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UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - UGC NET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 for UGC NET 2024 is part of UGC NET preparation. The UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UGC NET exam syllabus.The UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for UGC NET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 below.
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UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

Which of the following statements about the World Wide Web (WWW) is correct?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

The correct answer is: The World Wide Web is purely a collection of websites and pages accessible by the Internet.

Key Points

  • The World Wide Web (WWW or the Web) is an information system where documents and other web resources are identified by URLs, often interconnected by hyperlinks, and can be accessed via the Internet.
  • It was invented in 1989 by Sir Tim Berners-Lee, not 1999. Furthermore, it's not the same as the Internet, which is the infrastructure that connects networks globally.
  • The WWW is just one of the numerous services used over the internet. Also, to access web pages and navigate the WWW, a web browser is required.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Which of the following was a key feature of the educational institutions set up in ancient India under Buddhism?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

The key feature of the educational institutions set up in ancient India under Buddhism was:

3) These educational institutions were often attached to monasteries called Viharas, which became centres of learning.

Key Points

  • 1) Education was not exclusive to males: While there might have been fewer opportunities for females compared to males, some Buddhist institutions accepted female students, a relatively progressive stance for the time.
  • 2) Rote learning and memorization were not the sole focus: While memorization of texts played a role, Buddhist education also emphasized critical thinking, debate, and ethical development.
  • 4) The curriculum wasn't solely focused on fine arts: Although arts and cultural disciplines were included, Buddhist institutions primarily focused on religious studies, philosophy, logic, and other academic subjects.

Therefore, the integration of education with monasteries was the defining characteristic of educational institutions under Buddhism. Viharas provided a conducive environment for learning, housing students, teachers, and libraries, fostering a holistic educational experience.

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UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Which of the following are useful tips in preparing questions for a structured interview?

(A) Introductory questions should be related to pleasantries.

(B) Introductory questions should be related to the research topic.

(C) Questions can be grouped, if the list of questions is long.

(D) General questions should precede specific questions.

(E) Repeat the personal questions again and again to test the truthfulness of the reponses of the interviewee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

An interview relies on the collection of data through the use of questions.

Key Points

  • There are two types of Interviews:
    • Structured interviews
    • Unstructured interviews
  • A structured interview is a quantitative research technique frequently used in survey research.
  • Structured interviews are the most systematized type of interview.
  • The interviewer uses predetermined questions in a set order.
  • Structured interviews are often closed-ended.
  • They can be dichotomous, which means asking participants to answer “yes” or “no” to each question, or multiple-choice.
  • While open-ended structured interviews do exist, they are less common.
  • Asking set questions in a set order allows you to easily compare responses between participants in a uniform context.
  • It is sometimes referred to as a standardized interview.
  • Tips for preparing questions for a structured interview are
    • Introductory questions should be related to the research topic.
    • Questions can be grouped if the list of questions is long.
    • Keep the language of the Question simple.
    • Avoid ambiguous question
    • Avoid Double-barrelled questions.
    • General questions should precede specific questions.

Thus, the correct answer from the options are B, C, and D Only.

Additional Information

  • Unstructured interviews are typically characterized as discussions performed with the aim of gathering information for the research study.
  • It is also known as in-depth interviews.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Which of the following are the principal components of the CPU of a computer system?
A. ALU (Arithmetic-Logic Unit)
B. CU (Control Unit)
C. Processor Registers
D. SSD (Solid-State Drive)
E. VRAM (Video RAM)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Digital computers are able to solve issues by processing data in discrete forms.

Key Points

  • The four fundamental functional components of a digital computer system are the Input device, Output device, Main memory and Central Processing Unit.
  • Central Processing Unit is the brain of the computer.
  • The Central Processing Unit have Six main Components:
    • Control unit (CU)
    • Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
    • Registers
    • Cache
    • Buses
    • Clock
  • All processing for any attached peripheral devices was likewise finished by the central processing unit.

Thus, ALU (Arithmetic-Logic Unit), CU (Control Unit) and Processor Registers are the principal components of the CPU of a computer system.

Additional Information

  • Solid-State Drive is a non-volatile storage media that stores constant data on solid-state flash memory.
  • VRAM (Video RAM) is RAM that is used to store image data for a computer display.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5
A shopkeeper sells an item at a profit of 15% and uses a weight which is 20% less. Find his actual profit percentage.
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

Given:

A man sells sugar at 15% profit.

