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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4

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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 1

Tusu Parab is the harvest festival of which of the following Indian states?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is Jharkhand.
Key Points

  • The Tusu festival is primarily observed in Assam, the Tea-producing State, Northeastern Odisha, Southwest West Bengal, and Southeast Jharkhand.
  • During this occasion, the goddess Tusu is worshipped. The focus is primarily on rivers. It is a unified expression of the agrarian society's shared trust and belief in the pleasure of crop gathering.
  • It is thought that the term "Tusu" derives from the word "tush" for rice bran. Both a youthful child and a cosmic deity are representations of the Goddess Tusu.
  • The ceremonies carried out during the Tusu Puja center on harvest-related ceremonies and songs of ethnic dedication chanted by women folk.
  • Therefore, the Tusu festival is associated with Jharkhand.

Additional Information
State-Specific Festivals of India

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 2

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the duration of Panchayats?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 2

The correct answer is 243E.
Key Points
Article 243E:

  • ​It states about the Duration of Panchayats, etc.
  • Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
  • No amendment of any law for the time being in force shall have the effect of causing dissolution of a Panchayat at any level, which is functioning immediately before such amendment, till the expiration of its duration specified in clause (1).
  • An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed—
    • before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1)
    • before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

Additional Information

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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 3

What is the rank of India in IMD's 2023 World Talent Ranking?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 3

The Correct Answer is 56.

In News

  • The International Institute for Management Development (IMD) has released its 2023 World Talent Ranking, revealing that India has fallen four spots to 56th out of 64 economies, compared to its 52nd position in 2022.
  • While the report acknowledges India's infrastructure improvements, it underscores the need for further enhancement in talent competitiveness.
  • India fares reasonably well in future readiness, ranking 29th.
  • Switzerland ranked on top in the IMD World Talent Ranking 2023, while Luxembourg was in second place, followed by Iceland, Belgium, and the Netherlands.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 4

What is the minimum lane width in Swimming in meters?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 4

The correct answer is 2.13.
Key Points

  • The minimum lane width is prescribed by the International Swimming Federation (FINA), which is the governing body for Swimming.
  • The minimum lane width is important to ensure that swimmers have enough space to swim comfortably and safely without colliding with each other.
  • FINA has prescribed different minimum lane widths for different types of competitions.
  • For example, for Olympic Games, World Championships, and World Cup events, the minimum lane width is 2.5 meters. However, for other competitions, such as continental championships, the minimum lane width is 2.13 meters.
  • Lane widths can also vary depending on the size of the pool. For example, in a 25-meter pool, the minimum lane width is 2.0 meters, whereas, in a 50-meter pool, the minimum lane width is 2.5 meters.

Additional Information

  • About FINA:
    • The Federation Internationale de Natation (FINA) is the world governing body for aquatic sports such as swimming, diving, water polo, and synchronized and open water swimming.
    • FINA rules are used to manage state, national and international events such as the World Championships and the Olympics.
    • The FINA Facilities Rules provide the best possible environment for competitive use and training.
    • President: Julio C. Maglione (as of April 2021
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following pairs:


Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 5

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.
Key Points

  • The first Buddhist Council:
    • It was held at Rajagraha under the chairmanship of Mahakasapa immediately after the death of Buddha. Hence pair 1 is correct.
    • Its purpose was to maintain the purity of the teachings of the Buddha.
  • The second Buddhist Council:
    • It was convened at Vaisali around 383 B.C. Hence pair 2 is correct.
    • It was held during the reign of Kalashoka.
  • The third Buddhist Council:
    • It was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of Asoka. Hence pair 3 is correct.
    • Moggaliputta Tissa presided over it.
    • The final version of the Tripitakas was completed in this council.
  • The fourth Buddhist Council:
    • It was convened in Kashmir by Kanishka under the chairmanship of Vasumitra. Hence pair 4 is incorrect.
    • Asvagosha participated in this council.
    • The new school of Buddhism called Mahayana Buddhism came into existence during this council.
    • The Buddhism preached by the Buddha and propagated by Asoka was known as Hinayana.

