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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

Select the alphanumeric-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

F6, H12, J18, L24,?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

The logic followed here is:

Hence, ‘N30’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

Seven boxes of different colours, Red, Yellow, Blue, Green, Orange, Violet and Indigo were stocked one on the other, not necessarily in the same order. No other box was placed below the orange box. The Violet box was placed second to the top of the Blue box. The Green box was second to the bottom of the Indigo box. The Red box was placed at the topmost position. The Yellow box was exactly above the Indigo box. Which of the following is the correct pair of box and its position?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

Seven boxes of different colours, Red, Yellow, Blue, Green, Orange, Violet and Indigo were stocked one on the other, not necessarily in the same order.

1. No other box was placed below the orange box.

2. The Red box was placed at the topmost position.

3. The Green box was second to the bottom of the Indigo box.

4. The Yellow box was exactly above the Indigo box.

5. The Violet box was placed second to the top of the Blue box.

Clearly, the above condition cannot be satisfied in Case II, so it is eliminated.

The final arrangement is shown below:

  1. Violet box – 7th position from the top → False (4th position from the top)
  2. Yellow box – 5th position from the top → False (2nd position from the top)
  3. Green box – 3rd position from the top → False (5th position from the top)
  4. Blue box – 6th position from the top → True

Hence, 'Blue box – 6th position from the top' is the correct answer.

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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

Rajpal is a resident of the 21st floor from the top and 9th from the ground (which is counted as floor no. 1) of a building. If the building has no basement, then how many total floors are there in the building?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

Rajpal is a resident of the 21st floor from the top and 9th from the ground (which is counted as floor no. 1) of a building.

If the building has no basement.

Total number of floors in the building = 21 + 9 - 1

= 30 - 1

= 29

Hence, ‘29’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4

If = 0, then what is the value of P?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4

Given:

= 0

Concept used:

Calculation:

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

= 0

⇒ 4 + P = 0

⇒ P = - 4

∴ Required answer of P is - 4.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Take the Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All students are teachers.

Some professors are students.

Conclusions:

A. Some students are professors.

B. Some teachers are professors.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

A. Some students are professors. → True (Some professors are students.)

B. Some teachers are professors. → True (As all students are teachers and Some professors are students)

Hence, Both conclusions A and B follow.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6
The Union List, State List and the Concurrent List is included in which 'Schedule' of the Indian Constitution?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6

The correct answer is Seventh Schedule.Key Points

  • The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union government and State governments.
  • Article 246 deals with the 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • It mentions three lists named Union List, State List, and Concurrent List which specify the divisions of power between Union and States.
  • There are 97 subjects on the union list, 61 subjects on the state list, and 52 subjects on the concurrent list.

Additional Information

  • Eighth Schedule:
    • The provisions relating to the 8th Schedule are in articles 344(1) and 351.
    • 22 official languages in India are covered under the 8th schedule.
  • Ninth Schedule:
    • The Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts and was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
    • The first Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule. Subsequent amendments in various years have taken the number of protected laws to 284 currently.
    • It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with Article 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7
Manu purchased an old bike for ₹5,500, spent 12% of this amount on repairs, and had to later sell it at an overall loss of 5%. What was the price at which Manu sold the bike?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7

Given:

Manu purchased an old bike for ₹5,500 and spent 12% of this amount on repairs.

Sold the bike at an overall loss of 5%.

Concept used:

Selling Price = Cost Price - Cost Price × Loss%

Calculation:

Amount spent on repairing the bike

⇒ 5500 × 12%

⇒ ₹660

Overall cost price of the bike = 5500 + 660 = ₹6160

Hence, the selling price of the bike

⇒ 6160 - 6160 × 5%

⇒ 6160 - 6160 × 0.05

⇒ 6160 - 308

⇒ ₹5852

∴ The price at which Manu sold the bike was ₹5852.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

Which among the following is attributed to Kautilya?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

The correct answer is Arthashastra.

