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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

The selling price of x items is equal to the cost price of 32 items and profit percent is 28%. What is the value of x ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

Given:

SP of x items = CP of 32 items

Profit % = 28

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × profit%

SP = selling price

CP = cost price

Calculation:

Let CP of each item be Rs. 100a

So, CP of x item = Rs. 100xa

SP of each item = 128xa

According to the question,

x.SP = 32.CP

⇒ 128ax = 3200a

⇒ x = 3200a/128a

⇒ x = 25

So, x = 25 items

∴ The value of x is 25.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

If sin θ + cosec θ = 1 and 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90°, then find the value of θ.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

Given:

sinθ + cosecθ = 1

Concept used:

cosecθ = 1/sinθ

(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculation:

⇒ 4sin2θ + 1 = 4sinθ

⇒ 4sin2θ + 1 - 4sinθ = 0

⇒ (2sinθ)2 + 12 - 2 × 2sinθ × 1 = 0

⇒ (2sinθ - 1)2 = 0

⇒ 2sinθ - 1 = 0

⇒ 2sinθ = 1

⇒ sinθ = 1/2

⇒ sinθ = sin30°

So, θ = 30°

∴ The value of θ is 30°.

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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

Who won the 14th round of the Formula One Italian Grand Prix 2021 held at the Autodromo Nazionale Monza track in Italy?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

The correct answer is Daniel Ricciardo.
Key Points

  • The Australian-Italian Daniel Ricciardo won the 2021 Formula One Italian Grand Prix at the Autodromo Nazionale Monza track in Italy.
  • For McLaren, this marked their first victory in nine years.
  • Valtteri Bottas finished third, followed by Lando Norris in second place.
  • Lewis Hamilton and Max Verstappen collided and were eliminated from the Italian Grand Prix 2021.

Additional Information
Pierre Gasly:

  • French racing driver Pierre Gasly is presently driving for Scuderia AlphaTauri and competing in Formula One under the French flag.
  • He won his maiden Formula One race at the Italian Grand Prix in 2020 while driving for AlphaTauri .

Valtteri Bottas:

  • Currently driving for Alfa Romeo in Formula One, Valtteri Bottas is a Finnish racing driver who previously competed for Mercedes from 2017 to 2021 and Williams from 2013 to 2016.

Lando Norris:

  • Racing under the British flag, Lando Norris is a Belgian-British driver who currently competes in Formula One with McLaren.
  • The 2017 FIA Formula 3 European Championship was won by him.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

In which of the following years did the Muslim League pass a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

The correct answer is 1940.
Key Points

  • The Muslim League advocated autonomy for the areas of the subcontinent with a majority of Muslims, which were the geographically adjacent territories in the North-West and the East, in its 1940 Resolution.
  • These were to be "independent states," with full autonomy and sovereignty.
  • However, at this time, neither the concept of a formal "Pakistan" nor the ambiguity of their decision spoke to any kind of separation.
  • It ultimately led to the partition of India in 1947 by the British Empire.

Additional Information

  • All India Muslim League was founded in 1906 to safeguard the rights of Indian Muslims.
  • Founders: Aga Khan III, Hakim Ajmal Khan, Khwaja Salimullah, Waqar-ul-Mulk
  • Founded: 30 December 1906
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5

Rai is primarily a folk dance of which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.
Key Points

  • A well-known traditional dance from Bundelkhand, rai dance, is performed by men in female disguise to the accompaniment of the dholak and nagara.
  • Bediya tribes in Madhya Pradesh perform this folk dance.
  • On the occasion of a child's birth in the Vaishya community, it is also performed by the women of the Ahir tribe.

Additional Information
Some of the most important folk dances of Madhya Pradesh are:

  • Karma:
    • This indigenous folk dance belongs to the Gond and Oraon tribe of Madhya Pradesh.
    • It is Considered as the oldest of all tribal dances in the state.
    • It is performed on the onset of the spring season.
  • Jawara:
    • People of the Bundelkhand region perform this dance, to celebrate prosperity.
    • Jawara follows the reaping of a good harvest.
  • Lehangi:
    • Lehangi is a popular folk dance of the Banjara and Kanjar tribe of the Bhopal commissary of Madhya Pradesh and is performed during the blossoming monsoon period.
  • Ahiri Dance:
    • Ahiri Dance is a trademark of the cattle herders of Gwalior.
    • The communities of Gwalior who perform this dance, are considered to be the descendants of Lord Krishna.
  • Baredi:
    • Baredi is an important folk dance of the Gwalior district.
    • Staring from Diwali, the dance is performed till the day of 'Karthik Purnima'.