Important Points

  • Tripitaka:
    • These are Buddhist sacred scriptures that contain the religion, philosophy, sayings, and teachings of Gautam buddha.
    • The word 'Tripitaka' means Triple Baskets or three parts: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 6

What is Gini coefficient used for?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 6

The correct answer is To measure income inequality.
Key Points

  • Gini Coefficient represent the Distribution of Income.
  • It measures the degree of income inequality in the country's population.
  • Gini coefficient is also one of the indicators of economic development in the country.
  • The value of the Gini Coefficient varies from 0 to 1.
  • 0 means perfect equality everyone has the same income, and 1 means perfect inequality all the income is received by a single individual.
  • Graphical Representation of the Gini Index (Lorenz curve)

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 7

The communist party of India was formed in 1920 in _________ by M.N. Roy, Abani Mukharji

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 7

The correct answer is Tashkent.

Key Points

  • The communist party of India was formed in 1920 in Tashkent by M.N. Roy, and Abani Mukharji.
  • The Communist conference in which CPI was formed was held at Kanpur in the same location at which the congress session was held.
  • The Communist Conference was convened by Satya Bhakt.
  • CPI worked in close association with Indian National Congress.
  • In 1924, many communists - S.A. Dange, Muzzafar Ahmad, Shaukat Usmani, Nalini Gupta were jailed in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case.
  • Some leaders were critical of both Swarajists and No Changers.
  • These leaders were influenced by international currents.
  • They stressed the need to combine nationalism and anti-imperialism with social justice.

Confusion Points

  • In 1925, the Indian Communist Conference at Kanpur formalized the formation of the CPI.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 8

What is the tenure of Gram Panchayat as well as urban committees?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 8

The correct answer is 5 years.

Key Points

  • The tenure of Gram Panchayat as well as urban committees is of 5 years.

Panchayat:

  • It is an institution of self-government constituted under article 243B, for the rural areas.
  • All the seats in a Panchayat shall be elected directly from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
  • The Panchayat is elected for five years from the date of the first meeting.
  • It can be dissolved earlier in accordance with the procedure prescribed by state law.
  • If Panchayat dissolved before its tenure then the elections must take place within six months of its dissolution.
  • Article 243D provides that seats are to be reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • A person who has attained the age of 21 years will be eligible to be a member of Panchayat.
  • All election-related matters of Panchayats shall be vested in a state election commission.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 9

Which of the following pairs of 'Physics – Principle' is correct?

I. Newton's Third Law – Equal and opposite force

II. Archimedes' Principle – Speed of light

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 9

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

I. Newton's Third Law – Equal and opposite force

  • Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • This means that any force exerted on a body will create a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the object that exerted the first force.

Hence statement I correct.

II. Archimedes' Principle – Speed of light

  • Archimedes' Principle is not related to the speed of light.
  • Archimedes' Principle states that the upward buoyant force exerted on a body immersed in a fluid, whether fully or partially submerged, is equal to the weight of the fluid that the body displaces.
  • The speed of light, on the other hand, is a fundamental constant of nature and forms the basis of Einstein's theory of relativity.

Hence statement II incorrect.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 10

Bhagat singh and B.K. Dutt threw bomb in the central Legislative Assembly on _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 10

The correct answer is 8 April 1929.

Key Points

  • On 8 April 1929, Bhagat Singh and B. K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly.
    • ​They were members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
    • It was against the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill.
    • They did not want to injure anyone but wanted to make a statement that they would not bear the colonial rule of the Britishers.
    • Dutta also initiated a historic hunger strike along with Bhagat Singh to protest against the abusive treatment of Indian political prisoners.

