RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 1 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ

The Correct Answer is ​Shreshta.

In News

• ​Government Launches Shreshta Scheme To Provide Quality Education To Scheduled Caste Students.

Key Points

• In a significant move aimed at advancing education and promoting the socio-economic progress of Scheduled Castes (SCs), the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has introduced the 'Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas' (SHRESHTA).
• The initiative envisions the creation of a conducive environment for the socio-economic upliftment and comprehensive development of SC students.
• The scheme's implementation is structured in two distinct modes.
• First, there are the SHRESHTA schools, which comprise the best CBSE/State Board-affiliated private residential schools.
• Under this mode, a specified number of outstanding SC students in various States and Union Territories (UTs) will be selected annually through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS), conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
• The students will then be admitted to the best private residential schools affiliated with CBSE/State Boards for their education from the 9th to the 12th standard.
• Selection of these schools is based on their exemplary performance, with schools boasting over a 75 per cent pass rate for classes 10 and 12 over the past three years being chosen by a selection committee for the admission of selected students.

The correct answer is Deccan.

Key Points

• The Bahmani monuments at Gulbarga, Karnataka, predominantly represent the Deccan style of architecture.
• The Deccan style was prominent during the period of the Bahmani Sultanate which existed from 1347 to 1527 in the Deccan region.
• This architectural style incorporates elements from Persian and local Deccan architecture, illustrating the diverse influences of that era.
• Gulbarga, the first capital of the Bahmani Sultanate, houses many important monuments such as the Gulbarga fort and the Jama Masjid within it, which are prime examples of the Deccan architectural style.
• The Deccan style can be seen in the simplicity of design, use of arches, and distinct decorative elements.

Additional Information

• Mamluk: This style pertains to the Mamluk Sultanate (Cairo), known for its architectural and cultural contributions, particularly in Egypt and the Levant. However, it is not directly connected to the Bahmani Sultanate.
• Sikh: Sikh architecture, known for its unique blend of Islamic and Hindu elements, primarily pertains to Sikh religious structures. It's not related to the Bahmani architectural style.
• Nagara: The Nagara style is a traditional Hindu architectural style that originated in northern India. It is characterized by beehive-shaped towers (shikharas) made up of layered horizontal sections, but is not associated with the Bahmani Sultanate's architectural style.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

• According to the 2011 Census of India, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in the country.
• As per the consensus of India 2011, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state and Sikkim is the least populous state in India.

Key Points

• According to the provisional results of the 2011 national census, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India with a population of 112,374,333 (9.28% of India's population).
• The 2011 census for the Maharashtra state found 55% of the population to be rural with 45% being urban-based.
• According to the 2011 census, Hinduism was the principal religion in the state at 79.8 percent of the total population, while Muslims constituted 11.5 percent.
• The sex ratio in Maharashtra was 929 females per 1000 males, which was below the national average of 943.
• The literacy rate rose to 83.2 percent. Of this, male literacy stood at 89.82 percent and female literacy at 75.48 percent.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Amplitude.

• Loudness means how loud or soft a sound seems to a listener.

Key Points

• Loudness is related to amplitude and intensity is one of the most salient qualities of a sound which is a measure of the amount of energy in sound waves.
• The unit of intensity is the decibel (dB).

Additional Information

• Speed- The speed of sound is the distance traveled per unit of time by a sound wave when it propagates through an elastic medium.
• Wavelength- The wavelength of a sound is the distance between adjacent identical parts of a wave.
• Frequency- The number of vibrations counted per second is called frequency. The unit of frequency is called hertz (Hz).

The correct answer is Tim Berners-Lee.
Key Points

• Tim Berners-Lee is a British computer scientist who invented the World Wide Web in 1989.
• He was working at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, at the time.
• Berners-Lee envisioned a system that would allow scientists to share information more easily.