Important folk dances of some states:

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6

Which of the following options is the closest approximate value which will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

17.821 + 178.21 - ? = 169.93

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6

Given:

17.821 + 178.21 - ? = 169.93

Concept used:

Calculation:

17.821 + 178.21 - ? = 169.93

⇒ 18 + 178 - ? = 170

⇒ 18 + 178 - 170 = ?

⇒ 196 - 170 = ?

⇒ 26 = ?

∴ Required approximate value is 26.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7

In each of the given number-clusters, the number on the right side of '=' (the equal to sign) is calculated by performing certain mathematical operations on the four numbers on the left of = (the equal to sign). All three number-clusters follow the same pattern. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the third number-cluster

11, 8, 5, 2 = 3

19, 14, 9, 4 = 5

27, 20, 13, 6 = ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7

The logic followed here is:

  • 11, 8, 5, 2 = 3 → 11 - 8 = 5 - 2 = 3
  • 19, 14, 9, 4 = 5 → 19 - 14 = 9 - 4 = 5
  • 27, 20, 13, 6 = ? → 27 - 20 = 13 - 6 = 7

Hence, ‘7’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

Which state authorities commemorated the death anniversary of Subramania Bharathi, a firebrand poet and freedom fighter, as Mahakavi Day on 11 September 2021?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.
Key Points

  • Subramania Bharathi was a fiery poet and freedom warrior, and the Tamil Nadu government designated the anniversary of his passing as Mahakavi Day.
  • The 11th of September is Subramania Bharati's death anniversary.
  • The year 2021 marked the 100th death anniversary of the poet.
  • Subramania Bharati's works ignited patriotism and left an indelible mark on Tamil literature.

Additional Information

  • Bharati's poems and thoughts were included in the book "Manathil Urithi Vendum" (Firmness in Mind), which was published at a cost of Rs.10 crore and given to 37 lakh students.
  • The poet's works are collected in a separate section called "Bharathiyal," copies of which are available at his memorials in Ettayapuram, Triplicane, the Anna Centenary Library in Chennai, and in Madurai.
  • Bharathiyar was born in the Tuticorin area.
  • Together with the World Tamil Associations, activities with the theme "parengum Bharati" (Bharati everywhere) were organized.
  • Tamil Nadu :
    • It is a south Indian state and is famous for its Dravidian-style hindu temples.
    • Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai boasts tall, colorfully decorated structures known as "gopurams." Ramanathaswamy Temple is a holy place on Pamban Island. The colonial Fort St. George from 1644 is one of the highlights in the capital city of Chennai.
    • The Chera, Chola, and Pandya clans of the Sangam era, the Pallava dynasty, and the subsequent Vijayanagara Empire were among the various regimes that ruled Tamil Nadu.
    • Chief minister: M. K. Stalin
    • Governor: R. N. Ravi
    • Capital: Chennai
    • Founded: August 15,1947
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

A building with walls and roofs independent of any other building and with open spaces on all sides within the same plot is called a _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

The correct answer is detached building.
Key Points

  • A detached building is one that has walls and a roof that are separate from other structures and that has open space on all sides.
  • It means any building which is not physically connected to the dwelling.

Additional Information
Semi-detached building:

  • A semi-detached building is a single-family duplex home that has a common wall with the home next door.
  • Construction of semi-detached homes is done in pairs, with the layout of each home being a mirror replica of the other.

Special building:

  • A special building is any structure with a built-up area greater than 500 square meters that is used for assembly, industrial, wholesale enterprises, hotels, hostels, hazardous, mixed-use, or any of the aforementioned occupancies.

High rise building:

  • High-rise buildings, or high-rises, are multistory structures that are tall enough to call for the usage of an elevator or other mechanical system for vertical motion.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10

Simplify:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10

Given:

Calculation:

⇒ √5/3

∴ Required answer is √5/3.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11

The downhill movement of rock and soil under the direct influence of gravity is called:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11

The correct answer is Mass wasting.
Key Points
Mass wasting is the enormous downward movement of rock, soil, and debris caused by gravity. Mass wasting includes events like debris flows, slumps, and rock falls.