Additional Information

  • Bhagat Singh
    • He founded Naujawan Bharat Sabha in March 1926.
    • The objective of this organization was to encourage revolution against British rule by rallying the peasants and workers.
    • Bhagat Singh popularized the phrase " Inqualab Zindabad" which was first phrased by Maulana Hazrat Mohani.
    • Some of the books written by Bhagat Singh are "Why I Am an Atheist", "No Hanging, Please Shoot Us", and "on the Path of Liberation" among others.​
  • Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were involved in the Lahore conspiracy case and because of this, the court ordered that they were to be hanged on March 23, 1931.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 11

Which of the following sport item is associated with Heisman Trophy?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 11

The Correct answer is Football.

Key Points

Heisman Trophy:

  • This Trophy is associated with Football.
  • It is awarded annually to the most outstanding player in college football in the United States.
  • This award was instituted in 1935 by Downtown Athletic Club. (1935- 2001)
    • Now, This was awarded by The Heisman Trophy Trust. ( 2002-present)
  • It was named after the athletic director of Downtown Athletic Club, John Heisman.
  • Selection is based on the voting of three categories:- Previous Heisman winners, Sports Journalists, Fans.
  • The trophy is made of bronze which is 13.5 inches tall and 14 inches long.
  • It was designed by Sculptor Frank Eliscu.
  • First winner: Jay Berwanger.
  • Recent Winner: Devonta Smith.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 12

Which among the following is the sole note issuing authority in India?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 12

The correct answer is The Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
    • It is the central banking institution of India. It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934.
    • The RBI is responsible for regulating and controlling the monetary policy of India, issuing the country's currency (Indian Rupee), and supervising the banking and financial system to maintain the stability and integrity of the financial sector.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Finance Corporation of India:-
    • It is an Indian government-owned development bank to cater to the long-term finance needs of the industrial sector.
    • It was the first development finance institution established by the Indian government after independence.
    • Government established the Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) on 1 July 1948.
  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
    • NPCI operates retail payments and settlement systems,
    • It is approved by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) To offer improved infrastructure for the entire banking industry to create a robust physical and digital payment and settlement system under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
    • Its main objective is to improve the infrastructure for the entire banking industry to create physical and digital payments.
  • SBI: It is the largest commercial bank in India. It is a public sector bank. Its headquarters is situated in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It is the largest commercial bank in India.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 13

Which famous Indian Kathak dancer received the Padma Vibhushan, India's second highest civilian award, in 1986?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 13

The correct answer is Birju Maharaj.

Key Points

  • Pandit Birju Maharaj was an Indian dancer, composer, singer, and exponent of the Lucknow "Kalka-Bindadin" Gharana of Kathak dance in India.
  • He was a descendant of the Maharaj family of Kathak dancers, which includes his two uncles, Shambhu Maharaj and Lachhu Maharaj, and his father and guru, Acchan Maharaj.
  • He was born on 4 February 1938 in Handia and died on 17 January 2022 in Delhi.
  • He was awarded Padma Vibhushan and Filmfare Award for Best Choreography and more.
  • Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance. It is the classical dance form of Uttar Pradesh. The origin of Kathak is traditionally attributed to the traveling bards of ancient northern India known as Kathakars or storytellers.
  • He received the ‘Padma Vibhushan’ in 1986.

Additional Information

Mallika Sarabhai

  • She is an Indian classical dancer, choreographer, actress, writer, and social activist known for her promotion of the arts as a vehicle for social change.
  • Mallika is an accomplished Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dancer and performer who has specialized in using the arts for social change and transformation.
  • She started to learn dancing when she was young and started her film career in the parallel cinema when she was 15.
  • Mallika played the role of Draupadi in Peter Brook's play The Mahabharata.

Important Points

  • Padma Awards
    • Padma Awards one of the highest civilian Awards in the country are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
    • The Awards are given in various disciplines/ fields of activities,
      • Art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc.
    • Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service.
    • Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order.
    • Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field.
    • The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.
    • These awards are conferred by the President of India.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 14

'Ozone layer' absorbing ultraviolet radiation exists in which of the atmospheric layer?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 14

The correct answer is Stratosphere.