He developed the three core technologies of the Web:

• Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP): This is the protocol that allows web browsers to request and receive web pages from web servers.
• Hypertext Markup Language (HTML): This is the language used to create web pages.
• Uniform Resource Locator (URL): This is the address of a web page.

The World Wide Web was first made available to the public in 1991. It has since grown to become the most popular information sharing system in the world.
Additional Information

• Tim Cook is the CEO of Apple Inc.
• Bill Gates is the co-founder of Microsoft.
• Mark Zuckerberg is the co-founder of Facebook.

The Correct Answer is ​Revanth Reddy.

In News

• Congress names Revanth Reddy as Telangana chief minister.

Key Points

• Congress general secretary KC Venugopal announced 54-year-old Revanth Reddy’s name as the Telangana CM in Delhi.
• He would be sworn-in as the second chief minister of Telangana, which was carved out from Andhra Pradesh in 2014, on December 7 in Hyderabad, succeeding K Chandrashekar Rao (KCR).
• The Congress defeated the Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS) by winning 65 of the 119 seats, ending the 10-year rule of KCR in the southern state.

The correct answer is The Preamble.

Key Points

• All the fundamental ideas of secularism have been explicitly incorporated into the constitution's different clauses.
• The Preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to include the word "Secular" (India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic).
• It highlights the fact that India is a constitutionally secular nation without a State religion. And that the state must respect all religions equally without favouring or patronising any one in particular.
• The term "secularism" is similar to the Vedic idea of "Dharma nirapekshata," or the state's disregard for religion.
• Western civilizations, where the government is completely distinct from religion, have adopted this paradigm of secularism (i.e. separation of church and state).
• The "Sarva Dharma Sambhava" (meaning, "that the endpoint of the pathways pursued by all faiths is the same, albeit the paths themselves may be different") is an Indian philosophical concept that refers to the equal respect of all religions.
• This idea, known as "Positive Secularism," which embodies the dominant spirit of Indian culture, was adopted and pushed by individuals like Vivekananda and Mahatma Gandhi.
• There is no recognised state religion in India. However, a person's religion may have various personal rules depending on issues like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and alimony.
• Indian secularism aimed to achieve the peaceful coexistence of various religions, but it was not an end in and of itself.

The correct answer is personal tax

Key Points

• Personal Disposal Income = Personal Income - Personal Income tax.
• Personal disposable income can be calculated by subtracting personal income tax payable from personal income (wages, commission, salary).
• Personal Disposable Income refers to the amount of money available to an individual or household to spend or save after income tax and other mandatory taxes have been deducted.
• It helps economists to measure the savings and spending rates of households.

Additional Information

• A subsidy is a benefit given to an individual, household, or institution by the government usually in order to reduce the beneficiary's expense.
• Rent is referred to as the part of the produce which is paid to the owner of land for the use of his goods and services.
• Wages are the remunerations that a person gets in return for the service provided by him.

The correct answer is 20 (3).

Key Points

• Article 20 (3) of the constitution mentions that "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be witness against himself".
• Article 20 (3) protects the accused person from self-incrimination.

Additional Information

• Article 23(2) in The Constitution of India 1949
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
• As per Article 19(5), the right to freedom of movement and residence could be restricted on the following grounds: In the interests of the general public, or. For the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe.
• Article 22(4): No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless—[44th Constitutional Amendment 1978].

The correct answer is Stratosphere.

Key Points

• Ozone layer:-
  • It is a layer of gas in the stratosphere that protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
  • It is primarily made up of ozone molecules and is located approximately 10-50 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • The ozone layer is important for the survival of various species on Earth, including humans, as prolonged exposure to UV radiation can lead to skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems.
  • The depletion of the ozone layer is primarily caused by human-made chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that have been used in refrigerants, aerosol sprays, and other industrial processes.

Additional Information

• Troposphere, mesosphere, and exosphere, do not contain significant amounts of ozone and are not responsible for protecting the Earth from UV radiation.