False weights used is 20% less than the actual weight

Concept used:

Gain = Total profit ( i.e., profit from selling + profit from the false weight)/actual CP

Calculation:

Let the Cost price of sugar = 100

⇒ Selling Price = 115

⇒ False dealing in weight with 20%.

⇒ Actual CP = 100 – 20 = 80

Man’s actual profit = 15 + 20 = Rs. 35

Or,

⇒ Man’s actual profit = SP - CP = 115 – 80 = Rs. 35

Actual Profit percent = (35/80) × 100

⇒ 43.75%

∴ The actual profit percentage is 43.75%.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

An email message has been sent from Alex to Bob, Charlie, David, and Eve with the fields as shown below:

From : Alex

To : Bob

Cc : Charlie, David

Bcc : Eve

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

The correct statement is David does not know that Eve was sent the message.

Key Points

The first five lines of an E-mail message is called E-mail header. The header part comprises of following fields:

  • From
  • Date
  • To
  • Subject
  • CC
  • BCC

Important Points

  • Bcc Stands for “Blind Carbon Copy.” When you send an e-mail to only one person, you type the recipient’s address in the “To:” field. When you send a message to more than one person, you have the option to enter addresses in the “Cc:” and “Bcc:” fields. “Cc” stands for “Carbon Copy,” while “Bcc” stands for “Blind Carbon Copy.”
  • A Carbon Copy, or “Cc:” message is an e-mail that is copied to one or more recipients. Both the main recipient (whose address is in the “To:” field) and the Cc: recipients can see all the addresses the message was sent to. When a message is blind carbon copied, neither the main recipient nor the Bcc’d recipients can see the addresses in the “Bcc:” field.

In this case, Eve was sent the message in the BCC field, so Charlie and David will not be able to see her email address.

Additional Information

Charlie does not know that David was sent the message.

  • This statement is FALSE. Charlie and David are both in the Cc field. When an email is sent with recipients in the Cc field, those recipients can see who else the email was sent to in the To and Cc fields. Therefore, Charlie can see that David was sent the message.

Bob does not know that Charlie was sent the message.

  • This statement is FALSE. Bob is in the To field and Charlie is in the Cc field. When an email is sent, the recipients in the To and Cc fields can see each other. Therefore, Bob can see that Charlie was sent the message.

Eve does not know that Bob was sent the message.

  • This statement is FALSE. Eve is in the Bcc field. When an email is sent, the recipients in the Bcc field can see who the email was sent to in the To field. Therefore, Eve can see that Bob was sent the message.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Which of the following best describes the purpose of using ANOVA in research?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

The correct answer is: B. ANOVA is used to compare the means of more than two groups.

Key Points Here's why the other options are not as accurate:

  • A. ANOVA is used to compare the means of two groups: While ANOVA can be used for comparing two groups, it's more powerful and commonly used for comparing three or more groups.
  • C. ANOVA is used to determine the correlation between two variables: ANOVA focuses on comparing means, while correlation analysis assesses the relationship between two variables.
  • D. ANOVA is used to determine the interaction effect between dependent variables: While ANOVA can examine interaction effects, its primary purpose is still to compare main effects (individual effects of each independent variable) on the dependent variable.

Therefore, the ability to compare the means of multiple groups is the most accurate and general description of ANOVA's purpose in research.

Here are some additional points to remember about ANOVA:

  • It's a parametric test, meaning it assumes the data follows a normal distribution.
  • It uses F-statistics to determine whether the differences between group means are statistically significant.
  • There are different types of ANOVA, such as one-way ANOVA (comparing one independent variable) and two-way ANOVA (comparing two independent variables).
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

In a certain code language, "ABUSE" is written as "DEXVH" and "CANDY" is written as "FDQGB". How will "DESERT" be written in that language?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Addition of (3) in all letter's position values.
'ABUSE' is written as 'DEXVH'

'CANDY' is written as 'FDQGB'

Similarly, 'DESERT' will be written as:

Here, 'DESERT' is written as 'GHVHUW'.
Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

The University Grants Commission (UGC) in India serves as the primary regulatory body for higher education. In which of the following ways does the UGC maintain and coordinate university education?

A) It provides recognition to universities in India and disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges.

B) It drafts the national budget for education and proposes it directly to the Parliament.

C) It directly controls the administrative departments of individual universities and academic staff appointments.

D) It sets the admission criteria and curriculum for all university courses in India.