Key Points

  • Kautilya’s Arthashastra is an ancient Indian Sanskrit treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
  • The book on statecraft was written in the Mauryan period.
  • The text is divided into 15 chapters known as books.
  • The book was written in Sanskrit.
  • Even before the final version of Arthashastra was written in the fourth century B.C. by Kautilya, there appeared a tradition of writing on and teaching of statecraft because Kautilya acknowledges his debt to his predecessors in the field.
  • Kautilya was the Prime Minister of Chandragupta Maurya.

Additional Information

  • Indica was written by Megasthenes.​
    • Megasthenes was the Greek ambassador at Chandragupta Maurya's court.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9
In which of the following cities is World Economic Forum headquartered?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9

The correct answer is Geneva, Switzerland.

It was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation that is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

  • The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
  • The WEF was founded by Klaus Schwab, a business professor at the University of Geneva.
  • The Forum engages the foremost political, business, cultural and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas.
  • Reports released by the WEF - Global Competitiveness Report, the Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report.

Additional Information

  • The annual meeting of the World Economic Forum took place in Switzerland.
  • The World Economic Forum's Annual Meeting will take place in Davos-Klosters, Switzerland from 22-26 May 2022.
    • It will take place under the theme of Working Together, Restoring Trust.
    • It will be the first global in-person leadership event since the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic.
    • The World Economic Forum is pleased to announce that it will hold its Annual Meeting 2022 in Davos-Klosters, Switzerland, from Sunday 22 to Thursday 26 May.
    • The Annual Meeting 2022, returning to Davos-Klosters after a two-year hiatus, will offer world leaders an opportunity to take stock of the state of the world and shape partnerships and policies for the crucial period ahead.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

_h_ _ cd_p_c_h_k_dh_k_

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10

Given sequence: _h__cd_p_c_h_k_dh_k_

A. phcdkpchdk → phhcc - ddpkc - phckh - dhdkk

B. phdkpchkpc → ​phhdc - dkppc - chhkk - dhpkc

C. dphkchdpck → ​dhphc - dkpcc - hhdkp - dhckk

D.​dpkhkdpcpc → dhpkc - dhpkc - dhpkc - dhpkc

In option D, dhpkc is repeated

Hence, ‘dpkhkdpcpc’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11

In a certain code language, 'club' is written as 'school', 'school' is written as 'playground', 'playground' is written as 'house', 'house is written as 'market' and 'market' is written as 'bus'.

Where do students go to study?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11

In a certain code language,

  • 'club' is written as 'school'
  • 'school' is written as 'playground'
  • 'playground' is written as 'house'
  • 'house is written as 'market'
  • 'market' is written as 'bus'

Students go to study to 'School' and 'school' is written as 'playground'.

Therefore, students go to study to Playground.

Hence, ‘Playground’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12
If the ratio of the mode and median is 13 ∶ 9, then find the ratio of the mean and mode using empirical relation.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12

Given:

The ratio of the mode and median is 13 ∶ 9

Formula used:

Empirical relation

Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean

Calculation:

Let the common ratio be Q.

Hence, the mode and median of the distribution are 13Q and 9Q.

Thus, the Mean of the distribution

Mean = (3 Median - Mode) / 2

⇒ (3 × 9Q - 13Q)/2

⇒ 7Q

The ratio of the mean and mode

⇒ 7Q : 13Q

⇒ 7 : 13

∴ The ratio of the mean and mode is 7 : 13.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13
A train passes a man, going in opposite direction, in 12 seconds and the speed of the man is 10 km/h. If the speed of the train is 62 km/h, then what is the length (in m) of the train?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13

Given:

A train passes a man, going in opposite direction, in 12 seconds and the speed of the man is 10 km/h.

The speed of the train is 62 km/h.

Concept used:

Relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds while two bodies are coming from the opposite direction.

