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Practice Test - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Practice Test

Practice Test for NEET 2024 is part of NEET preparation. The Practice Test questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The Practice Test MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test below.
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Practice Test - Question 1

Two masses m1 & m2 are initially at rest and are separated by a very large distance. If the masses approach each other subsequently, due to gravitational attraction between them, their relative velocity of approach at a separation distance of d is

Practice Test - Question 2

A man of mass m starts falling towards a planet of mass M and radius R. As he reaches near to the surface, he realizes that he will pass through a small hole in the planet. As he enters the hole, he sees that the planet is really made of two pieces a spherical shell of negligible thickness of mass 2M/3 and a point mass M/3 at the centre. Change in the force of gravity experienced by the man is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 2

Gravity does not depend upon shape and size of the celestial body. It depends only on the mass of the two bodies and distance between them.
Fold = GmM/R2 and Fnew = GmM/R2

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Practice Test - Question 3

A spherical uniform planet is rotating about its axis. The velocity of a point on its equator is V. Due to the rotation of planet about its axis the acceleration due to gravity g at equator is 1/2 of g at poles. The escape velocity of a particle on the pole of planet in terms of V.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 3

Practice Test - Question 4

In the case of real gases, the equation of state, PV = RT (where P, V and T are respectively the pressure, volume and absolute temperature), is strictly satisfied only if corrections are applied to the measured pressure P and the measured volume V. The corrections for P and V arise respectively due to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 4

According to kinetic theory of gases there is no intermolecular force of attraction between the molecule of gases but its not true as gases liquifise, at high pressure molecular interaction starts due to which pressure on the walls decreases as molecule dragged back so pressure exerted by real gas is less than ideal gas, due to repulsive forces molecule behave as small spheres and hence volume decreases

Practice Test - Question 5

Which one of the following quantities can be zero on an average for the molecules of an ideal gas in equilibrium?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 5

In case of ideal gases the average velocity is always zero. Hence the average momentum is zero. 
Whereas average speed is non- zero so the kinetic energy is also non-zero,  as these two are scalar quantities.

Practice Test - Question 6

One mole of any substance at any temperature, pressure or volume always contains ________ molecules.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 6

1 mole = 6.02 x 1023

Practice Test - Question 7

Which diagram is the best depiction of the direction of flow of diffusion?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 7

The net flow of solute is from its higher concentration to lower concentration.

Practice Test - Question 8

When two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, process is said to be

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 8

This process is called nuclear fusion. It is found in the sun. Nuclear fission is a reaction in which two small nuclei combine together to form a big nuclei and release energy. This type of reaction takes place in sun and is the reason behind the massive amount of energy it sun provides.

Practice Test - Question 9

The elements of group 14 are slightly more electronegative than group 13 elements because of

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 9

As we move along the period electronegativity increases due to increase in nuclear charge.

Practice Test - Question 10

In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 10


so clearly N3H has the highest oxidation state

Practice Test - Question 11

The function of Fe (OH)3 in the contact process is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 11

Fe (OH)3 is used to remove arsenic impurities.

Practice Test - Question 12

Among the following which is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 12

F2 is very strong oxidizing agent.

Practice Test - Question 13

A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on heating to give another compound. Y which is called inorganic benzene. The compound X can be prepared by treating BF3 with Lithium aluminium hydride. The compounds X and Y are represented by the formulas.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 13

BF3 reacts with LiAlH4 to form B2H6 which reacts with NH3NH3 in 1:2 ratio forming B3N3H6( Borazine , inorganic benzene

Practice Test - Question 14

Three reactions involving  are given below  

B.

C.   

 

In which of the above does  act as an acid?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 14

in B only  is losing its proton therefore act as acid.

Practice Test - Question 15

When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 15

The correct answer is option D
The reaction of chlorine gas with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is
3Cl2​ + 6NaOH⟶NaClO3​+ 5NaCl+3H2​O
Oxidation number of Cl is 0 in Cl2​, −1 in NaCl and +5 in NaClO3
So the oxidation number of chlorine changes from Zero to -1 and Zero to +5.
 

Practice Test - Question 16

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): An apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.

Reason (R): There is no fertilisation in apomicts plants and they do not produce any seeds.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 16

Assertion (A) is true because apomixis is an asexual process that results in seed formation without fertilization.

Reason (R) is false because apomictic plants do produce seeds despite the lack of fertilization.                                                                                      So option (A) is True but (R) is False is correct .