Choose the right answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

The correct answer is A only. Here's why:

  • A) It provides recognition to universities in India and disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges: This statement is true. The UGC is responsible for granting or withdrawing the "University" status to institutions in India. It also allocates funds from the central government to these recognized universities and colleges, supporting their development and infrastructure.
  • B) It drafts the national budget for education and proposes it directly to the Parliament: This statement is false. The Ministry of Education is responsible for drafting the national education budget, not the UGC. While the UGC might provide recommendations and advise on educational funding, it doesn't directly propose the national budget.
  • C) It directly controls the administrative departments of individual universities and academic staff appointments: This statement is false. The UGC doesn't control the internal administration of individual universities. Universities have their own governing bodies and academic councils responsible for making such decisions. The UGC provides guidelines and regulations, but it doesn't interfere directly in the university's internal operational aspects.
  • D) It sets the admission criteria and curriculum for all university courses in India: This statement is partially true. The UGC doesn't directly set the admission criteria and curriculum for all courses. Individual universities and colleges have the autonomy to design their own courses and set their own admission parameters within the broad guidelines and frameworks established by the UGC. The UGC might prescribe minimum standards or recommend curriculum models, but it doesn't dictate the specifics for every course across the country.

Therefore, only option A accurately describes the primary ways the UGC maintains and coordinates university education in India: by recognizing universities, disbursing funds, and setting broad guidelines for academic standards. The other options either incorrectly represent the UGC's role or overstate its level of control over individual universities.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

A shopkeeper marks his goods at 80% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 48% on the marked price. His loss percentage is:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

Given:
The marked price = 80% above its cost price.
Discount = 48%
Concept used:
SP = CP + profit
Profit is calculated on the cost price and discount on the market price.
Calculation:
Let the CP is = 100
The market price is = 180
The selling price will be,
⇒ 180 × 52/100 = 93.60
The loss percentage will be,
⇒ 100 - 93.60
⇒ 6 2/5 %
∴ The correct option is 3

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
A and B complete a work in 6 days. If A alone can do the same work in 10 days then B alone will do it in how many days?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

Given:

Time taken by A and B = 6 days

Time taken by A = 10 days

Formula used:

Total work = Time taken × Efficiency

Calculation:

L.C.M of (6 and 10) = 30 = Total work

Efficiency of A and B = 30/6 = 5 units/day

Efficiency of B = 30/10 = 3 units/day

Efficiency of B = (5 – 3) units/day

⇒ 2 units/day

Time taken by B = 30/2 days

⇒ 15 days

∴ B will complete the work in 15 days

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Assertion and reasoning-type questions have one assertion (A) and one reason (R). We must first determine whether the statement is true. If the statement is true, we must next determine whether the reason correctly explains the assertion.

First, we will consider the statement of Assertion:

To communicate well in the classroom is not only a natural ability. Classroom communication can be enhanced by using various strategies like the use of charts, audio-visual aids, etc. Every individual has a unique set of communication skills that are learned.

Hence, the statement provided in the assertion is false.

Now we will consider the statement of Reason:

The communication in the classroom is affected by various factors such as noise, environment, and other disturbances. Proper understanding of the communication process is the key to effective communication in the classroom as it helps to modify and use communication aids efficiently. It is also important that teachers should be up to date with all the latest teaching aids like computers, video conferencing, and especially the use of the internet. This will also help the students to keep up their interest in the learning process.

Hence, the statement provided in the reason is true.

Hence, for the above-mentioned reason, it could be concluded that the assertion is false but the reason is true.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
All teacher education institutions should get them accredited mandatory by:
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

The National Policy On Education (1986), and Program of Action (1992) spelt out strategic plans for the policies and advocated the establishment of an independent National Accreditation Agency. Consequently, the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grant Commission (UGC). It's headquarters is in Bengaluru.

Key Points

  • The mandate of NAAC as reflected in its vision statement is in making quality assurance an integral part of the functioning of higher education institutions (HEIs).
  • NAAC functions through its General Council (GC) and Executive Committee (EC) comprising educational administrators, policymakers, and senior academicians.
  • The Chairperson of UGC is the President of the GC of NAAC, and the Chairperson of the EC is an eminent academician nominated by the President of GC.
  • The main functions of NAAC are given below:-
  1. Devise and establish mechanisms for periodic accreditation and assessment of higher education institutions.
  2. Assess the quality of the institution through an internationally accepted methodology.
  3. Set ratings parameters and criteria for certifying and grading.
  4. Develop an information database to keep abreast of the latest developments.
  5. Recommend norms to be followed for quality improvement in teaching and research.
  • NAAC's process of assessment and accreditation involves the preparation of a self-study report by the institution, its validation by the peers and a final decision by the council.