The correct answer is 5 : 2

Key Points

• In CaO , the ratio of Ca and O by mass is 5 : 2.
  • The atomic mass of calcium = 40 u
  • The atomic mass of Oxygen = 16 u
• Ratio by mass of Ca and O in CaO = 40 : 16 = 5 : 2

Additional Information

• Calcium oxide, commonly known as quicklime or burnt lime, is a widely used chemical compound.
  • It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline solid at room temperature.
  • Calcium oxide is usually made by the thermal decomposition of materials, such as limestone or seashells, that contain calcium carbonate in a lime kiln.
  • This is accomplished by heating the material to above 825 °C (1,517 °F), a process called calcination or lime-burning, to liberate a molecule of carbon dioxide (CO₂), leaving quicklime.

The correct answer is Telugu new year.

Key Points

• Ugadi
  • Ugadi, which is observed as Andhra Pradesh's Hindus' New Year's Day, is observed on the first day of the Hindu Luni-Solar Calendar in the month of Chaitra.
  • According to the Gregorian calendar, it takes place in either March or April.
  • This Indian holiday heralds the arrival of pleasure, joy, hope, and light.
  • The Sanskrit words "Yuga," which means age, and "adi," which means the beginning, are combined to form the word "Ugadi."
  • It denotes the start of a new era in plain terms.
  • In Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana, this holiday is celebrated with great zeal and passion.

Additional Information

• The ninth month of the Hindu calendar is Agrahya or Mrga.
• The Hindu month of Vaisakha corresponds to April or May on the Gregorian calendar in the national calendar of India.
• The fifth month of the Hindu calendar is shravan.

The correct answer is Bimal Patel.

Key Points

• Bimal Patel is an Indian architect, urbanist, and academician. He is the founder and principal architect of HCP Design, Planning and Management Pvt. Ltd., an Ahmedabad-based architecture firm.
• Patel has designed a number of notable buildings in India, including the Sabarmati Riverfront Development Project, the Kashi Vishwanath Temple Corridor Project, and the new Parliament Building in New Delhi.
• The new Parliament Building in New Delhi is a 64,500 square meter complex that was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on May 28, 2023.
• The building is designed to be earthquake resistant and to have a lifespan of more than 150 years.
• It is also designed to be energy efficient and to use sustainable materials.
• Patel's design for the new Parliament Building was selected from a pool of 10 shortlisted architects.
• The jury praised Patel's design for its "timeless elegance" and its "ability to reflect India's rich cultural heritage."
• The new Parliament Building is a significant addition to India's architectural landscape.
• It is a symbol of India's democracy and its commitment to sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Herbert Baker was an English architect who designed a number of notable buildings in India, including the Secretariat Building in New Delhi and the Viceroy's House (now Rashtrapati Bhavan).
• Ram V Sutar is an Indian sculptor who is known for his monumental sculptures, including the Statue of Unity in Gujarat.
• Brinda Somaya is an Indian architect who is the founder and principal architect of Somaya & Associates, an architecture firm based in Mumbai.
  • Somaya has designed a number of notable buildings in India, including the National Gallery of Modern Art in Mumbai and the NCPA Centre in Mumbai.

The correct answer is Option B.

Key Points

• Devichandragupta – Bilhana
  • Correct Author: Devichandragupta is a Sanskrit play written by Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana.
  • The play narrates the heroic deeds of Chandragupta, particularly rescuing his elder brother's wife from the Shaka ruler.
  • Hence, Pair 1 is incorrect.
• Hammira-Mahakavya – Nayachandra Suri
  • Correct Author: Hammira-Mahakavya is a 15th-century Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.
  • It is a legendary biography of the 13th-century Chahamana king Hammira and tells about the Chahamana dynasty rulers.
  • Hence, Pair 2 is correct.
• Milinda-panha – Nagarjuna
  • Correct Author: Milinda-panha (The Questions of Milinda) is a text that contains dialogues between the Buddhist monk Nagasena and King Milinda (Menander I).
  • However, it was not authored by Nagarjuna; it is written in the Pali language, and the author is not specifically identified.
  • Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect.
• Nitivakyamrita – Somadeva Suri
  • Correct Author: Nitivakyamrita is a work on ethics, politics, and social norms written in Sanskrit by Somadeva Suri, a renowned Jain monk and scholar.
  • It is composed in the form of verses (shlokas) and provides teachings on various aspects of life.
  • Hence, Pair 4 is correct.
• Pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched, while Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: Only two.