Practice Test - Question 17

In the given diagram:

Statement I:I shows the entry of the pollen tube into a synergid under the guidance of A.

Statement II:II shows the discharge of male gametes into a synergid.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 17

(A) To determine the correctness of the statements regarding the given diagram:

- Statement I: The pollen tube enters a synergid under guidance from A, which is correct.
- Statement II: Male gametes are discharged into a synergid, which is correct

Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct SO OPTION (A)
 

Practice Test - Question 18

Endosperm type in which first division of primary endosperm nucleus and few subsequent division are not accompanied by wall formation is called?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 18

PEN (primary endosperm nucleus) divides into two nuclei and subsequent division of nucleus produce large number of nucleus without cell wall formation. These types of endosperm are called free nuclear type of endosperm.

Practice Test - Question 19

Number of nuclei participating in double fertilisation is?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 19

Double fertilisation involves fusion of one male gamete with egg during Syngamy and fusion of two polar nuclei with other male gametes. So, total 5 nuclei are involved in double fertilisation.

Practice Test - Question 20

Insect pollinated flowers are _________.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 20

The flower in which pollen grain is transferred from anther to stigma of anther flower by insects are colorful to attract insects and contain nectar.

Practice Test - Question 21

The portion of embryo axis above cotyledons is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 21

The correct option is A Epicotyl
Plumule- Shoot tip.

Radicle - Embryonic root.

A. Epicotyl- The portion of axis between the plumule and the cotyledonary node.

B. Hypocotyl- The portion of axis between the radicle and the cotyledonary node.

D. Coleoptile- Protective sheath of plumule.

So, the correct answer is 'Epicotyl'

Practice Test - Question 22

Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen is contributed by:
(i) Seminal vesicle
(ii) Prostate
(iii) Urethra
(iv) Bulbourethral gland​

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 22
  • Seminal plasma is the fluid part of semen and is contributed by seminal vesicles, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. Seminal vesicles contribute fructose, citric acid and other nutrients as well as fibrinogen and prostaglandin.
  • Secretions from prostate gland contain calcium ions, phosphate Ion, etc. and are alkaline in nature.
  • Bulbourethral glands secrete alkaline mucus which is important for the lubrication of penis.

Hence, the Correct Answer is C

Practice Test - Question 23

The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This is necessary as:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 23
  • The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
  • The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.

Hence, the Correct Answer is B

Practice Test - Question 24

Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D: 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 24

Explain male reproductive system in detail with a neat ...

Practice Test - Question 25

Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 25
  • Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms are produced.
  • Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells (spermatogonia) and Sertoli cells.
  • The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation, while Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.

Hence, the Correct Answer is D

Practice Test - Question 26

Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception where the couples avoid or abstain from coitus during the period of the menstrual cycle when:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 26

Periodic abstinence is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.

Practice Test - Question 27
Assertion (A): Women are at the peak of conception on the 14th day of ovulation.
Reason (R): Vasectomy is a method normally employed to avoid conception in females.
Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 27
Assertion (A) is true as women are generally at peak fertility around the 14th day of the menstrual cycle, which is typically when ovulation occurs. Reason (R) is false because vasectomy is a procedure for males to prevent conception, not females.
Practice Test - Question 28

Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
(i) They are introduced into the uterus.
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents.​

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 28

Diaphragms ain't spermicidal Because it doesn't kill the sperms instead prevents sperm entry as they are to be placed in the cervical region as a barrier / cover .

Practice Test - Question 29

Statement I: Oral contraceptive pills are a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking pregnancy.
Statement II: Copper-T is a physical barrier preventing the body fluid of two partners to come in contact.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 29

To analyze the statements provided, we will evaluate each one separately.

Step 1: Evaluate Statement I
Statement I: Oral Contraceptive pills are a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking pregnancy.

- Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are designed to prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and altering the uterine lining.
- They do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or HIV/AIDS.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Step 2: Evaluate Statement II
Statement II: Copper-T is a physical barrier preventing the body fluid of two partners to come in contact.

- Copper-T is an intrauterine device (IUD) that is used for contraception.
- It works by preventing fertilization and does not act as a physical barrier to prevent body fluids from coming into contact, as it is placed inside the uterus.
- Physical barriers that prevent body fluids from mixing include condoms and diaphragms, not Copper-T.
- Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.

Conclusion
Both statements I and II are incorrect.

Practice Test - Question 30

Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 30

Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method of contraception in India. The IUD is inserted in the woman’s uterus through the cervix.

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