Thus, option 1 is correct.

Additional Information NAAC has its seven criteria for assessment are given below:-

  1. Curricular Aspects.
  2. Teaching Learning and Evaluation.
  3. Research Consultancy and Extension.
  4. Infrastructure and Learning Resources.
  5. Student Support and Progression.
  6. Organization and Management.
  7. Healthy Practices.

Hence, we can conclude that all teacher education institutions should get them accredited mandatory by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC).

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

  • A. Quota sampling -
    • It is a non-probability sampling technique, where the researcher selects individuals from different subgroups of the population based on pre-determined quotas.
    • To ensure that the sampling represents the diversity of the population, quotas are set on the basis of certain characteristics such as age, gender, occupation, etc.
    • However, the selection of individuals within each subgroup is non-random, making it a non-probability sampling method.
  • B. Snowball sampling -
    • Snowball sampling is a non-probability sampling technique used when the target population is difficult to reach or identify.
    • In this method, the researcher starts with a small group of individuals who meet the criteria for the study, called the core.
    • These initial participants then refer or nominate other individuals who meet the criteria and the process continues like a snowball effect.
      This method is often used when studying hidden populations or sensitive issues.
  • C. Cluster sampling -
    • Cluster sampling is a probability sampling technique where the researcher divides the population into groups or subgroups based on geographic or other criteria.
    • Then, a random sampling of groups is chosen and all individuals from the chosen groups are included in the study.
    • Cluster sampling is used when the population is spread over a wide geographical area and it helps in reducing the cost and effort required to collect data.
  • D. Systematic sampling -
    • Systematic sampling is a probability sampling technique, where the researcher selects every nth person from a list of the population.
    • The starting point is chosen randomly and then every ninth person is included in the sample until the desired sample size is reached.
    • This method ensures equal probability of selection for each individual in the population, making it a simple and efficient probability sampling method.

Hence, the correct match is 'A – IV ( Quota Sampling), B – III (Snowball Sampling), C – I (Cluster Sampling), D – II (Systematic Sampling)'.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

The length of a train is 200 metres. If the speed of the train is 15 m/s, then how much time (in seconds) will it take to cross a bridge 520 metres long?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Given:
Speed of train = 15 m/s
The length of train = 200 metres
And length of bridge = 520 metres
Calculation:
Total distance covered while passing bridge = 200 + 520 = 720 metres
Speed = Distance/Time
Time = Distance/Speed = 720/15 = 48 seconds
∴ The time taken by him to cross a bridge 520 m long is 48 (in seconds).

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Which type of firewall process involves the examination of each packet's information against a set of established rules before deciding to allow it through or discard it?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

The answer is B. Packet-filtering Firewall.

Key Points

  • Packet-filtering firewalls operate at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model, analyzing individual packets of data that flow through a network.
  • They examine each packet's header information, which contains details like:
    • Source and destination IP addresses
    • Protocol type (TCP, UDP, ICMP, etc.)
    • Source and destination port numbers
  • The firewall compares this information against a set of predefined rules or filters:
    • If a packet matches a rule that allows it, the firewall permits it to pass through.
    • If a packet doesn't match any allowed rule, the firewall discards it, blocking its passage.
  • Key characteristics of packet-filtering firewalls:
    • Basic level of protection: Effective for blocking basic attacks and unwanted traffic.
    • Efficiency: Process packets quickly, minimizing impact on network performance.
    • Simplicity: Relatively easy to configure and manage.
    • Limited visibility: Cannot inspect the contents of packets, making them vulnerable to certain types of attacks.
  • Other types of firewalls:
    • Stateful inspection firewalls: Track the state of network connections, offering more advanced protection by monitoring ongoing conversations and identifying potentially malicious patterns.
    • Proxy firewalls: Act as intermediaries between networks, concealing internal IP addresses and providing additional filtering capabilities.
    • Network Address Translation (NAT) firewalls: Translate IP addresses, primarily used to conserve public IP addresses and offer some security benefits.

In summary, while packet-filtering firewalls provide a fundamental level of security by examining individual packets against rules, other firewall types offer more sophisticated protection and features.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom (U.K.)

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Indian Higher Education System

India ranks on 3rd in providing the higher education system in the world and comes after the USA and China.