  • Rocks fall:
    • Rock falls happen when chunks of rock fall down a cliff. Large bricks may eventually get loosened as a result of frost wedging, falling.
    • Talus is the term for the buildup of rock fragments at the bottom of a steep slope.
  • Slump:
    • The term "slump" refers to the rotating slip of a large amount of bed rock off a high cliff. The most frequent cause of slumping is erosion at the slope's base, which lessens the support provided for underlying sediments.
  • Debris avalanche:
    • The debris avalanche is the worst kind of debris flow. It flows down steep slopes in a quickly churning mass of dirt, water, rock debris, and air. By serving as a cushion between the debris and the underlying surface, the trapped air may quicken the avalanche.

Additional Information
Mass wasting also includes rockslides, landslides, mudflow, creep etc.

  • Rockslides: Typically, a zone of weakness is followed by a rockslide. Slippage is exacerbated by water presence. Rockslides typically originate from collisions down the slope shattering the boulder mass into debris.
  • Landslides: Large rocks that break off and roll downhill cause landslides. Both really heavy rain and earthquakes frequently start it.
  • Mudflow: A mudflow is a swiftly moving liquid mass made up of soil, rock fragments, and water. They are especially frequent in semiarid highland areas.
  • Creep: Creep is the gradual and slow descent of soil. Usually, its velocity is less than one centimeter each year. The gradual movement of soil particles down the hill caused by freezing and thawing contributes to soil creep.
  • Hydraulic action:
    • The physical weathering and mechanical reaction of earth elements to flowing water in rivers and streams, breaking waves, and storm surge along shorelines is referred to as hydraulic action.
  • Solifluction:
    • It a combination of creep and flow, creates distinct sheets, terraces, and lobes of rock and debris.
    • On steeper slopes where the process has pushed loosening boulders and dirt downslope, solifluction sheets and lobes can be seen.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

FL ∶ BH ∶∶ RY ∶ NU ∶∶ GM ∶ ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12

The logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘CI’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13
India's first building made of bio-bricks from agro-waste was inaugurated at __________.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13

The correct answer is IIT - Hyderabad.

Key Points

  • IIT Hyderabad has inaugurated India’s first building made of bio-bricks from agro-waste.
  • The institute will submit a proposal to the Ministry of Agriculture to promote its wider adoption by the rural community.
  • Researchers at the IIT demonstrated that agricultural waste can be converted into sustainable materials which, in turn, can be used to build eco-friendly, cost-effective structures.

Important Points

  • ​According to the researchers, the material exhibits excellent thermal insulation and fire-retardant properties.
  • When used in roofing and wall panelling, it can effectively reduce heat gain by 5 – 6 degrees.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

The Industrial licensing had been abolished for all projects EXCEPT for a short list of industries through the amendments in NIP (New Industrial Policy) in the year _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

The correct answer is 1991.
Key Points

  • On 24th July, 1991, in Lok-Sabha the Minister of States for industries, Mr. P. J. Kurian declared the Industrial Policy, 1991.
  • The new policy contained policy directions for reforms and thus for LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation).
  • With the exception of three industrial sectors, it expanded the scope of private sector involvement.
  • The strategy has simultaneously welcomed foreign technology and investment.
  • This has ended the era of license raj or red tapism in the country.

Additional Information
Salient features of new industry policy 1991:

  • Liberalized Industrial Licensing Policy:
    • With the exception of 18 industries, licensing system has been removed for all other industries.
    • Some of those 18 industries, where the licensing system is still mandatory are; Army and Defense, Forest Conservation, Industries engaged in manufacturing goods which are harmful to the Environment and industries, which are manufacturing luxury goods, for the affluent (very rich) class, etc.
  • Localization Policy:
    • Those industries which are situated in cities, where the population is less than 1 million, industrial permission from the government, to start any industry is not required.
    • In cities having population of more than 1 million, with the exception of electronics and other pollution free industries, all industrial units may be 25 kilo meters away from the city’s boundary.
  • Foreign Investment:
    • Provision has been made to invest up to 51 percent by foreign investors in the equity shares of Indian Companies. Earlier, this limit was limited up to 40% only.
  • Role of Public Sector:
    • Those public sector undertakings which are not doing well at present, but in which there are enough chances of improvement, shall be re-constituted.
  • Change in the MRTP Act:
    • Companies having investment of Rs. 100 crores, will not be required to take prior Government permission, for opening new subdivisions, or to expand the present industry or for amalgamation of companies.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15

Which of the following is the time taken by the CPU to access a location in memory?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15

The correct answer is Memory access time.
Key Points

  • The amount of time it takes to move a character from or to the CPU from RAM is known as the memory access time.
  • Access times for quick RAM chips are 10 nanoseconds (ns) or less.
  • The memory hierarchy's design, the size of the blocks at each level, the management rules selected for each level, and the amount of time required to access data at each level all affect how quickly data can be accessed from memory.

