical changes.

Conclusion:-

So, Electrolysis of water is a clear example of a chemical change because it results in the decomposition of water into hydrogen and oxygen gas, involving the breakage and formation of chemical bonds, and is driven by an energy change.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Who was the first Asian to head a global bank?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Rana Talwar, the first Asian to head a global bank, passed away at 76.

Key Points

  • Rana Talwar was the first person from Asia to head a global bank, specifically Standard Chartered.
  • Talwar began his career with Citibank India in 1969 and later joined Standard Chartered in 1997, assuming the position of CEO, making history as the first Asian to lead an international bank.
  • During his tenure at Standard Chartered, Talwar played a key role in significant acquisitions, including those of UBS's Trade Finance business, Grindlays Bank in India and the Middle East from ANZ, and the Credit Card business from Chase Manhattan in Hong Kong.
  • After leaving Standard Chartered in 2002, Talwar founded Sabre Capital, a private equity firm, showcasing his continued involvement in the financial sector.
  • Talwar's legacy extends beyond his professional achievements; he is survived by his wife, Renuka, whose father is DLF Group chairman emeritus KP Singh, and their son Rahul, who is also engaged with DLF.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Who produced the Pirpur Report (1938)?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is Muslim League.

Key Points

  • On 3 September 1939, the then Viceroy Lord Linlithgow announced that India was at war with Nazi Germany, alongside Britain during World War II.
  • The Indian National Congress (formed on 28 December 1885), the dominant political party in India at the time, objected to the Viceroy's decision, which was taken without consulting Indians.
  • After the elections in 1937, the Congress was in power in 7 British Indian provinces. The Muslim League (founded on December 30, 1906) could then form a government in only one province.
  • The Pirpur Report of 1938, brought out by the League, listed atrocities on Muslims in Congress-ruled provinces. It tried to project pro-Hindu stance and anti-Muslim bias in them. This report became an important document to demand and justify the partition of the country.

Additional Information

  • The Unionist Party (Punjab) was a political party in Punjab, British India.
    • It was founded in 1923 by Sir Fazli Hussain, Sir Chhotu Ram and Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan and originally represented the interests of Punjabi landlords.
  • The Ahrar movement was founded in 1910.
    • Leadership: Maulana Muhammad Ali, Hakim Ajmal Khan, Hasan Imam, Maulana Zafar Ali Khar and Mazhar-ul-Haq.
    • It opposed the loyalist policies of the Aligarh Movement.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Identify the statements given below as true or false.

(i) The 'Taskbar' is the thin blue bar at the bottom of the desktop and contains the Start menu and Quick Launch bar on the Windows XP desktop.

(ii) The notification area is a part of the taskbar that provides a temporary source of information and status.

(iii) The Control Panel in Microsoft Windows XP is used to configure system-level features and perform related tasks.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Key Points:

  • Statement (i): The 'Taskbar' is the thin blue bar at the bottom of the desktop and contains the Start menu and Quick Launch bar on the Windows XP desktop.
    • The Taskbar is indeed a key feature of the Windows XP desktop environment.
    • The Start menu allows users to access programs, settings, and files, while the Quick Launch bar provides shortcuts to frequently used applications. Hence, statement (i) is correct.
  • Statement (ii): The notification area is a part of the taskbar that provides a temporary source of information and status.
    • The notification area, also known as the system tray, is indeed part of the taskbar.
    • This area provides a quick view of the current status of certain functions and allows users to manage notifications. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
  • Statement (iii): The Control Panel in Microsoft Windows XP is used to configure system-level features and perform related tasks.
    • Control Panel allows users to configure and manage system settings, such as hardware, software, user accounts, and security features.
    • Through the Control Panel, users can install or uninstall programs, change accessibility options, and modify network settings. Hence, statement (iii) is correct.

Additional Information

  • Windows XP Taskbar:
    • The Windows XP Taskbar is a crucial user interface element that helps in navigating and managing open applications and system functions.
    • Features include the Start button, Quick Launch bar, taskbar buttons for open applications, and the notification area.
    • The taskbar can be customized in terms of size, position, and the items it displays.
  • Notification Area:
    • The notification area provides users with system and program notifications in the form of icons and pop-up messages.
    • It helps users keep track of background processes and system alerts, such as antivirus updates or network connectivity issues.
    • Users can also access certain system functions directly from the notification area, like volume control and network settings.
  • Control Panel in Windows XP:
    • The Control Panel is a centralized hub for system configuration and management.
    • It includes various applets for managing hardware devices, software installations, system security, user accounts, and more.
    • Key applets include Add or Remove Programs, System Properties, Network Connections, and User Accounts.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Who won the 2024 Asian Billiards Championship title?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Key Points

  • Dhruv Sitwala won his third Asian Billiards Title at Riyadh in 2024.
  • He defeated Pankaj Advani to clinch the title.
  • Dhruv Sitwala had previously won the Asian billiards titles in 2015 and 2016.
  • The championship was organized by the Asian Confederation of Billiard Sports (ACBS) in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

Important Points

  • Pankaj Advani: A renowned Indian cueist who was defeated by Dhruv Sitwala in the 2024 Asian Billiards Championship final.
  • Dhvaj Haria: Another Indian cueist who won the bronze medal by losing to Dhruv Sitwala in the semi-finals.
  • Anupama Ramachandran: An Indian player who won the women's Asian Snooker title at the same championship.
  • Asian Confederation of Billiard Sports (ACBS): The organization that conducted the Asian Championship in Riyadh.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Who has assumed the presidency of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) from July 2024?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Key Points

  • Elisa de Anda Madrazo began her term as President of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) on 1 July 2024.
  • She succeeded Mr. T. Raja Kumar of Singapore in this position.
  • Elisa has over a decade of experience in the AML/CFT sector.
  • She held various leadership roles within the FATF, including Vice-President for three years until June 2023.

Important Points

  • Mr. T. Raja Kumar: He was the previous President of FATF before Elisa de Anda Madrazo.
  • Financial Action Task Force (FATF): An intergovernmental organization established to combat money laundering and terrorism financing.
  • AML/CFT: Stands for Anti-Money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism.
  • Vice-President of FATF: A role previously held by Elisa de Anda Madrazo, providing significant experience in FATF leadership.

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