  • In India, the system depends on whether the universities are centrally funded through the UGC, or by the states. Governments met 80 % of expenditure in 1992 against 40 % in 1947.
  • The universities have had to forgo considerable autonomy for increased state funding.
  • Some notable features of financial management of Indian higher education are the lack of proper norms and standards for staff and infrastructure, arbitrary cuts in funds for books, laboratories, and equipment, excessive spending on non-teaching staff, continuing shortage of faculty, ineffective leadership with lopsided priorities and mediocrity in the quality of education barring a few notable islands of excellence.

USA Higher Education System

Contemporary western influence, particularly that of the USA, is perhaps of major importance in many developing nations, with adapted patterns of academic and curricular organization. It has number one in having the largest Higher Education System in the World. Certain other common features of university life in these countries are:

  • The instructional medium and the language for research in the universities and other higher education institutes still remains a foreign language, and many of the faculty have been trained outside the country. This is a prime issue of concern in most developing nations, except the major part of Latin America.
  • The academic infrastructure is inadequate to support the network of intellectual communication necessary to stimulate a full range of scholarly activity.
  • The universities seldom have enough funds for research; the governments are usually required to spend first on immediate development rather than on less tangible research work.

China Higher Education System

In China, power is still concentrated in the central government, which allocates resources; controls teaching plans appoints staff, and awards grants to students. China has the second-largest in providing higher education in the world.

  • The 1986 Regulations laid down norms for size and quality of staff, classroom space, and books per student. During the last decade, as part of its economic reform measures, the Chinese state redefined its role as a sharing of responsibilities between the center and local levels.
  • The center lays down principles, carries out macro planning, and evaluates quality; the institutions look after course introduction and revision, admissions, research fund utilization, staff appointment, and general management.
  • The key administrators are under party guidance and the staff is appointed by the state. Institutions may take in fee-paying students within the quotas allotted to them.
  • Despite certain technical institutions earning from research and training contracts, and the like, the major problem of high unit cost still remains. Improvements through broadening educational programs and organizing institutional networks to share facilities have been attempted, but have had no major impact on costs.

Hence, we conclude that India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after the USA and China.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

If the average cost prices of articles A, C, D and E is Rs. 350 and article C is sold at 0.8% profit, then find the ratio of the discount per cent on the marked price of article C to that of the discount per cent on marked price of article D

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

Calculation
CPs of articles A, D and E are Rs. 300, Rs. 200 and Rs. 400 respectively.
So, CP of article C = (4 * 350) – 300 – 200 – 400 = Rs. 500
MP of article C = 500 + 60 = Rs. 560
And SP of article C = 100.8% of 500 = Rs. 504
Discount percent on MP of article C = [(560 – 504)/560] * 100 = 10%
Since, the discount per cent on MP of article D = 5%
So, required ratio = 10: 5 = 2: 1

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

If the selling price of article F is 89% more than the cost price of article E and article F is sold at Rs. 84 discount on its marked price, then find the ratio of the marked-up per cent of article F to the discount per cent given on its marked price.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Calculation
CP of article E = Rs. 400
So, SP of article F = 189% of 400 = Rs. 756
MP of article F = 756 + 84 = Rs. 840
CP of article F = 840 – 140 = Rs. 700
Marked up percent of article F = (140/700) * 100 = 20%
Discount percent on MP of article F = (84/840) * 100 = 10%
Required ratio = 20: 10 = 2: 1

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20
An investigator obtained a correlation coefficient of +0.65 between two variables. The other investigator obtained a correlation coefficient of -0.65 between the same variables. Which of the two values indicates a higher degree of relationship?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Correlational Research in educational psychology:

  • In research, we often wish to determine the relationship between two variables for prediction purposes.
  • For example, you may be interested in knowing whether “the amount of study time” is related to the “student’s academic achievement”. you simply find out the relationship between the two variables to determine whether they are associated, or covary or not.
  • The strength and direction of the relationship between the two variables are represented by a number, known as the correlation coefficient.