Additional Information
Instruction cycle:

  • The central processing unit runs through an instruction cycle from the time the computer boots up until it shuts down in order to process instructions.
  • The fetch stage, the decode stage, and the execute stage are the three primary stages that make up this process.

CPU frequency:

  • Clock rate, PC frequency, and CPU frequency are other terms for clock speed.
  • This is measured in gigahertz, sometimes known as GHz, which stands for billions of pulses per second.
  • How quickly a CPU can process data and how well a PC performs are both determined by its clock speed (move individual bits).

Memory formatting time:

  • All of the data on the memory card is permanently deleted during formatting.
  • Quick format could take up to 2 minutes, depending on the size of the card. In the absence of Quick format, the procedure requires more time.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16
The ratio of two numbers is 11 ∶ 4 and their HCF is 16. What is the sum of these two numbers?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16

Given:

The ratio of numbers = 11 : 4

HCF of the numbers = 16

Concept used:

The largest number that divides two or more numbers is the highest common factor (HCF) for those numbers.

Calculation:

Let two numbers be 11a and 4a

According to the concept of HCF,

HCF of 11a and 4a = a

According to the question,

a = 16

So, the numbers are 11 × 16 = 176, and 4 × 16 = 64

Sum of the numbers = 176 + 64

⇒ 240

The sum of these two numbers is 240.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

In different parts of the country, New Year is celebrated under different names. Match the following names with their respective states:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

The correct answer is 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b.
Key Points
Puthandu:

  • It is also known as Puthuvarusham.
  • Puthandu is observed by Tamils as the traditional "Tamil/Hindu New Year."
  • It normally occurs on April 14 and this month is known as Chittirai, the first month of the Tamil solar calendar.

Poila Boisakh:

  • The first day of the first month of Baishakh in the Bengali solar calendar is known as Pohela Boishakh.
  • It is also known as the Bengali New Year or Nobo Borso.
  • It is widely observed in Bangladesh and West Bengal.

Vishu:

  • Due to Malyalam being the dominant language in Kerala, Vishu is sometimes referred to as the Malyalam New Year.
  • For residents of Kerala and several nearby regions of Tamil Nadu, Vishu signifies the start of the new year.

Gudi Padwa:

  • Celebrated on the first day of Chaitra month, Gudi Padwa is a New Year day for Maharashtrians and Konkanis.
  • On this day a gudi can be found hanging out on the right side of the main access of the houses.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word UNIVERSAL (in both forward and backward directions) each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in English alphabetical order?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

Pairs of letters in the word UNIVERSAL (in both forward and backward directions) each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in English alphabetical order are:

There have four pairs. They are

  • NR
  • NS
  • RS
  • SV

Hence, ‘4’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

From the options given below, choose the one, which figures in the play of Kalidasa's 'Vikramorvasiyam'.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

The correct answer is The story of the love of Pururavas and Urvasi.
Key Points

  • Vikramorvasiyam is a five-act Sanskrit drama, which translates as "Urvasi Won by Valour".
  • In the fourth or fifth century CE, the ancient Indian poet Kalidasa penned it.
  • It is based on the Vedic love story of King Pururavas and an Apsara named Urvasi, who is noted for her beauty.
  • The second of Kalidasa's three plays is Vikramorvasiyam; the other two are the well-known Abhijnanasakuntalam and Malavikagnimitram.
  • Classical Sanskrit author Kalidasa is frequently recognized as the greatest poet and playwright of ancient India.
  • The Vedas, the Ramayana, the Mahbarata, and the Puranas are the main sources for his plays and poems.

Additional Information
Malavikagnimitram:

  • In this drama, Sunga King Agnimitra of Vidisha falls in love with Malavika, the stunning banished handmaiden of his chief queen Dharini in the palace.
  • In the fifth century CE, Kalidasa penned this drama in five acts.

Abhijnanasakuntalam:

  • A wonderful love story between Dushyanta and Shakuntala is told in the book Abhijnanasakuntalam.
  • It was written by Kalidasa, one of India's greatest poets.

