Bank Exams Exam  >  Bank Exams Tests  >  English Language Test - 4 - Bank Exams MCQ

English Language Test - 4 - Bank Exams MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test - English Language Test - 4

English Language Test - 4 for Bank Exams 2024 is part of Bank Exams preparation. The English Language Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Bank Exams exam syllabus.The English Language Test - 4 MCQs are made for Bank Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for English Language Test - 4 below.
Solutions of English Language Test - 4 questions in English are available as part of our course for Bank Exams & English Language Test - 4 solutions in Hindi for Bank Exams course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Bank Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt English Language Test - 4 | 30 questions in 20 minutes | Mock test for Bank Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for Bank Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
English Language Test - 4 - Question 1

A sentence/ a part of sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.

Protein are required to build, maintain, and restore blood, muscle, bones, and skin, and organs in the body.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is 'is required​'.
Key Points

  • The error is in the usage of 'are' in the underlined part.
  • The sentence talks about protein and how it helps our body.
  • The correct word for the underlined part must be 'is' which is used for present tense and singular nouns. In the sentence, 'protein' is mentioned which is singular so the verb used must also be singular.
  • 'are' must be replaced with 'is'.

Thus the correct sentence is - Protein is required to build, maintain, and restore blood, muscle, bones, and skin, and organs in the body.
Important Points

  • 'are' is used for present tense and plural nouns.
  • 'required' is used for past tense.
  • 'required by body' is in passive form but the sentence is in active form.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 2

In the following question, parts of a sentence have been jumbled and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly by selecting the correct option.
P. literature exists so that / Q. afterward live finely too / R. ten thousand others may / S. where a man has lived finely

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 2

The correct answer is PSRQ.
Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
  • P is the first fragment because it introduces the subject 'literature'.
  • S should be put after P because P ends with “so that” which is a conjunction of the subordinate clause and connects with S.
  • R follows S contextually.
  • Q has “too”, which makes it an additional statement connecting with R.
  • Thus, the correct order is PSRQ.

Correct sentence: “Literature exists so that where a man has lived finely ten thousand others may afterward live finely too.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
English Language Test - 4 - Question 3

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

AGAINST

A. They against new clothes for the children in the orphanage.

B. We played cricket against a school from another district.

C. Take these pills as a precaution against malaria.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 3

The correct answer is '​Both B and C.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Against' as a preposition means Being an opponent to somebody or something in a game, competition, etc.
  • The word 'Against' as a preposition means To protect yourself from somebody or something.
    • In sentence A, the word 'Against' is inappropriately used and doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
    • In sentence B, the word 'Against' has been correctly used as a preposition as the sentence is talking about playing cricket being an opponent of a school from another district.
    • In sentence C, the word 'Against' has been correctly used as a preposition as the sentence is talking about taking pills as a precaution to get protected from Malaria.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 4

Which of these is the correct meaning of 'endorse'?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 4
  • Endorse means declare one's public approval or support of.
  • Eg- The decision was not endorsed by our country.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 5

Which of these values are not shown by the UN while supporting democracy?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 5
  • The following is stated in the passage: "The UN supports democracy by promoting human rights, development, and peace and security."
  • Clearly, option 1 is not mentioned.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 6

How does the UN help nations who have undergone conflicts?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 6
  • The following is stated in the passage: "The UN promotes good governance, monitors elections, supports the civil society to strengthen democratic institutions and accountability, ensures self-determination in decolonized countries, and assists in the drafting of new constitutions in post-conflict nations."
  • Clearly, only option 2 is correct.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 7

What does 'We the peoples' signify for the UN?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 7
  • The following is stated in the passage: "Yet, the opening words of the Charter, “We the Peoples”, reflect the fundamental principle of democracy - that the will of the people is the source of legitimacy of sovereign states and, therefore, of the United Nations as a whole."
  • Option 3 is the most appropriate answer.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 8

Which government is advocated by the United Nations?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 8
  • The following is stated in the passage: "The UN does not advocate for a specific model of government"
  • Clearly, none of these models are advocated by UN.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 9

Which of these is the correct description of democracy?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 9
  • The following is stated in the passage: "People have a say in decisions and can hold decision-makers to account. Women and men have equal rights and all people are free from discrimination."
  • No other option is correct.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 10

Which of these is the most appropriate theme of the passage?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 10
  • The passage discusses the UN and how it promotes and supports democracy. It has stated various instances to prove its support of democracy.
  • No other option describes the theme appropriately.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 11

Replace the underlined word/phrase with an alternative to make a grammatically correct sentence.