Correlation coefficient:

  • Its value can range from +1.0 through 0.0 to –1.0.
  • The coefficient of correlation is of three types: positive, negative, and zero.
    1. A positive correlation
      • It indicates that as the value of one variable (X) increases, the value of the other variable (Y) will also increase.
      • Similarly, when variable X decreases, a decrease in Y too will take place.
      • Suppose, it is found that the more time the students spend on studying, the higher was their achievement score. Also, the less they studied, the lower was their achievement score. This type of association will be indicated by a positive number, and the stronger the association between studying and achievement, the closer the number would be to +1.0.
      • A correlation of + 0.85, indicating a strong positive association between study time and achievement. On the other hand,
    2. a negative correlation
      • It tells us that as the value of one variable (X) increases, the value of the other (Y) decreases.
      • For example, you may hypothesize that as the hours of study time increase, the number of hours spent on other activities will decrease. Here, you are expecting a negative correlation, ranging between 0 and –1.0.
    3. zero correlation:
      • It is also possible that sometimes no correlation may exist between the two variables. This is called a zero correlation.
      • Generally, it is difficult to find zero correlation but the correlations found may be close to zero, e.g., -.02 or +.03.
      • This indicates that no significant relationship exists between two variables or the two variables are unrelated.

Hence, An investigator obtained a correlation coefficient of +0.65 between two variables. The other investigator obtained a correlation coefficient of -0.65 between the same variables. Both indicate the same degree of the relationship if one variable decreases then the other variable increases.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

M and N starts from the same point and walks 24 km each in the opposite direction to each other. M turn left and walks 7 km. N turn left and walks 7 km. How far (in km) are they from each other?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

The diagram for the given problem is:

The shortest distance between M and N is MO + ON
From Pythagoras theorem:
MN2 = MC2 + CN2
 


MN2 = √2500
MN = 50
Therefore, M and N are 50 km away from each other
.Hence, '50 km' is the correct answer.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

A Consider the following MS-EXCEL spreadsheet:

Suppose the formula - SUMIF(B2:B6, "Sunny", C2:C6) is entered into D2, what is the total temperature on sunny days?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

Key Points
SUMIF Function in Excel:

The SUMIF function in Excel is used to sum the values in a range that meet a certain criterion. The criteria can be a number, text, or a cell reference. The syntax for the SUMIF function is:
=SUMIF(range,criteria,[sum_range])

  • range is the range of cells that you want to sum.
  • criteria is the criteria that you want to use to filter the values.
  • sum_range is the optional range of cells that you want to sum. If you omit this argument, the SUMIF function will sum the values in the same range as the criteria.

Important Points
The formula given below is entered in cell D2-
SUMIF(B2:B6, "Sunny", C2:C6)

In the given spreadsheet, the formula SUMIF(B2:B6, "Sunny", C2:C6) is used to sum the temperatures on sunny days.
The result is :


Conclusion:

  • Monday (B2): The weather is "Sunny" and the temperature is 30.
  • Tuesday (B3): The weather is "Windy" and the temperature is 20.
  • Wednesday (B4): The weather is "Sunny" and the temperature is 25.
  • Thursday (B5): The weather is "Windy" and the temperature is 15.
  • Friday (B6): The weather is "Sunny" and the temperature is 30.

So, the formula SUMIF(B2:B6, "Sunny", C2:C6) will return 85, as the total temperature on sunny days is 85.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

With reference to the World Heritage Institute of Training and Research – Asia Pacific (WHITR-AP), consider the following statements.

1. It is a non-profit organization specialized in the area of heritage conservation.

2. It is an institute under the auspices of UNESCO.

3. It aims to strengthen the implementation of the World Heritage Convention 1972 in Asia and the Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

  • In News:
    • Recently, the World Heritage Institute of Training and Research – Asia Pacific (WHITR-AP) has recognised CEPT (Centre for Environmental Planning and Technology, Gujarat) University’s programme in conservation and regeneration as a commended case of Global Innovation on World Heritage Education.

Key Points

  • World Heritage Institute of Training and Research – Asia Pacific (WHITR-AP):
    • The WHITR-AP is a non-profit organization specialized in the area of heritage conservation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It is an institute under the auspices of UNESCO, it is the first one established in developing countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It is an autonomous institution at the service of member states and associate members of UNESCO.
  • Aim:
    • To strengthen implementation of the World Heritage Convention 1972 in Asia and the Pacific region. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • World Heritage Convention:
    • It is one of the most important global conservation instruments which was created in 1972.
    • Its mission is to identify and protect the world's natural and cultural heritage considered to be of Outstanding Universal Value.
    • It sets out the duties of States Parties in identifying potential sites and their role in protecting and preserving them.
    • By signing the Convention, each country pledges to conserve not only the World Heritage sites situated on its territory, but also to protect its national heritage.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

What presents a significant obstacle to the detection and treatment of mental health disorders as per the passage?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