The correct answer is Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

Key Points

• Nagarhole National Park and Tiger Reserve:
  • Also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park.
  • Establishment:
    • As a wildlife sanctuary in 1955.
    • Upgraded into a national park in 1988.
    • Declared as Tiger reserve in 1999.
  • ​​Location: It lies in the Kodagu & Mysore district of Karnataka.
    • It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  • It became the 37th Tiger reserve of India.
  • It got the status of Tiger reserve under Project Tiger.

Additional Information

• Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve is located in Khangchendzonga hills and Sikkim.
• Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve is located in the parts of the delta of Ganges and Brahmaputra river system.
• Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is located in the Indian part of the Gulf of Mannar between India and Sri Lanka (Tamil Nadu).

The Correct answer is Ninth Schedule - Allocation of seats in the Council of States.

Key Points

Ninth Schedule

• The ninth schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by the First Amendment in 1951.
• The First Amendment restricted the freedom of speech and expression.
• It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, on 10 May 1951.
• It was enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.
• The ninth schedule of the Indian constitution refers to the acts and regulations of the state legislatures dealing with the land reforms and abolition of the Zamindari system.
• It was added by the First Amendment to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.
• However, in 2007 the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in the ninth schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

​Additional Information

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

Prarthana Samaj

• The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867.
• It was founded by Atmaram Pandurang.
• Prarthana Samaj played a very important role in the Maharashtra Renaissance.
• It focused on religious and social reform in Maharashtra.
• Veeresalingam Pantulu was the Telugu reformer who encouraged the Prarthana Samaj in South India.
• Keshav Chandra Sen, an influential leader of the Brahmo community, came to Mumbai.
• Guided the people by giving lectures in the context of social reform.
• This lecture inspired society and the reformers.
• Dr. Atmaram Pandurang established Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai on 31st March 1867.
• Principles of Prarthana Samaj:
  • The Lord is one.
  • He is the Creator of the universe.
  • He is eternal, incomprehensible and formless.
  • He is almighty, merciful, and holy.
  • ​ Praying to God does not bring material results.
  • The only prayer brings spiritual upliftment. *
  • Idolatry is not acceptable to the Lord.
  • The Lord does not take incarnation.

The correct answer is Dr Arvind Panagariya.

In News

• Centre has constituted the 16th Finance Commission with Dr Arvind Panagariya as its Chairman.

Key Points

• Prior to this, Dr Panagariya served as the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog and is currently a Professor at Columbia University.
• As the Chairman, his responsibilities will include making recommendations on important matters such as the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and actions needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of its Panchayats and Municipalities.
• He will also possibly review the existing arrangements for financing Disaster Management initiatives.
• The Finance Commission, under Dr Panagariya's leadership, is expected to present its report by October 31, 2025, which will cover five years starting from April 1, 2026.

Additional Information

• FINANCE COMMISSION:
  • Finance Commissions (FCs) are constitutional entities established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, with the mandate to advise on the distribution of financial resources between Union and State governments.
  • The recommendations by FCs cover three main aspects: The share of states in central tax pool (Vertical Devolution), allocation of resources among states based on a formula reflecting fiscal needs and performances (Horizontal Distribution), and Grants-in-aid for states or sectors in need of assistance.
  • Some notable initiatives by FCs include: Higher tax devolution to states, performance-based incentives for fiscal discipline, disaster relief funds, grants for local bodies and sectors such as health, education and justice delivery.
  • Despite the recommendations being advisory in nature, they are typically accepted by the Union government with only minor modifications and deviations.
  • The Union government indicates acceptance of the recommendations through a Presidential Order, which specifies the period of their validity.