Key Points

Ozone layer

  • The ozone layer is a natural layer of gas in the upper atmosphere that protects humans and other living things from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
  • The ozone layer exists in the stratosphere, a layer 10 to 50 km above the Earth’s surface.
  • The international community established the Montreal Protocol on ozone-depleting substances in 1987, to address the destruction of the ozone layer.
  • The stratospheric ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation, preventing dangerous UV rays from hitting the Earth's surface and harming living organisms.
  • It contains a high concentration of ozone (O3) in relation to other parts of the atmosphere.
  • The ozone layer in the stratosphere is affected by the increase in the atmospheric concentration of CFC (chlorofluorocarbons).
  • In the atmosphere, CFCs drift slowly upward to the stratosphere, where they are broken up by ultraviolet radiation, releasing chlorine atoms, which can destroy ozone molecules.
  • CFCs are the main reason for the Ozone hole.
  • The other reasons for ozone depletion are a wide range of industrial and consumer applications, mainly refrigerators, air conditioners (hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), and fire extinguishers.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 15

The study of unemployment is the subject matter of which one of the following Economics?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 15

The correct answer is Macro Economics.

Key Points

  • Macroeconomics is a branch of economics that examines the behavior, performance, and structure of an economy as a whole.
  • It focuses on aggregate variables such as gross domestic product (GDP), inflation, unemployment, and economic growth. Unemployment, being a macroeconomic phenomenon, is a key area of study in macroeconomics.
  • Macroeconomists analyze the causes, consequences, and policies related to unemployment to understand its impact on the overall functioning of an economy.

Additional Information

  • Microeconomics: Microeconomics focuses on the behavior of individual economic agents, such as households, firms, and markets. Within microeconomics, the study of unemployment focuses on the individual decision-making processes related to labor supply and demand. Microeconomists analyze factors such as wage determination, labor market conditions, job search behavior, and the impact of unemployment on individual households and firms.
  • Descriptive Economics: Descriptive economics refers to the objective description and analysis of economic phenomena without making value judgments or policy recommendations. It involves observing and explaining economic facts, trends, and relationships using data and statistical analysis. Descriptive economics can be used in both macroeconomic and microeconomic studies of unemployment to present the current state of unemployment, its trends, and its distribution across various groups.
  • Normative Economics: Normative economics involves making value judgments and policy recommendations based on subjective opinions and ethical considerations. It focuses on what ought to be rather than what is. In the context of unemployment, normative economics would analyze different policy options and their potential impact on reducing unemployment, promoting job creation, or improving the overall welfare of individuals affected by unemployment.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 16

What happens to the electropositive character of elements on moving from left to right in a periodic table?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 16

The answer is Decreases

Key Points

  • Periodic Trend: This term refers to the predictable change in a particular characteristic of elements as you move across the periodic table. Electropositive character is one such trend.
  • Atomic Radius: This represents the size of an atom. As you move from left to right in a period, the atomic radius decreases, contributing to increasing nuclear charge that holds electrons more tightly and decreases electropositivity.
  • Ionization Energy: Ionization energy is the energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion. This energy generally increases from left to right across a period due to increasing nuclear charge, which makes it harder for atoms to lose electrons, resulting in a decrease in electropositive character.

Explanation:

  • The electropositive character of elements decreases as we move from left to right across a period in the periodic table.
  • Electropositivity is the ability of an atom to lose electrons and form positive ions.
  • This property is characteristic of metals, which are found on the left side of the periodic table.
  • The alkali metals in group one of the periodic table are the most electropositive elements.
  • As we move from left to right across a period, the number of protons in the nucleus increases, leading to a stronger attraction between the negatively charged electrons and positively charged nucleus; thus, atoms become less willing to lose their electrons.
  • Simply put, the electropositive character decreases.