1m/s = 18/5 km/h

Time × Speed = Distance

Calculation:

62 km/h = 62 ÷ (18/5) = 155/9 m/s

10 kmph = 10 ÷ (18/5) = 25/9 m/s

Hence, the relative speed of the train and the person

⇒ 155/9 + 25/9

⇒ 180/9

⇒ 20 m/s

Thus, the length of the train = 12 × 20 = 240 m

∴ The length of the train is 240m.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14
In a division involving decimal fractions, the divisor is 22.8 and the quotient is 8.5, while the remainder is 0. What is the dividend?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14

Given:

The divisor is 22.8 and the quotient is 8.5.

Remainder = 0

Concept used:

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Calculation:

According to the question, the dividend

⇒ 22.8 × 8.5 + 0

⇒ 193.8

∴ The dividend is 193.8.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

HUDK : KWGM :: RBNF : UDQH :: LPQV : ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, ‘ORTX’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16
If the 9-digit number 83x93678y is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (3x - 2y)?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16

Given:

The 9-digit number 83x93678y is divisible by 72.

Concept used:

If the last three digits of a number are divisible by 8, then the number is completely divisible by 8.

If the sum of digits of the number is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9.

Calculation:

If the 9-digit number 83x93678y is divisible by 72, then it must be divisible by 8 and 9 simultaneously.

The last three digits of 83x93678y are 78y.

Hence, In order to be divisible by 8, y must be 4.

The number becomes = 83x936784

Now, in order to be divisible by 9,

8 + 3 + x + 9 + 3 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 4 = Multiple of 9

⇒ 48 + x = Multiple of 9

In order to be a multiple of 9, x must be 6. That makes (48 + 6) i.e. 54 a multiple of 9.

Hence,

3x - 2y

⇒ 3 × 6 - 2 × 4

⇒ 10

∴ The value of (3x - 2y) is 10.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17
The Wangala Festival is primarily celebrated in ______.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

  • Known as the '100 Drum Festival', the Wangala Festival is a traditional festival in the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya.
  • The festival kicked off on November 12th, 2021.
  • The festival lasts from two days to a week.
  • It is one of the most important festivals of the Garo Tribe.
  • The tribesmen make sacrifices to please their god Saljong.

Additional Information

  • The Wangala festival marks the end of a period of toil, that brings good results to the fields which also signifies the onset of winter.
  • It is also celebrated in honour of the Sun God that marks the end of the long harvest season.
  • Wangala is celebrated with different forms of dance.
  • These dances are performed on the tunes of folk songs that are played on drums and primitive flute.
  • Additionally, these flutes are made of buffalo horns.
  • On the first day of the festival, people celebrate it with a ceremony called Ragula.
  • This ceremony is performed in the house of the village’s chief.
  • Then on the second day of celebration, which is called Kakkat, people begin the ceremony by dancing to the rhythms of long oval-shaped drums.
  • In this celebration, young and old join together while men play the drums and women perform traditional dance forms. The dance form is known as Dama Dagota.

Important Points

  • Meghalaya:
    • Lok Sabha seats - 2.
    • Rajya Sabha seats - 1.
    • State Animal - Clouded leopard.
    • State Bird - Common hill myna.
    • National Parks - Balphakram National Park, Nokrek Ridge National Park.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18
The Therigatha is a Buddhist text, part of the ______ is a collection of verses composed by bhikkhunis.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18

The correct answer is Sutta Pitaka.

Key Points

  • Therigatha is classified as part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, the collection of short books in the Sutta Pitaka.
  • Therigatha is the "earliest extant text depicting women's spiritual experiences." in Theravada Buddhism.
  • The Therigatha is a collection of 73 poems written by Buddhist nuns over a period of 300 years.
  • It is a collection of short poems in Pali attributed to members of the early Buddhist sangha.
  • Sutta Pitaka
    • ​The Sutta Pitaka contains the Buddha's teachings recorded mainly as sermons delivered in historical settings.
    • It includes the Dhammapada.
    • The Dhammapada means 'the path or verses of truth' and is the best known of all the Buddhist scriptures in the West.