The correct answer is ​Stagnation.

Key Points

• Stagnation
  • It is a prolonged period of little or no growth in an economy. Hence, Option A is correct.
  • Real economic growth of less than 2% annually is considered stagnation, and it is highlighted by periods of high unemployment and involuntary part-time employment. Stagnation can occur on a macroeconomic scale or a smaller scale in specific industries or companies.
  • Stagnation can occur as a temporary condition, such as a growth recession or temporary economic shock, or as part of a long-term structural condition of the economy.
  • Stagnation is a condition of slow or flat growth in an economy.
  • Stagnation often involves substantial unemployment and underemployment, as well as an economy that is generally performing below its potential.
  • Periods of stagnation can be short-lived or long-lasting and can result in a range of economic and social factors.

Additional Information

• Recession
  • It is a macroeconomic term that refers to a slowdown or a massive contraction in economic activities for a long enough period, or it can be said that when a recessionary phase sustains for long enough, it is called a recession.
• Stagflation
  • The term was coined by Iain Macleod, a Conservative Party MP in the United Kingdom, in November 1965.
  • Stagflation is said to happen when an economy faces stagnant growth as well as persistently high inflation.
  • With stalled economic growth, unemployment tends to rise and existing incomes do not rise fast enough, and yet, people have to contend with rising inflation.
  • So people find themselves pressurized from both sides as their purchasing power is reduced.
• Reflation
  • It is a fiscal or monetary policy enacted after a period of economic slowdown or contraction. Here the goal is to expand output, stimulate spending and curb the effects of deflation.
  • As such, the term “reflation” is also used to describe the first phase of economic recovery after a period of contraction.
  • Reflation policies can include reducing taxes, changing the money supply, and lowering interest rates.

No force acts on a current-carrying conductor when it is placed parallel to the magnetic field.
Key Points
The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = IlB sinθ, where:

• ​F is the force on the conductor (in N).
• I is the current in the conductor (in A).
• l is the length of the conductor (in m).
• B is the magnetic field strength (in T).
• θ is the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field (in degrees).

When the conductor is parallel to the magnetic field, θ = 0° and sinθ = 0.
​Therefore, F = 0, and no force acts on the conductor.

The correct answer is ​They are gases at room temperature
Key Points

• The elements in Group 1 of the Periodic Table are known as alkali metals.
• These include elements like Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Rb), Cesium (Cs), and Francium (Fr).

Properties of these elements:

A. They are good conductors of electricity - TRUE:

• alkali metals are good conductors of electricity.
• This is due to their ability to easily lose their outermost electron to form positive ions.
• The delocalized electrons are free to move, allowing electric current to pass through.

B. They are highly reactive - TRUE:

• Alkali metals are known for their high reactivity.
• This is because they have only one electron in their outermost shell, and they want to lose this electron to achieve a stable electron configuration (a full outer shell).
• This makes them highly eager to participate in chemical reactions.
• For instance, they react vigorously with water to produce hydrogen gas and alkali hydroxides.

C. They have one valence electron - TRUE:

• The defining characteristic of alkali metals is that they each have a single electron in their outermost energy level (also known as valence shell).
• This single electron is held relatively loosely because it is far from the positive charge of the nucleus, making it easy for alkali metals to lose this electron and form a positive ion.

D. They are gases at room temperature - FALSE:

• None of the alkali metals are gases at room temperature.
• They are all solid at room temperature.
• The elements that are gases at room temperature are located in the rightmost area of the Periodic Table, such as the noble gases (Group 18).