Conclusion:

So, the electropositive character of elements on moving from left to right in a periodic table Decreases

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 17

Karagam Folk Dance is associated with which state?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 17

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Karagam is a popular folk dance in Tamil Nadu, a state in southern India.
  • The dance is performed in praise of the rain goddess Mari Amman and the river goddess Gangai Amman, as a part of rituals during the month of Aadi.
  • Karagam is traditionally performed using a pot filled with uncooked rice, topped with a coconut and surrounded by a garland, all of which are balanced on the dancers' heads.
  • Initially, the dance was performed only with the accompaniment of the Naiyandi Melam, but now it also includes songs.
  • Over time, the Karagam dance has evolved into two types
    • Aatta Karagam is performed on stage with decorated pots and it involves acrobatic feats
    • Sakthi Karagam is mainly performed in temples as a spiritual offering.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 18

What is the name of the 3D-printed rocket engine that NASA successfully tested?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 18

The correct answer is ​Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine.
In News
On December 20, 2023, NASA announced the successful test of a 3D-printed engine called Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine, or RDRE.
Key Points

  • NASA is an agency that frequently conducts research, tests, and develops new space engines and vehicles.
  • The engine in question represents an innovative system of propulsion, specifically designed for use in space missions.
  • It's known as the Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine, or RDRE, highlighting its unique mechanism.
  • The RDRE was subjected to a 'hot fire test' for 251 seconds, generating more than 5800 pounds of thrust.
  • Given these facts, the Rotating Detonation Rocket Engine is the correct answer (Option D).
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 19

Gautamiputra Satakarni is considered the greatest king of the Satavahana dynasty. Who was his immediate successor from the following options?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 19

The correct answer is Vasisthiputra Sri Pulamavi.

Key Points

  • Gautamiputra Satakarni
    • He is considered the greatest king of the Satavahana dynasty.
    • It is believed that at one stage, the Satavahanas were dispossessed of their dominions in the upper Deccan and western India.
    • The fortunes of the Satavahanas were restored by Gautamiputra Satkarni.
    • He called himself the only Brahmana who defeated the Shakas and destroyed many Kshatriya rulers.
    • He is believed to have destroyed the Kshaharata lineage to which his adversary Nahapana belonged.
    • More than 800 silver coins of Nahapana (found near Nasik) bear marks of being restruck by the Satavahana king.
    • Nahapana was an important king of the Western Satraps.
    • His kingdom ran from Krishna in the south to Malwa and Saurashtra in the north and from Berar in the east to the Konkan in the west.
    • He was given the titles of Rajaraja and Maharaja. He donated land to the Buddhist monks.
    • His mother was Gautami Balasri and his name was Gautamiputra (son of Gautami).
    • His son Vasisthiputra Sri Pulamavi/Pulumavi or Pulamavi II succeeded him.

Additional Information

  • Satavahana Dynasty
    • The term “Satvahana” originated from the Prakrit which means ”driven by seven” which is an implication of the Sun God’s chariot that is caused by seven horses as per Hindu mythology.
    • The first king of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka.
    • The Satavahana kingdom majorly comprised present Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana. At times, their rule also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh.
    • The Satavahans were Brahmanas and worshipped gods like Vasudeva Krishna.
    • The Satavahans kings used matronyms like Gautamiputra and Vaishishthiputra, although they were not matriarchal or matrilineal in any sense.
    • He assumed the title of Dakshinapatha Pati (Lord of Dakshinapatha).
    • The Satavahanas are known for starting the practice of giving royal grants of land to Brahmans and Buddhist monks.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 20

In September 2023, UN World Food Programme and Which IIT has signed MoU for contributing towards improving food security, nutrition, climate resilience & livelihoods?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 20

The correct answer is IIT Bombay.
In News
UN World Food Programme and the IIT Bombay have signed a MoU
Key Points

  • United Nations World Food Programme (WFP) and the Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay have signed a Memorandum of Understanding(MoU) for contributing towards improving food security, nutrition, climate resilience and livelihoods.
  • WFP and IIT will work together to establish a comprehensive knowledge management system.
  • It will involve identifying and analysing relevant data, research and evidence generation related to food and nutrition security.
  • This partnership will also focus on ecosystem development for technology and innovations to bolster government food safety net programs.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 21

The Fifth five-year plan of India, was focused on:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 21

The correct answer is Poverty removal.