The story of Nal and Damayanti:

  • ​The complicated legendary love story of Nala and Damayanti exists before the Mahabharata epic.
  • The sage Vrihadaswa describes the tale in the Vana Parva (Book of the Forest).
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

Read the given statement and courses of action carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true. decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement:

There is a huge increase in the migration of citizens of Country X to foreign countries as the unemployment rate has been increasing in Country X.

Courses of Action:

(I) The citizens of Country X should be provided with alternate sources of income.

(II) Substantial fees should be imposed on all foreign travels by the citizens of Country X.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

Statement: There is a huge increase in the migration of citizens of Country X to foreign countries as the unemployment rate has been increasing in Country X.

(I) As the unemployment rate has been increasing in Country X, So the citizens of Country X should be provided with alternative sources of income for surviving.

(II) Imposing substantial fees can not reduce the unemployment problem of country X.

Therefore, only course of action (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1).

Some rules to solve Statements and Course of action questions must be kept in mind while solving it.

Rule 1. Have an unbiased and neutral mind frame. Individual perception must not be used to judge the course of action to be taken.

Rule 2. The first step should be to identify the root cause of the problem. Once the problem is solved, a logical mindset should be employed to figure out the course of action.

Rule 3. There must be no extremity involved in the course of action.

Rule 4. A course of action must be able to solve, reduce, or minimize the problem given in the situation.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to perform REDO operation in MS-Word?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21

The correct answer is Ctrl + Y.
Key Points

  • To redo something you've undone, press Ctrl + Y or F4.
  • Microsoft created the word processing program known as Microsoft Word.
  • It is a component of the Microsoft Office suite of productivity software.
  • Since its initial release in 1983, Microsoft Word has undergone a number of revisions.
  • MS Word is useful for modifying and formatting existing documents as well as creating professional writing.
  • It aids with the creation of graphic documents that include images and more.
  • The documents can be copied to a flash drive, which functions as your computer's external memory. As a result, you may easily carry along the saved documents.

Additional Information

  • Alt + Z is a keyboard shortcut used to access the GeForce Experience in-game overlay.
  • Alt + Y is a keyboard shortcut used to open the Database Tools tab in Microsoft Access.
  • In MS Word, Ctrl + R is used to align the text to the right of the screen.
  • Various Shortcuts in Ms Word:
    • Backspace: Delete one character to the left
    • Ctrl + Backspace: Delete one word to the left
    • Delete: Delete one character to the right
    • Ctrl + Delete: Delete one word to the right
    • Ctrl + C: Copy or graphics to the Clipboard text
    • Ctrl + X: Cut selected text or graphics to the Clipboard
    • Ctrl + V: Paste the Clipboard contents
    • Alt + Shift + R: Copy the header or footer used in the previous section of the document
    • Ctrl + B: Apple bold formatting
    • Ctrl + I: Apply italic formatting
    • Ctrl + U: Apply underline formatting
    • Ctrl + Shift + W: Apply underline formatting to words, but not the spaces between words
    • Ctrl + Shift + D: Apply double underline formatting
    • Ctrl + D: Open the Font dialog box
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusion/s follow based on the statements.

Statements:

X < Y, X = J, Y ≤ M, Z ≤ J

Conclusions:

I. Y = J

II. M > Z

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

Statements:

X < Y, X = J, Y ≤ M, Z ≤ J

Conclusions:

I. Y = J → False (As, J = X < Y → J < Y)

II. M > Z → True (As, Z ≤ J = X < Y ≤ M → Z < M)

Hence, only conclusion II follows.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All goats are animals.
Some animals are carnivores.
Conclusions:
(I) All goats are carnivores.
(II) Some animals are goats.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:
(I) All goats are carnivores. → False (As, there is no definite relation between goats are carnivores. Hence, false)
(II) Some animals are goats. → True (As, all goats are animals)
Hence, only conclusion II follows.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24

Most Ashokan inscriptions were in the _______ language while those in the northwest of the subcontinent were in Aramaic and Greek.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24

The correct answer is Prakrit.
Key Points

  • Between the third century BCE and the eighth century CE, a series of Middle Indo-Aryan dialects known as the Prakrits were spoken on the Indian subcontinent.
  • While those in the northwest of the subcontinent were written in Aramaic and Greek, Prakrit was the language used for the majority of Asokan inscriptions.
  • Inscriptions in Afghanistan employed the Aramaic and Greek scripts.