The correct answer is 'Stigmatization'.
Key Points

  • The passage emphasizes the negative impact of stigma on the treatment of mental health disorders: "The stigmatization around mental health makes detection and treatment difficult."
  • Stigma breeds fear and misunderstanding, which discourage individuals from seeking much-needed help.
  • Societal backlash is noted as a significant repercussion of this stigma, leading to an unfortunate cycle of continued ignorance around mental health.
  • This stigma and fear are major contributors to pushing mental health lower in public health discourse, despite its rampant prevalence and impact.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

According to the passage, why has mental health not been a top priority in public health discourse?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

The correct answer is 'Ignorance'.
Key Points

  • The passage discusses how a lack of understanding or ignorance pushes mental health down the priority list in public health discourse - "This has pushed mental health down the priority list in public health discourse, despite its increasing prevalence and impact."
  • Despite the fact that nearly 1 billion people globally suffer from a mental health disorder, the issue is often overlooked or misunderstood.
  • This ignorance is further fueled by the stigma associated with mental health disorders, creating an unfortunate cycle that hinders effective treatments and interventions.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Which of the following is the correct order of measurement scales in increasing order of accuracy, precision and number of operations used?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Measurement is the process of assigning numbers to objects and events in accordance with a set of rules. To grasp the full impact of measurement, it is important to understand the concept of a measurement scale. There are several different kinds of scales: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.
Scales of Measurement:
1) Nominal (Label or category):

  • With a nominal scale, numbers are assigned to objects or events simply for identification purposes.
  • For example, participants in various sports have numbers on their jerseys that quickly allow spectators, referees, and commentators to identify them. This identification is the sole purpose of the numbers.
  • Labeling or naming allows us to make qualitative distinctions or to categorize and then count the frequency of persons, objects, or things in each category.

2) Ordinal (Rank order):
An ordinal scale allows us to rank-order events.
Original numbers are assigned to the order, such as first, second, third, and so on.

  • For example, grades such as “A,” “B,” “C,” “D,” and “F”; scores are given in terms of high, medium, and low; birth order in terms of firstborn, second-born, or later-born; a list of examination scores from highest to lowest; a list of job candidates ranked from high to low; and a list of the ten best-dressed persons.
  • For example, a researcher may pose a question to a teacher as follows:
    • Although most psychological scales are probably ordinal, psychologists assume that many of the scales have equal intervals and act accordingly.
    • The difference in the level of aggression between a score of 1 and a score of 2 is about the same as the difference in the level of aggression between a score of 2 and a score of 3, and so on.
    • Many researchers believe that these scales do approximate equality of intervals reasonably well, and it is unlikely that this assumption will lead to serious difficulties in interpreting our findings.

3) Interval (Rank order + Equal Intervals):

  • When we can specify both the order of events and the distance between events, we have an interval scale.
  • The distance between any two intervals on this type of scale is equal throughout the scale.
  • The central shortcoming of an interval scale is its lack of an absolute zero point—a location where the user 5 - 8 can say that there is a complete absence of the variable being measured. This type of scale often has an arbitrary zero point, sometimes called an anchor point.
  • For example,
    • scores on intelligence tests are considered to be on an interval scale.
    • With intelligence test scores, the anchor point is set at a mean IQ value of 100 with a standard deviation (SD) of 15.
    • A score of 115 is just as far above the mean (one SD) as a score of 85 is below the mean (one SD). Because we have a relative zero point and not an absolute one, we cannot say that a person with an IQ of 120 is twice as intelligent as a person with an IQ of 60. It is simply not meant to do so.
  • Some additional examples of interval scales are both the centigrade and Fahrenheit scales of temperature, altitude (zero is sea level rather than the center of the earth), and scores on a depression scale or an anxiety scale.

4) Ratio (Rank order + Equal Intervals + Absolute zero)

  • A ratio scale has a number of properties that the others do not. With ratio scales, we can identify rank order, equal intervals, and equal ratios—two times as much, one-half as much.
  • Ratios can be determined because the zero points are absolute, a true anchor—the complete absence of a property.
  • Zero weight or height means the complete absence of weight or height. A 100-pound person has one-half the weight of a 200-pound person and twice the weight of a 50-pound person. We can say these things because we know that the starting points for these dimensions or measures are 0.
  • For example, you might measure a child’s aggressive behavior by counting the number of times that the child inflicts physical harm on another person during a one-week observation period. Clearly, 10 incidents would be twice as many as 5, and 0 incidents would represent the absence of the variable you are measuring.