"The ladder will be collapse if you push the wall with both the hands.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 11

Key Points

  • The Correct phrase will be "will collapse".
  • The sentence is in active form.
  • The correct active form of future tense is Sub + will/shall + base form of a verb (V1)......
  • Passive form is Sub + will/shall + be + third form of a verb (V3)......
  • Future Tense Correction: The correction involves selecting the future simple tense to convey the action's potential occurrence upon fulfilling a condition (pushing the wall with both hands).

Therefore, the correct answer is- The ladder will collapse if you push the wall with both the hands.
Additional Information

  • Option (1) "will have collapsed" suggests the action will be completed in the future past the immediate action, which is not the implied meaning.
  • Option (2) "will have been collapsing" introduces a progressive aspect that unnecessarily complicates the simple cause-and-effect statement.
  • Option (3) "No change" retains the incorrect formation "will be collapse," which is grammatically incorrect.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 12

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

Agni, the flagship indigenous artillery missile, appear to be governed even before its induction and deployment in the field.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 12

Key Points

  • The given phrase is: 'appear to be'
  • The correct phrase should be 'appears to be' as the sentence is in 'Present Indefinite Tense'.
  • According to the rule, Plural verb is used with Singular subject.
  • The subject of the sentence 'Agni' is 'Singular' here. So, 'Plural verb' should be used instead of 'Singular'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: 'appears to be'.

Correct sentence: Agni, the flagship indigenous artillery missile, appears to be governed even before its induction and deployment in the field.

Additional Information

  • 'appeared to be' is not appropriate use here.
  • 'appearing to be' is not appropriate use here.
  • 'has appeared to be' is not appropriate use here.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 13

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

This is exactly what she wanted me to solve the problem.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 13

Key Points

  • The given phrase is: 'what she wanted me'.
  • The given sentence speaks about how a problem solved and not what solved.
  • So, replacing 'what she wanted me' with 'how she wanted me' will make the sentence correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'how she wanted me'.
Correct sentence:
This is exactly how she wanted me to solve the problem.
Additional Information

  • 'how does she want me' is not correct here.
  • 'what she wants from I' is not correct here.
  • 'how did she want me' is not correct here.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 14

The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

I want to go to a place where I can settle with my family and feel we truly _____ to the community.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 14

Key Points

  • belong - have the right personal or social qualities to be a member of a particular group.

The sentence should be read as :​I want to go to a place where I can settle with my family and feel we truly belong to the community.
Additional Information
Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

  • diverged - (of a road, route, or line) separate from another route and go in a different direction.
  • detached - separate or disconnected.
  • join - become linked or connected to.
  • belonging - an affinity for a place or situation.

Confusion Points

  • Belonging is a noun meaning the things that belong to an individual.
  • From the meanings it is clear that belonging is inappropriate for the given blank.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 15

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.
Flutter
A. The sudden flutter of wings in the dark startled the hikers.
B. The news of the singer's arrival in town created a flutter of excitement among fans.
C. She managed to secure a flutter in the competitive real estate market with her innovative marketing strategies

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 15

Key Points

  • The word "flutter" refers to a quick, light movement or to move in such a manner. It can describe the rapid motion of wings or even a state of excitement or agitation. (फड़फड़ाहट)
    • Example: The bird's wings fluttered rapidly as it hovered above the flowers.
  • In sentence A, "flutter of wings" correctly uses the word to describe the rapid movement of wings, fitting the definition. (फड़फड़ाहट)
    • Example: As we entered the cave, the sudden flutter of bats' wings echoed eerily in the dark.
  • In sentence B, "flutter of excitement" metaphorically uses the word to describe a state of excited agitation among fans, which is a valid use of the term in a figurative sense. (उत्तेजना की फड़फड़ाहट)
    • Example: The flutter of excitement in the crowd grew as the celebrity took the stage.
  • Sentence C incorrectly suggests that the word "flutter" is best used to describe a situation in the real estate market, which doesn't fit the conventional meanings of flutter. (फड़फड़ाहट)
  • Hence, sentences A and B accurately convey the meaning of "flutter," making the correct answer Both A & B.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Both A & B.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 16

Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The price of (A) production in the (B) industrial sector (C) has gone up. (D)

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 16
  • 'cost' should be there in place of 'price'
  • Singular nouns are followed by singular verbs and plural nouns are followed by plural verbs.
  • A singular noun names one person. place. thing. or idea. while a plural noun names more than one person. place. thing, or idea.
  • Nouns like price and cost are often confused. Price denotes the amount paid by the customer, cost denotes the amount paid by the manufacturer/shopkeeper.

E.g. She pays the price for my assistance.
That must have cost you a pretty penny.
The correct sentence is: The cost of production in the industrial sector has gone up.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 17

Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Unlike Indian laws, US laws provides (A) for a contingency fee of lawyering (B) where the costs of litigation (C) are borne by lawyers. (D)

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 17

Key Points

  • 'provide' should be there in place of 'provides'
  • Singular nouns are followed by singular verbs and plural nouns are followed by plural verbs.
  • A singular noun names one person. place. thing. or idea. while a plural noun names more than one person. place. thing, or idea.
  • The usage of the verb singular ‘provides’ is erroneous and needs to be replaced with the plural form of the verb ‘provide’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
  • According to the subject-verb agreement, if the subject is singular then it is followed by a singular verb and if the subject is plural it is followed by a plural verb. Here the subject is ‘US laws’ which is plural and hence is followed by a plural verb.

E.g. The dog chases the cat.
The dogs chase the cat.
The correct sentence is: Unlike Indian laws, US laws provide for a contingency fee of lawyering, where the costs of litigation are borne by lawyers.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 18

A sentence/part of the sentence is emboldened. Five alternatives are given to the emboldened part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and choose the option corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to 'No improvement required'.

The coast, once teeming along traffic, is now lonely and deserted.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 18

Key Points

  • The phrase "teeming along" is incorrect.
  • The correct phrase is "teeming with", which means full of or swarming with.
  • Therefore, the correct usage should be "teeming with traffic".

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct sentence: The coast, once teeming with traffic, is now lonely and deserted.
Additional Information

  • The word "teeming" is often used with "with" to describe a place that is full of or swarming with something.
    • For example, "The river was teeming with fish" means the river was full of fish.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 19

A sentence/part of the sentence is emboldened. Five alternatives are given to the emboldened part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and choose the option corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to 'No improvement required'.

Ms. Paul herself noted is appreciating dyslexia as a gift is unhelpful at best and patronizing at worst.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 19

Key Points

  • "Herself noted that" ensures that the sentence maintains grammatical cohesion and clarity.
  • The use of "that" correctly introduces the clause which clarifies what Ms. Paul is noting.
  • The construction respects the subject-verb agreement and creates a seamless connection between the action and the subject.

Therefore, the correct answer is Herself noted that.
Correct Sentence: Ms. Paul herself noted that appreciating dyslexia as a gift is unhelpful at best and patronizing at worst.
Additional Information

  • Herself noticed is: This option is grammatically incorrect as "noticed is" does not properly connect or convey the intended meaning.
  • Herself will note: This option implies future action, which is inconsistent with the context implying a past occurrence.
  • Herself noted which: This option is incorrect because "which" typically introduces non-restrictive clauses and does not fit the context here.
  • No correction required: The original sentence is grammatically incorrect and does not have the right logical flow; hence, it requires correction.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 20

A sentence/part of the sentence is emboldened. Five alternatives are given to the emboldened part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and choose the option corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to 'No improvement required'.