Additional Information

Pali:

  • One of the primary languages of Buddhist scriptures and literature is Pali, a Middle Indic dialect closely linked to Sanskrit.
  • Theravada Buddhists in India, Sri Lanka, and South East Asia have been using it for more than 2000 years.
  • They historically thought it to be the language used by the Buddha himself.

Sanskrit:

  • A classical language of South Asia, Sanskrit is a member of the Indo-Aryan family of Indo-European languages.
  • The world's earliest book, the Rigveda, was written in Sanskrit.

Tamil:

  • The Tamil people of the Indian subcontinent are native speakers of Tamil, a classical Dravidian language.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25

The destructive form of Tsunami, also called Seismic Sea Waves are usually caused by the earthquake having:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25

The correct answer is Magnitude > 7.5.
Key Points

  • A tsunami is a set of extraordinarily lengthy waves brought on by a significant and abrupt movement of the ocean.
  • It is typically brought on by an earthquake at or near the ocean's bottom.
  • Waves produced by this power travel in all directions away from their source, occasionally spanning entire ocean basins.
  • A tsunami can only be created by an earthquake with a Richter magnitude greater than 7.5.
  • The majority of tsunamis are caused by large, shallow earthquakes at subduction zones.
  • In the Pacific Ocean along its Ring of Fire subduction zones, tsunamis account for more than 80% of those that occur globally.

Additional Information

  • An earthquake's seismic energy is measured using the Richter magnitude scale.
  • It is sometimes referred to as the local magnitude (M) scale. The scale is logarithmic in base-10.
  • Magnitude 4-4.9:
    • A light earthquake is measured at between 4 and 4.9 on the Richter scale. Like minor quakes, they occur often worldwide, can be felt but generally cause no damage.
  • Magnitude 5-5.9:
    • A moderate earthquake registers between 5 and 5.9 on the Richter scale and causes slight damage to buildings and other structures.
  • Magnitude 2-2.9:
    • Earthquakes below magnitude 3 or so are rarely felt.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26

C is the mother of K. K is the wife of H. R is the brother of K. P is the father of R. How is C related to P?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, C is the wife of P.

Hence, ‘Wife’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

Six students P, K, M, T, N and G are sitting on a straight bench facing east. K and T are the immediate neighbours of G. P is sitting at one of the extreme ends and is fourth to the right of M. Who is sitting to the immediate left of M?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

Six students - P, K, M, T, N and G are sitting on a straight bench facing east.

1. P is sitting at one of the extreme ends and is fourth to the right of M.

2. K and T are the immediate neighbours of G.

Only one person N is left and it will occupy the vacant position.

The final arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, N is sitting to the immediate left of M.

Hence, ‘N’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

VTZX : NLRP :: MJVQ : EBNI :: PNTR : ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28

The logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘HFLJ’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29
The least perfect square which is divisible by each of 27, 54 and 72 is
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29

Given:

Numbers are 27, 54, and 72

Concept used:

For this type of question required number is always multiple of LCM of the given number

Least Common Multiple(LCM) is a method to find the smallest common multiple between any two or more numbers.

Calculation:

LCM of 27, 54, 72 = 216

So, the perfect square number should also be divisible by 216

From the options, only 1296 is the possible value which is also a multiple of 216

1296 = 362

∴ Required least perfect square number is 1296.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

The Gandhian Plan, 1944, espousing the spirit of the Gandhian Economic thinking, was formulated by _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

The correct answer is Sriman Narayan Agarwal.
Key Points
Espousing the spirit of the Gandhian economic thinking, Sriman Narayan Agarwal formulated The Gandhian Plan in 1944. The plan laid more emphasis on agriculture.

Gandhian economy:

  • According to Gandhi, the salvation of the Indian economy depends on rural development and rural transformation.
  • The prevailing agrarian situation indicates that this cannot be brought about in the context of India's present obsession with economic growth, and the trend of economic development in the world, in general.
  • A strong rural economy lays the foundation for a strong society and nation.
  • The Gandhian economy is based on the principle of Trusteeship.
  • According to Gandhi, the cause of all contradictions is centralism.
  • It may be described as a situation in which a few controls the means and the power to make decisions that affect many that are left out.
  • Gandhian principle of economics rejects the precepts and assumptions of mainstream economics.
  • It represents an alternative to mainstream economic theories as a way to promote economic progress without emphasizing material pursuits or compromising human development.
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