Additional Information

  • Vinaya Pitaka
    • ​The Vinaya-Pitaka, or "basket of discipline," is the first of three parts of the Tipitaka, a collection of the earliest Buddhist texts.
    • The Vinaya Pitaka records the Buddha's rules of discipline for monks and nuns.
    • It also contains stories about the first Buddhist monks and nuns and how they lived.
  • Mahavamsa
    • Mahavaṃsa is a historical chronology of Ceylon (modern Sri Lanka), written in the 5th or 6th century.
    • It deals more with the history of Buddhism and with dynastic succession in Ceylon.
    • ​The text was written in Pali, the sacred language of Buddhism.
  • Dipavamsa
    • ​The meaning of Dipavamsa is “Chronicle of Island”.
    • It is the oldest historical record of Sri Lanka.
    • It is believed to have been compiled around the 3rd or 4th century BC somewhere in Anuradhapura in Sri Lanka.
    • It is written during the reign of King Dhatusena of Sri Lanka, the first Mauryan King of Sri Lanka.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19
Of the total imports to India during April-November 2021, which country has the maximum share according to the Economic Survey 2021-22, Government of India?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

  • In a separate reply, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal said that imports from China have increased from USD 60.41 billion in 2014-15 to USD 65.21 billion in 2020-21, exhibiting a marginal increase of 7.94 per cent over FY15.
  • Despite India’s efforts to reduce dependence on Chinese Imports amid an increased policy emphasis on self-reliance and the continuing tension along the border, the country’s bilateral trade with China has grown 44 per cent in 2021, according to Chinese government data for the full calendar year. Imports grew over a record 46 per cent while exports were up 35 per cent.

Additional Information

  • President of China is Xi Jinping.
  • Capital of China is Beijing.
  • currency of china is Renminbi.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20
A family's monthly income is ₹45,000. Out of the monthly income 20% is spent on food, 20% is spent on the house rent, 5% is spent on shopping, 10% is spent on personal expenses and the rest is saved. If they decided to donate 12% of the monthly savings to the poor, what is the amount that they donate to the poor?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20

Given:

A family's monthly income is ₹45,000.

Out of the monthly income, 20% is spent on food, 20% is spent on the house rent, 5% is spent on shopping, 10% is spent on personal expenses and the rest is saved.

They decided to donate 12% of the monthly savings to the poor.

Calculation:

Let the total income be 100%.

Total percentage of the total expenditure

⇒ (20 + 20 + 5 + 10)%

⇒ 55%

Hence, the saving percentage = (100 - 55) = 45%

Thus, the donation percentage = 45 × 12% = 5.4%

Now, the amount that they donate to the poor

⇒ 45000 × 5.4%

⇒ ₹2430

∴ The amount that they donate to the poor is ₹2430.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21
Which research institute launched a new popular online talk series called Steamboat, which integrates the arts with STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics) in November 2021?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21

The correct answer is HBCSE, TIFR Mumbai.

Key Points

  • The Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HSCSE) at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai, has launched a new online popular talk series called STEAMboat on Children's Day on Sunday, November 14,2021.
  • The program consists of exciting talks, animated videos, and much more in multiple languages, exploring Science, Technology, Engineering, Arts, Mathematics, and their intersections.
  • The initiative aims to use new media technologies and the internet to widen and consolidate the outreach endeavor in the digital space.
  • Engaging sessions on STEAM and related topics in Indian regional languages as well as English.
  • For starters, a STEAMboat session will be released every second Sunday of the month.
  • These sessions may be live or pre-recorded and will cover a range of topics from all disciplines which are of general interest to people.
  • The sessions will be available on HBCSE’s YouTube channel.