Folengo’s next production was the Orlandino, an Italian poem of eight cantos, writing in rhymed octaves.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 20

Key Points

  • The original sentence has a grammatical error: "writing in rhymed octaves" is not correct because it does not properly describe the completed state of the poem.
  • The correct answer needs to use the past participle "written" to accurately describe the form of the poem.
  • "Written in rhymed octaves" properly conveys that the poem has already been composed in a specific metric form.
  • The verb tense must match the context of the sentence, which speaks about a past production.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.
Corrected Sentence: Folengo’s next production was the Orlandino, an Italian poem of eight cantos, written in rhymed octaves.
Additional Information

  • Wrote in rhyming: This option uses the past tense "wrote," but it incorrectly pairs it with "in rhyming," which is not idiomatic for this context.
  • Will be written in rhyming: This option changes the tense to future, which is incorrect for a past production.
  • Write in rhyming: This option uses the base form "write," which is incorrect in this context and also pairs it with the non-idiomatic "in rhyming."
  • No correction required: The original sentence is grammatically incorrect, so this option is not suitable.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 21

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number A.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 21

Key Points

  • The given sentence "Gaming, in the modern context, largely refers to the activity of playing ______ (1)" is talking about gaming in the context of modern digital era. The most common form of digital or modern gaming is through video games - played on computers, gaming consoles, or portable devices.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is 'Video games.'
  • The term 'Video games' refers to electronic games that involve interaction with a user interface to generate visual feedback on a video device.
    • Example: The kids were enthralled by the new video games they received for Christmas.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
The complete passage is: "Gaming, in the modern context, largely refers to the activity of playing video games. These games, which evolved significantly since their conception in the mid-20th century, have grown into a diverse industry with various platforms ranging from consoles and personal computers to handheld devices and mobile phones..."
Additional Information
Let us explore the other options:

  • 'Board games' mean games that involve counters or pieces moved or placed on a pre-marked surface or 'board', according to a set of rules.
  • 'Outdoor games' refer to games that are played outdoors, often requiring physical activity.
  • 'Card games' mean any game using playing cards as the primary device with which the game is played.
  • 'Indoor games' refer to games that are played inside a building or house, such as chess, table tennis etc.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 22

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number B.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 22

Key Points

  • The given sentence "These games, which evolved significantly since their conception in the mid-20th century, have grown into a ______ industry with various platforms ranging from consoles and personal computers..." is discussing the nature of the gaming industry. To describe the variety and breadth of the gaming industry, 'diverse' is a suitable word.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill the blank is 'Diverse.'
  • The term 'Diverse' refers to the variety or multiplicity within a particular domain or field.
    • Example: The modern music industry is quite diverse, with genres ranging from pop and rock to country and electronic music.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
The complete passage would read: "...These games, which evolved significantly since their conception in the mid-20th century, have grown into a diverse industry with various platforms ranging from consoles and personal computers to handheld devices and mobile phones..."
Additional Information

  • 'Uniform': This term indicates similarity or a lack of diversity, which is opposite to what is being conveyed in the passage.
  • 'Homogenous': This means made up of the same kind or nature, lacking variety or diversity.
  • 'Monotonous': This indicates a lack of variety and interest, dull and repetitive, which is inconsistent with the context of the sentence.
  • 'Similar': This means having resemblance but does not necessarily imply variety or diversity. A similar industry could imply games from just a couple of genres that are alike, without offering a wide range.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 23

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number C.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 23

Key Points

  • The given sentence "The ______ nature of gaming allows for unique narratives and experiences, often characterized by complex rule systems, virtual landscapes, and dynamic content." discusses the nature of gaming, which allows for unique narratives and experiences. Given the context, 'Interactive' is a suitable word.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill the blank is 'Interactive.'
  • The term 'Interactive' refers to the two-way flow of information between the gamer and the game, particularly on digital devices.
    • Example: Modern educational institutions are opting for interactive learning methodologies to keep students engaged and involved throughout the learning process.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
The complete passage would read: "The interactive nature of gaming allows for unique narratives and experiences, often characterized by complex rule systems, virtual landscapes, and dynamic content..."
Additional Information

  • 'Passive': This term indicates a one-way flow of information without any input or action from the receiver. This contradicts the nature of modern gaming.
  • 'Static': This suggests a non-changing or unvarying condition, which is not suitable for the dynamic nature of interactive gaming.
  • 'Nonreactive': This implies the inability or unwillingness to react or respond, which does not fit the context.
  • 'Inactive': This indicates a lack of activity or operation. Inactive gaming does not make sense as gaming is an active process that involves player participation.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 24

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number D.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 24

Key Points

  • The given sentence "Video games cover a spectrum of genres including action, adventure, sports, puzzle, and ______ (4)..." is discussing different genres of video games. 'Role-playing games' is a popular genre.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate term to fill up the blank is 'Role-playing games'.
  • 'Role-playing games' or RPGs are a genre of video game where the player controls the actions of a character immersed in some well-defined world.
    • Example: "World of Warcraft" and "Final Fantasy" are popular examples of role-playing games.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
The complete passage is: "....Video games cover a spectrum of genres including action, adventure, sports, puzzle, and role-playing games, providing diverse experiences to a broad audience. They are not only a form of entertainment but also a medium for storytelling, art, and even education..."