Frequency counts that represent the number of times that a particular event occurred are a common example of measurement on a ratio scale. But be careful not to confuse this use of frequency with the use of frequency as a summary statistic for data measured on a nominal scale (how many times observations fit a particular category).
Decision tree to determine the appropriate scale of measurement:

Hence, the Nominal < ordinal < interval < ratio is the correct order of measurement scales in increasing order of accuracy, precision, and the number of operations used.
The distinction among scales becomes of particular importance when we conduct statistical analyses of data. Underlying statistical tests are various
assumptions, including those relating to the scale of measurement. In other words, the scale of measurement for a variable can determine the most appropriate type of statistical analysis of the data.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding Digilocker, a key initiative under the 'Digital India' program of the Government of India?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

The correct response is that Indian citizens who sign up for a Digilocker account get a dedicated cloud storage space that is limited to their Aadhar number.
Key Points

  • Aadhaar is mandatory for signing up for a Digilocker account, but it doesn't determine the storage space.
  • Every registered user gets 1 GB of dedicated cloud storage irrespective of whether their Aadhaar is linked or not.

Additional Information

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the service's launch on July 1 after the beta version went live in February 2015.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

NEP-2020 proposes to establish which of the following new bodies?

(A) SSSA

(B) PARAKH

(C) IITI

(D) NTA

(E) NITI

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
Key Points

National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) features:

  • The NEP 2020 is the first education policy of the 21st century and replaces the National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986.
  • It aims to Ensure Universal Access at All Levels of schooling from pre-primary school to Grade 12;
  • Ensuring quality early childhood care and education for all children between 3-6 years;
  • New Curricular and Pedagogical Structure (5+3+3+4);
  • Setting up of a new National Assessment Centre, PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development);
  • NEP recommends setting an Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation (IITI), National Institute (or Institutes) for Pali, Persian and Prakrit, strengthening of Sanskrit and all language departments in HEIs, and use mother tongue/local language as a medium of instruction in more HEI programs.
  • Setting up of State School Standards Authority (SSSA) for Transparent public self-disclosure of all the basic regulatory information, as laid down by the SSSA, will be used extensively for public oversight and accountability.

Therefore we conclude that NEP-2020 proposes to establish SSSA, PARAKH, and IITI.

Additional Information

National Testing Agency

  • It is an Indian government agency that has been approved by the Union Council of Ministers and established in November 2017 to conduct entrance examinations for educational institutions

NITI Aayog:

  • It is the apex and advisory and nonstatutory public policy think tank of the Government of India.
  • It replaced the erstwhile Planning Commission on 1st January 2015
  • It's emphasis is on the ‘Bottom–Up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is (A), (B), (C) only

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

The time in which a train 1800 m long, travelling at the speed of 30 kmph, will pass a signal pole is:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

Given:-
An 1800 m long train is running at the speed of 30 km/hr.
The train passes a signal pole near the railway line.
Formula used:-
1 km = 1000 m,
1 hr = 3,600 seconds (s)
Time = Distance/Speed
Calculation:-
Length of train = Distance covered in passing the pole = 1800 m
Speed of train = 30 km/hr
⇒ Speed of train = (30 × 1000)/(1 × 3,600) m/s
⇒ Speed of train = 25/3 m/s
Time = Distance covered by train in passing the pole/Speed of train
⇒ 1800/(25/3) seconds
⇒ 216 seconds
∴ The required answer is 216.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
Given below are two statements

Statement I: The SWAYAM PRABHA has new content every day for at least 5 hours which would be repeated 4 more times in a day.

Statement II: The SWAYAM PRABHA has content that allows the students to choose the time of their convenience.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

SWAYAM Prabha is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resources Development to provide High-Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to Home).

Key PointsStatement I: The SWAYAM PRABHA has new content every day for at least 5 hours which would be repeated 4 more times in a day.

  • SWAYAM PRABHA is an effective tool for learning for those who do not have internet access in their home.
  • It is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting high-quality educational programs on a 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
  • The SWAYAM PRABHA has new content every day for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times in a day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience.

Hence Statement I is false.

Statement II: The SWAYAM PRABHA has content that allows the students to choose the time of their convenience.

  • SWAYAM PRABHA has curriculum-based course content covering diverse disciplines. This is primarily aimed at making quality learning resources accessible to remote areas where internet availability is still a challenge
  • Every day, there will be new content for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times a day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience.
  • The channels are uplinked from BISAG, Gandhinagar
  • The contents are provided by NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, and IGNOU.
  • The INFLIBNET Centre maintains the web portal.

Hence Statement II is correct.

Thus we conclude that Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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