The correct answer is Ashutosh Rana.Key Points

• Ashutosh Rana is the author of the book 'Maun Muskaan Ki Maar'.
• Ashutosh RamNarayan Neekhra, known professionally as Ashutosh Rana.
• He is an Indian actor, producer, author and television personality.
• He has worked in Marathi, Telugu, Kannada, Tamil, and Hindi films.

Additional Information

• Jugal Hansraj is an Indian actor, author and filmmaker.
• Uday Raj Chopra is an Indian actor, film producer, screenwriter and assistant director in Bollywood.
• Ronit Bose Roy is an Indian actor, known for his works primarily in Hindi television and films.

The correct answer is third.
Key Points

• ​The population of States in India (Census 2011)

Additional Information

• The population of cities and UTs in India (Census 2011)

• Population Density of India's states as per census 2011

The correct chronological order of the given Sultanate rulers is: i, ii, iii & iv
Key Points
Mubaraq Khilji:

• ​Qutb-ud-din Mubarak Shah Khilji was the child of Ala-ud-din Khilji.
• He escaped from the clutch of Malik Kafur, and turned into the third Sultan of Delhi.
• He was the 3rd and the last ruler of Khilji Dynasty.
• In 1320, he was killed by one of his reliable person Khusro Khan.

Khusarau Shah:

• ​Khusrau Shah was the Sultan of Delhi for around two months in 1320.
• After ascending the throne in 1316, Mubarak Shah gave him the title "Khusrau Khan", and greatly favoured him.
• He killed Mubarak Shah and grabbed the throne.
• After Mubarak Shah’s passing, Khusro Khan adopted the title of Nasir-ud-din Khusro Khan.

Muhammad Shah:

• ​Muhammad Shah was the third ruler of Sayyid dynasty who succeeded Mubarak Shah in 1434 AD.
• He was always busy acting against conspirators and gradually lost control over his nobles.
• Muhammad Shah died in 1445 CE and was succeeded by his son Alam Shah.

Alam Shah:

• He was the weakest amongst all Sayyid princes and proved to be incompetent.

• His wazir, Hamid Khan invited Bahlul Lodhi to take charge of the army.

• Alam Shah realised that it would be difficult to continue as a ruler, so he retired to Badaun.

Based on the above discussion, we can conclude that the correct chronological order of the given Sultanate
rulers is:
i. Mubaraq Khilji
ii. Khusarau Shah
iii. Muhammad Shah
iv. Alam Shah

The correct answer is National Sample Survey Organisation.
Key Points
National Sample Survey Organisation

• It is the largest organization conducting socio-economic surveys in India.
• Its nation-wide surveys on various socio-economic aspects include:
  • Follow-up enterprise surveys of the Economic Census.
  • Fieldwork relating to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI).
  • Supervision of area enumeration, crop estimation surveys conducted by state agencies under the Improvement of Crop Statistics scheme.
  • Urban Frame Survey with a view to preparing a frame of compact units of urban areas as the first stage sampling units (FSUs),
  • Organizing methodological studies and pilot surveys on important subjects and collection of price data from rural and urban sectors.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India
  • RBI was set up on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission also called the Royal Commission in 1926.
  • RBI Act was passed in the year - 1934
  • RBI was established on 1st April 1935.
  • RBI was nationalized on 1st January 1949.
  • RBI issues all currency notes except one rupee.
  • The signature of the RBI Governor on the notes is in English and Hindi.
  • The currency notes except one rupee hold the signature of the RBI Governor.
  • One rupee holds the signature of the Finance Secretary.
• NITI Aayog
  • The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
  • NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
    • While designing strategic and long-term policies and programs for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
• Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was first reorganized in 1965.
  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organization.
  • It is under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was formally known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research.
  • The ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi.
  • There are a total of 101 ICAR institutes and 71 agricultural universities spread across the country.

The Correct answer is Only (D).