Additional Information
Let us explore the other options:

  • 'Vehicles simulation' can be part of a genre of gaming, but it is not the main genre, unlike RPGs.
  • 'Reality shows' and 'News and Investigation' are types of television genres, not game genres.
  • 'Documentaries' reflect a genre in filmmaking, not gaming.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 25

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number E.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 25

Key Points

  • The given sentence "The competitive aspect of gaming, known as ______ (5), has gained global recognition, with professional gamers participating in tournaments worldwide." refers to the competitive facet of the gaming industry.
  • 'Esports' refers to professional, competitive gaming and has gained immense popularity and recognition over the years.
  • Therefore, 'Esports' is the most appropriate term to fill in the blank.
  • 'Esports' refers to electronic sports, the professional and competitive layer of gaming where players compete against each other at a competitive level in certain video games.
    • Example: He is aspiring to become a professional Esports athlete.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
The complete passage is:
"...The competitive aspect of gaming, known as Esports, has gained global recognition, with professional gamers participating in tournaments worldwide."
Additional Information
Let us explore the other options:

  • 'Sports competition' generally refers to physical sporting events, not digital or electronic ones.
  • 'Digital rally' doesn't specifically pertain to competitive gaming.
  • 'Game battle' may refer to a specific event or match within an esports context but is not synonymous with the entire domain of competitive gaming.
  • 'Online contests' are often casual competitions that don't necessarily include the professional and competitive scope that 'Esports' does.
English Language Test - 4 - Question 26

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.
Urbanisation

A. The rapid urbanisation of countryside villages has led to the loss of agricultural land.
B. Urbanisation has boosted economic development by creating more job opportunities.
C. After the urbanisation of the building, it was transformed into a vibrant city centre.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 26

Key Points
To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word given in the question:

  • Urbanisation: the process of making an area more urban; the increase in the proportion of people living in towns and cities. (शहरीकरण)
  • Now, let's examine the given sentences:
  • Sentence A: The rapid urbanisation of countryside villages has led to the loss of agricultural land.
    • This sentence correctly uses the word "urbanisation" to describe the transformation of countryside villages into urban areas, resulting in the loss of agricultural land.
  • Sentence B: Urbanisation has boosted economic development by creating more job opportunities.
    • This sentence also correctly uses the word "urbanisation" to describe the process of urban growth that has led to increased economic development and job creation.
  • Sentence C: After the urbanisation of the building, it was transformed into a vibrant city centre.
    • This sentence does not correctly use the word "urbanisation" because urbanisation refers to the process of making an area more urban, not the transformation of a single building.

So, both sentences A and B correctly use the word "urbanisation" to describe the process of making an area more urban.
Therefore, the correct answer is Both A & B.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 27

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.
”Ephemera”

A. The collection included stamps, postcards, and other ephemera from the early 20th century.
B. Due to its inherent durability, granite is not considered an ephemera.
C. The scholar's speech on climate change emphasized the ephemera of political will compared to the urgency of action.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 27

Key Points
To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word given in the question:

  • Ephemera: items of collectible memorabilia, typically written or printed ones, that were originally expected to have only short-term usefulness or popularity. (क्षणभंगुरता)

Now, let's examine the given sentences:

  • Sentence A: The collection included stamps, postcards, and other ephemera from the early 20th century.
    • This sentence correctly uses the word "ephemera" to describe collectible items that were originally expected to have short-term usefulness.
  • Sentence B: Due to its inherent durability, granite is not considered an ephemera.
    • This sentence also correctly uses the word "ephemera" to contrast the lasting nature of granite with the short-term nature of ephemera.
  • Sentence C: The scholar's speech on climate change emphasized the ephemera of political will compared to the urgency of action.
    • This sentence accurately uses the word "ephemera" to describe the short-lived nature of political will in contrast to the urgency of climate action.