Key Points

  • ​The Fifth Five-year Plan emphasized the ‘removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance.
  • The fifth Five Year Plan duration was 1974 to 1978. This plan focussed on Garibi Hatao, employment, justice, agricultural production, and defense.
  • This plan was terminated in 1978 by the newly elected Moraji Desai government.
  • The Electricity Supply Act was amended in 1975, a Twenty-point program was launched in 1975, the Minimum Needs Programme (MNP), and the Indian National Highway System was introduced.

Additional Information

  • Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950 and the plan era started from 1 April 1951 with the launching of the First Five Year Plan (1951-56).
  • The term economic planning is used to describe the long-term plans of the government of India to develop and coordinate the economy with the efficient utilization of resources.
  • Economic planning in India started after independence, in the year 1950 when it was deemed necessary for the economic growth and development of the nation.
  • The first eight five-year plans in India emphasized growing the public sector with huge investments in heavy and basic industries, but since the launch of the Ninth five-year plan in 1997, attention has shifted towards making the government a growth facilitator.
  • The basic objective of the Eleventh Five-Year Plan is rapid and inclusive growth.
  • It also emphasizes empowerment through education and skill development, reduction of gender inequality, environmental sustainability and increase the growth rate in agriculture, industry, and services to 4%,10%, and 9% resp. Provide clean drinking water for all by 2009.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 22

A particle is performing a uniform circular motion. Which is the WRONG statement regarding its motion?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 22

The correct answer is The acceleration vector is tangential to the circle
Key Points

  • Uniform motion is the type of motion where a moving object traces equal distances in equal intervals of time.
    • ​Since the distance and time intervals are the same, speed is constant in uniform motion.
  • Uniform circular motion is where a moving object traces a circular path with constant speed.
    • ​A circle is assumed to be a polygon with infinitely many sides such that each side approximates a point.
    • So, if the object moving on a circular path undergoes a change in direction at every point.
    • Since direction changes and speed remains constant, velocity is varying.
    • The acceleration vector is not tangential but is directed toward the center of the circle. This is also known as centripetal acceleration.
    • The velocity and acceleration vectors are indeed perpendicular to each other in a uniform circular motion.
    • The velocity vector is tangential to the circle in a uniform circular motion.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 23
Which of the following strokes in swimming does NOT start with a dive into the pool from outside?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 23

The correct answer is Backstroke.

Key Points

  • Backstroke
    • The stroke in swimming that does NOT start with a dive into the pool from outside is Backstroke.
    • One of the four swimming strokes used in competitive events governed by FINA is the backstroke or back crawl, which is the only one swum on the back.
    • The benefit of easy breathing comes at the expense of swimmers being unable to see where they are going when swimming in this manner.
    • In contrast to the other three competition swimming styles, it also has a different start.
    • Backstroke is the second style swum in the individual medley, although it is the first style swum in the medley relay.