Additional Information

  • Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai
    • ​TIFR is a National Centre of the Government of India, under the Department of Atomic Energy, as well as a deemed University awarding degrees for master's and doctoral programs.
    • The Institute was founded in 1945 with support from the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust under the vision of Dr. Homi Bhabha.
    • TIFR, carry out basic research in physics, chemistry, biology, mathematics, computer science ,and science education.
    • The main campus is located in Mumbai, with centers at Pune, Bengaluru, and Hyderabad.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22
Assuming 13th June 2005 was a Friday, what day of the week was 5th July 2005?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22

13th June 2005 Friday

13th June 2005 + 17 days = 30th June 2005

Number of days from 1st July 2005 to 5th July 2005 = 5

⇒ 17 + 5 = 22

  • 13th June 2005 + 22 days = 5th July 2005

22 when divided by 7 leaves 1 as remainder.

3th June 2005 + 1 odd day = 5th July 2005

⇒ Friday + 1 odd = Saturday

So, it was Saturday on 5th July 2005.

Hence, ‘Saturday’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23

Read the given seating arrangement information and answer the question that follows.

Prashant, Kamal, Rishi, Sunita, Tanvi, Vimal, Wazir and Yogita are sitting at a square table in such a way that four of them are sitting at four corners of the table, while the other four are sitting in the middle of each of four sides of the table. The four who are sitting at the corners of the table are facing the centre, whereas those who are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table are facing outside. Prashant, who is facing the centre, is sitting third to the right of Vimal. Tanvi, who is facing the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of Vimal. Only one person is sitting between Vimal and Wazir. Sunita sits second to the right of Kamal. Kamal is facing the centre. Rishi is not an immediate neighbour of Prashant. ​

Which of the following statements regarding Kamal is true?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23

Prashant, Kamal, Rishi, Sunita, Tanvi, Vimal, Wazir and Yogita are sitting at a square table in such a way that four of them are sitting at four corners of the table, while the other four are sitting in the middle of each of four sides of the table.

The four who are sitting at the corners of the table are facing the centre, whereas those who are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table are facing outside.

1. Prashant, who is facing the centre, is sitting third to the right of Vimal.

2. Tanvi, who is facing the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of Vimal.

Clearly, Tanvi is sitting second to the left of Prashant as she is facing the centre and the only vacant possible position for Tanvi is second to the left of Prashant.

3. Only one person is sitting between Vimal and Wazir.

4. Rishi is not an immediate neighbour of Prashant. ​

5. Sunita sits second to the right of Kamal.

6. Kamal is facing the centre.

Case I is eliminated as there is no vacant position left for Rishi to occupy.

Rishi is sitting between Tanvi and Sunita.

Yogita is sitting between Prashant and Tanvi.

The final arrangement will be as shown below:

  1. Kamal is an immediate neighbour of Yogita. → False (Prashant and Tanvi are immediate neighbours of Yogita)
  2. Kamal is an immediate neighbour of Vimal. → True
  3. Kamal is sitting to the immediate right of Tanvi. → False (Kamal is sitting diagonally opposite to Tanvi)
  4. Kamal is an immediate neighbour of both Tanvi and Sunita. → False (Kamal is sitting diagonally opposite to Tanvi)

Hence, 'Kamal is an immediate neighbour of Vimal' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24
According to the Article 243B of the Indian Constitution, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding ______ lakhs.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24

The correct answer is twenty.

Key Points

  • Article 243B deals with the Constitution of Panchayats.-
    • Clause(1) There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels in accordance with the provisions of this Part.
    • Clause(2) Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
  • ​PART IX Article 243(B) provides for Panchayati raj institutions in every village, district, and state.

Important Points

  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act(1992) provided a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
  • Insertion of Article 243 to Part IX of the Indian Constitution.
  • Part IX focused on organizing the 3 tier Panchayat system, which would be constituted in every state at the village level, intermediate level, and district level.
  • It is based on the recommendation of, the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1957 which recommended:
    • Three-tier Panchayats
    • Gram Panchayat at the village level.
    • The Panchayat committee at the block level.
    • Zilla Parishad.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25
India has a land border of about ______ km with neighbouring countries.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25

The correct answer is 15106.