Concept:

• The process by which organisms exchange gases between their body cells and the environment is known as respiration.
• Respiration is of two types:
• Aerobic respiration:
  • Aerobic respiration is a type of cellular respiration that occurs in the presence of oxygen and produces energy.
• Anaerobic respiration:
  • Anaerobic respiration is another type of cellular respiration that occurs in the absence of oxygen and produces energy.

Explanation:

• Sometimes when we do heavy exercise such as fast running, cycling, walking, and weightlifting we require a lot of energy to meet the energy requirement of our body, which causes an impermanent lack of oxygen in the muscle cells.
• In the absence of oxygen, our bodies perform anaerobic respiration, in which glucose in muscle cells is converted into lactic acid.
• In this process, energy is produced but in a smaller amount.
• Glucose →Lactic acid + energy (in smaller amounts)

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand CM launched “Dhami against drugs campaign.”

• Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami has launched the "Dhami against drugs campaign" in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
• The campaign, organized by Bharatiya Janata Yuva Morcha Metropolitan Dehradun, is aimed at combating drug abuse in the state.
• Chief Minister Dhami also released T-shirts and posters related to the campaign during the launch event.
• He emphasized the state government's resolution to make Uttarakhand drug-free by the year 2025 and called upon the people to actively participate in achieving this goal.
• The initiative includes rapid involvement of students and colleges in the campaign to create awareness and prevent drug abuse among the youth.

The correct answer is Pupil .
Concept:

• Iris controls the size of the Pupil and the Pupil regulates the amount of light entering the human eye. It is responsible for the adjustment of the pupil according to the intensity of light received by the eye.
  • If the amount of light received by the eye is large, then the iris contracts the pupil and reduces the amount of light entering the eye.
  • If the amount of light received by the eye is small, then the iris expands the pupil so that more light may enter the eye.
• Retina: An image is formed on the retina.
• The eye lens refracts the light ray, forming an image on the retina.

​​

Explanation:
The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the pupil.
​Different parts of the eyes and their functions are shown in the table:

Mistake Points
The iris is like a gatekeeper; it changes the size of the pupil. The pupil is the actual opening through which light enters the eye. When there's a lot of light, the iris makes the pupil smaller to let in less light. When it's dark, the iris makes the pupil bigger to let in more light.
So, while the iris controls the size of the pupil, it's the pupil that directly regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
So, Pupils directly controls the amount of light entering in human eye.

The correct answer is Ganges and Yamuna.
Key Points

• The text mentions the Ganges and Yamuna rivers during the Later Vedic Period.
• The mention of more rivers indicates the geographical knowledge and expansion of the people during this period.
• These rivers played a crucial role in the development of civilizations and cultures.

Additional Information

• The Ganges and Yamuna rivers, along with other rivers mentioned in the Vedic texts, were vital for agricultural activities.
• The rivers also served as important trade routes, facilitating economic development.
• The mention of these rivers in the Vedic texts indicates the significance of rivers in the socio-cultural life of the people.

The correct answer is cyclical unemployment.

Key Points

• Unemployment occurs when there are changes to an economy’s business cycle is termed Cyclical Unemployment.
• Cyclical unemployment is termed as demand deficiency i.e. unemployment starts to rise when demand falls.
• Causes for Cyclical Unemployment
  • The decline in Demand contributes to less investment in business hence requiring fewer employees.
  • Negative multiplier effects when demand falls this affects stores, farmers manufacturing workers,s and also those investing in transporting these goods and products which results in further affecting multiple areas.
  • A bad Market Crash can cause a recession by instilling a loss of confidence in an economic decline in employers looking to hire and expand can be seen.
• Therefore, Unemployment caused by the recession of 2008-2010 is an example of Cyclical Unemployment.​

Additional Information

• Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between available jobs and available workers' talents. Many people in India struggle to find work because they lack the necessary skills, and training them is difficult due to a lack of knowledge.
• Frictional unemployment is the result of employment transitions within an economy where workers voluntarily leaving their jobs and new workers enter the workforce.