Additional Information

  • Butterfly Stroke
    • The butterfly is a swimming stroke performed on the chest with the hips and both arms moving symmetrically. The butterfly kick, also referred to as the "dolphin kick," is also used.
    • While novices can swim competently in other strokes like the backstroke, front crawl, or breaststroke, the butterfly is a more challenging type that calls for both solid technique and strong muscles.
  • Breaststroke
    • The swimming stroke known as "breaststroke" is one in which the torso does not rotate, and the swimmer is on their chest.
    • Because it can safely swim at slow rates and the swimmer's head is out of the water for a significant percentage of the swim, it is the most popular leisure technique.
  • Freestyle
    • The International Swimming Federation (FINA) has established the category of swimming competition known as "freestyle," where participants are restricted to a few modest restrictions on their swimming stroke.
    • The majority of swimming contests are freestyle races, which range in length from 50 metres (55 yards) to 1,500 metres (1,600 yards), or the mile. Since front crawl is the fastest surface swimming stroke, the word "freestyle stroke" is occasionally used as a synonym for "front crawl." Today, it is the stroke that is most frequently utilised in freestyle contests.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 24

Which of the following lake is an example of 'Crater Lake'?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 24

The correct answer is Lonar Lake.
Key Points
Lake:

  • A lake is a body of water encircled by land developed in the hollow of the land.
  • Lakes can arise naturally or through man-made.

Explanation
Crater Lake:

  • A body of water contained within a nearly circular, steep-sided volcanic crater or caldera.

Lonar lake:

  • Lonar Lake is located in the Maharashtra district of Buldhana.
  • During the Pleistocene Epoch, a meteorite impact formed Lonar lake.
  • It's considered a crater lake.
  • It is the world's third natural saltwater lake.

Thus, Lonar lake is an example of 'Crater Lake.
Additional Information
Nainital:

  • Nainital Lake is a natural freshwater body in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
  • It has tectonic origins.

Tso Moriri:

  • Tso Moriri, also known as Lake Moriri, is a lake in Ladakh's Changthang Plateau.
  • It is the world's highest Ramsar site.

Asthamudi Lake:

  • Ashtamudi Lake is located in the Kollam District of Kerala, India.
  • The lake is also known as the "Gateway to Kerala's Backwaters."
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 25

What is the name of the mission aiming to launch the world's first wooden satellite into orbit?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 25

The correct answer is LignoSat.
In News
NASA
and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) are set to launch the world's first wooden satellite into orbit.

Key Points

  • The mission aiming to launch the world's first wooden satellite into orbit is called the LignoSat Mission.
  • It is a collaborative project between NASA and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
  • The satellite, named after the Latin word for wood, will be constructed primarily from treated Japanese magnolia wood.
  • The LignoSat Mission aims to address the growing issue of space debris by utilizing a renewable and biodegradable material for spacecraft construction.
  • The satellite will carry out experiments to test wood's performance in space and gather data on its potential applications in future spacecraft.
  • This innovative approach highlights the significance of sustainability and environmental consciousness in space exploration.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 26

Who won the Italian Junior Singles title with a victory over Ananya Agrawal?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 26

The correct answer is Raksha Kandasamy
In News

  • Raksha Kandasamy won the Italian Junior Singles title with a victory over Ananya Agrawal.

Key Points

  • Raksha Kandasamy, an Indian shuttler, won the Italian Junior singles title by defeating Ananya Agrawal in the final with a score of 21-14, 21-12.
  • The tournament took place in Milan, Italy from February 23-25.
  • Raksha had a flawless performance throughout the competition, not dropping a single game from the round of 64 to lift the title.
  • In the semifinal, Raksha defeated Indian player Prakriti Bharat with a score of 21-10, 21-8.
  • In the quarterfinals, Raksha defeated Slovenia’s Anja Blazina with a score of 21-9, 21-14.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 27

Which of the following shortcut key is used add a new blank slide to an existing presentation of MS-PowerPoint 365?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 27

The correct answer is CTRL + M.
Key Points

  • PowerPoint is a Microsoft software used to create presentations.
  • CTRL + N is used to create a new presentation.
  • CTRL + M is used to insert a new slide.
  • CTRL + D is used to duplicate the slide.
  • CTRL + K is used to insert a link.