Key Points

  • India has a land frontier of 15106 km.
  • The total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands, and Andaman and the Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.
  • India shares its border with seven countries- Afghanistan and Pakistan to the North-West, China, Bhutan, and Nepal to the North, Myanmar to the far East, and Bangladesh to the East. Sri Lanka (from the South-East) and Maldives (from the South-West) are two countries with water borders.
  • Across the sea to the south, lie our island neighbours- Sri Lanka and the Maldives.

Additional Information

  • India Pakistan border is called the line of control.
  • The Indian states of Punjab, Rajasthan, Jammu, and Kashmir, and Gujarat have the India-Pakistan border.
  • Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland share the land border with Myanmar.
  • Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim share the border with China.
  • Assam, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal share their border with Bangladesh.
  • Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, and Sikkim share a border with Nepal.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26
Simplify .
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26

Given:

Concept used:

A2 - B2 = (A + B) (A - B)

Calculation:

+

+

⇒ 3

∴ The simplified value is 3.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27
Kiran lent ₹40,000 to Kishore on compound interest for 2 years, compounded annually. The rate to interest is 20%. What is the Compound Interest that Kiran will receive after 2 years?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27

Given:

Principal amount = ₹40,000

Rate of interest = 20%

Time = 2 years

Concept used:

Compound interest, CI = P(1 + R/100)n - P

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

N = Time in years

Calculation:

According to the concept,

The incurred compound interest

⇒ 40000(1 + 20/100)2 - 40000

⇒ 57600 - 40000

⇒ ₹17,600

∴ The compound interest that Kiran will receive after 2 years is ₹17,600.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28
The sum of the ages of 5 children born at an interval of 5 years each, is 80. What is the age of the youngest child?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28

Given:

The sum of the ages of 5 children born at an interval of 5 years each, is 80.

Calculation:

Let the present age of the youngest child be Q.

Hence, the ages of other children in the ascending order is (Q + 5), (Q + 10), (Q + 15), (Q + 20)

According to the question,

Q + (Q + 5) + (Q + 10) + (Q + 15) + (Q + 20) = 80

⇒ 5Q + 50 = 80

⇒ Q = 30/5

⇒ Q = 6

∴ The age of the youngest child is 6 years.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29

Which of the following countries ranked last in the Global Hunger Index of 2021?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29

The correct answer is Somalia.

Key Points

  • Somalia ranked last in the 2021 Global Hunger Index.
  • In the 2021 Global Hunger Index, Somalia ranks 116th out of the 116 countries with sufficient data to calculate 2021 GHI scores.
  • With a score of 50.8, Somalia has a level of hunger that is extremely alarming.
  • Global Hunger Index ranks countries on a 0 to 100 point scale.
  • Global Hunger Index ranks the Countries based on the following Data​.
  • Undernourishment
  • Child Stunting
  • Child Wasting
  • Child Mortality

Additional Information

  • India ranks 101st out of 116 Countries in the 2021 ranking.
  • Global Hunger Index is the 16th edition of the Hunger Index in 2021 (since 2006).​
  • India is ranked behind most of the neighboring countries
    • Pakistan - 92
    • Sri Lanka - 65
    • Nepal - 76
    • Bangladesh - 76
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30
The area of a rectangle is 2430 cm2 and its width is 9 cm less than its length. Find the perimeter of the rectangle.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30

Given:

The area of a rectangle is 2430 cm2 and its width is 9 cm less than its length.

Concept used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Width)

Area of a rectangle = Length × Width

Calculation:

Let the width of the rectangle be Q cm.

Hence, the length of the rectangle = (Q + 9) cm

According to the question,

Q × (Q + 9) = 2430

⇒ Q2 + 9Q - 2430 = 0

⇒ Q2 + 54Q - 45Q - 2430 = 0

⇒ Q (Q + 54) - 45 (Q + 54) = 0

⇒ (Q + 54) (Q - 45) = 0

Since Q can't be negative,

(Q - 45) = 0

⇒ Q = 45

Then, the length of the rectangle = (45 + 9) = 54 cm

Now, the perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (45 + 54) = 198 cm

∴ The perimeter of the rectangle is 198 cm.

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