So, all three sentences correctly use the word "ephemera" to illustrate different contexts of short-term usefulness or presence.
Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

English Language Test - 4 - Question 28

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D), are given in bold, out of which one word may or may not be misspelt. Identify the misspelt word and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are correctly spelt, mark ''All are correctly spelt'' as your answer.

Mukti had always had an ardent(A) yearning to become a successful(B) actress, so naturally, she was elated(C) at the glowing reviews of her performence(D).

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 28

Key Points
The given sentence talks about Mukti who always had a strong desire to become a successful actress and was naturally very happy at the brilliant reviews of her presentation.
Let us explore the highlighted words:

  • Ardent - Showing strong feelings, especially a strong liking for somebody or something. (उत्‍कट, जोशीला, उत्‍साही)
  • Successful - Having achieved what you wanted; having become popular, rich, etc. (सफल, अभीष्‍ट को उपलब्‍ध किए हुए; लोकप्रिय, समृद्घ आदि)
  • Elated - Very happy and excited. (अति प्रसन्‍न और उत्तेजित; प्रफुल्लित, उल्‍लासित)
  • Performence - There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
    • The ​correct spelling is 'Performance' which means The act of performing something in front of an audience; something that you perform. (दर्शकों के सामने कार्यक्रम प्रस्‍तुत करने की क्रिया; कार्यक्रम)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Correct Sentence: Mukti had always had an ardent yearning to become a successful actress, so naturally, she was elated at the glowing reviews of her performance.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 29

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D), are given in bold, out of which one word may or may not be misspelt. Identify the misspelt word and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are correctly spelt, mark ''All are correctly spelt'' as your answer.

Beethoven had afflatus(A) that allowed him to imagine(B) the music that he could not hear(C) because he was deaf(D).

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 29

Key Points
The given sentence talks about Beethoven who had an impulse of creative power that allowed him to imagine the music that he could not hear because he was deaf.
Let us explore the highlighted words:

  • Afflatus - An impulse of creative power or inspiration. (रचनात्मक शक्ति या प्रेरणा का आवेग)
  • Imagine - To form a picture or idea in your mind of what something or somebody might be like. (किसी व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के विषय में कुछ कल्‍पना करना, मन में उसका चित्र या उसके विषय में कोई धारणा बनाना)
  • Hear - To receive sounds with your ears. (सुनना)
  • Deaf - Unable to hear anything or unable to hear very well. (बहरा, बधिर, श्रवण-विकलांग)

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Correct Sentence: Beethoven had afflatus that allowed him to imagine the music that he could not hear because he was deaf.

English Language Test - 4 - Question 30

Directions: In the following sentence, four words, marked as A, B, C, and D, are given in bold, out of which one word may or may not be misspelt. Identify the misspelt word and mark it as your answer. If all the highlighted words are correctly spelt, mark "All are correctly spelt" as your answer.

Having the priviledge (A) to access (B) education is a significant advantage that runs parallel (C) to opportunities for personal (D) growth.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 4 - Question 30

Key Points
​​To answer this question, let's review the highlighted words in the sentence:
(A) Priviledge -
Here, the word "priviledge" is misspelt. The correct spelling is "privilege."

  • Privilege - a special advantage or entitlement. (विशेषाधिकार)
    • For Example -
    • Having the privilege to travel broadened her perspective immensely.

(B) Access - the ability or right to approach, enter, or make use of something. (पहुँच)

  • For Example -
  • Everyone should have access to quality healthcare.

(C) Parallel - extending in the same direction, equidistant at all points, and never meeting. (समांतर)

  • For Example -
  • The two roads run parallel to each other for miles.

(D) Personal - relating to an individual's private life, relationships, or characteristics. (निजी)

  • For Example -
  • His personal experiences shaped his worldview.

Therefore, the correct answer is "A: priviledge," which should be corrected to "privilege."

Information about English Language Test - 4 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for English Language Test - 4 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for English Language Test - 4, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for Bank Exams

Download as PDF

Top Courses for Bank Exams