Additional Information
Other important MS PowerPoint shortcuts:

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 28

Sam wants to share his presentation with larger audience via emails. Which feature of MS PowerPoint 365 can he use for it?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 28

The correct answer is Share.
Key Points

  • Collaboration and Accessibility: The "Share" feature in MS PowerPoint 365 allows Sam to collaborate with others and make the presentation accessible to a wider audience. He can easily share the presentation with multiple people, enabling them to view and collaborate on the same document simultaneously.
  • Email Sharing: Within the "Share" feature, Sam can select the option to share the presentation via email. This allows him to send the presentation directly to the intended recipients' email addresses.
  • Recipient Permissions: MS PowerPoint 365 provides options for specifying the level of permissions for recipients. Sam can choose whether recipients can simply view the presentation or have editing capabilities, depending on his requirements.
  • Real-Time Updates: When Sam shares the presentation via email using MS PowerPoint 365, recipients can access and view the latest version of the presentation in real-time. Any changes made by Sam or other collaborators will be reflected immediately for all recipients.
  • Collaboration Tools: The "Share" feature also includes collaboration tools that enable recipients to add comments, suggest edits, or make revisions directly within the presentation. This facilitates effective collaboration and feedback exchange among the larger audience.
  • OneDrive Integration: MS PowerPoint 365 integrates with OneDrive, Microsoft's cloud storage service. When Sam shares the presentation via email, he can choose to store the file on OneDrive and provide recipients with a link to access it. This ensures that everyone has access to the most up-to-date version of the presentation.
  • Security and Privacy: The "Share" feature in MS PowerPoint 365 includes various security measures to protect the presentation and ensure privacy. Sam can control who has access to the presentation, and he can also set passwords or expiration dates for the shared link to enhance security.
  • Version History: MS PowerPoint 365 keeps a version history of the shared presentation. This means that Sam can easily revert to previous versions if needed or track the changes made by collaborators.
  • Outlook Integration: If Sam uses Microsoft Outlook as his email client, the "Share" feature seamlessly integrates with it. He can share the presentation directly from within PowerPoint 365, leveraging the familiar email interface of Outlook.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 29
Which among the following (Provision - Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 29

The correct answer is Tribunals - Part XI.

Key Points

  • Official Language - Part XVII: It includes provisions related to the use of Hindi as the official language of the Indian government, along with the promotion and development of the Hindi language.
  • The Union Territories - Part VIII: It contains provisions related to the administration and governance of Union territories, including the appointment of administrators and the powers and functions of the Union territory governments.
  • The Scheduled and Tribal Areas - Part X: It includes provisions for the protection, welfare, and development of Scheduled Tribes (indigenous communities) and their areas in India. It grants certain safeguards and rights to these communities.
  • Tribunals - Part XIVA of the Indian Constitution, specifically Articles 323A and 323B, deals with Administrative Tribunals and Tribunals for other matters respectively. These articles establish tribunals for the adjudication of disputes and matters relating to specific subjects.
  • Part XI of the Indian Constitution is titled "Relations between the Union and the States." It consists of Articles 245 to 263 and deals with various aspects of the relationship between the central government (Union) and the state governments.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 30

______ are present only in plant cells.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 4 - Question 30

The correct answer is Option D.
Key Points

  • Plastids are membrane-bound organelles found only in plant cells and some algae.
  • They are involved in various cellular functions and are responsible for several important processes in plants, such as photosynthesis, storage of pigments, and synthesis of essential compounds.
  • Mitochondria, nucleus, and Golgi apparatus are present in both plant and animal cells.
    • Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell and are responsible for energy production.
    • The nucleus is the control center of the cell, containing the genetic material.
    • The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for transportation within the cell or for secretion outside the cell.

Additional Information

  • A plant cell is a eukaryotic cell found in plants.
  • It has a rigid cell wall made of cellulose and contains chloroplasts for photosynthesis.
  • Plant cells have a large central vacuole for storage and maintaining cell rigidity.
  • They also have a nucleus, various organelles, and plasmodesmata for cell communication.
  • Plant cells are specialized for photosynthesis and have unique structures to carry out this process.
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