RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ

The correct answer is Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai.

Key Points

• Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai
  • He was considered the Father of the Indian space program.
  • He was a great institution builder and established or helped to establish a large number of institutions in diverse fields.
  • He was considered the Father of the Indian space program.
  • He was a great institution builder and established or helped to establish a large number of institutions in diverse fields.
  • He founded the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad on November 11, 1947.
  • Sarabhai was a creator and cultivator of institutions and PRL was the first step in that direction.
  • Vikram Sarabhai served as PRL from 1966-1971.
  • He was also chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission.
  • He along with other Ahmedabad-based industrialists played a major role in the creation of the Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad.
  • Dr. Sarabhai started a project for the fabrication and launch of an Indian Satellite.
  • As a result, the first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was put in orbit in 1975 from a Russian Cosmodrome.
  • Dr. Sarabhai was very interested in science education and founded a Community Science Centre at Ahmedabad in 1966.
  • Today, the Centre is called the Vikram A Sarabhai Community Science Centre.

Important Points

• ISRO:
  • It is the space agency under the Department of Space of Government of India, headquartered in the city of Bengaluru, Karnataka.
  • Its vision is to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.
  • Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO.
  • The first Indian spacecraft ‘Aryabhata’ was developed and was launched using a Soviet Launcher.
  • Another major landmark was the development of the first launch vehicle SLV-3 with a capability to place 40 kg in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which had its first successful flight in 1980.

Additional Information

• Vikram Seth:
  • He is an Indian novelist and poet. He has written several novels and poetry books.
  • He has received several awards such as Padma Shri, Sahitya Academy Award, Pravasi Bharatiya Samman, WH Smith Literary Award, and Crossword Book Award.
• Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha:
  • He is considered the 'father of India's nuclear science program.'

The correct answer is Second Five Year Plan.
Key Points

• Second Five-year plan (1956 to 1961)
  • The second plan was conceived in an atmosphere of economic stability.
  • It was felt agriculture could be accorded lower priority.
  • Industries got more importance in the 2nd five-year plan. The focus was mainly on heavy industries.
  • The Indian government boosted the manufacturing of industrial goods in the country.
  • This was done primarily to develop the public sector.
  • The Plan Focussed on rapid industrialization- heavy & basic industries.
  • Advocated huge imports through foreign loans.
  • Therefore, the Indian Government adopted a mixed economy during the second five-year plan. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Industrial Policy 1956 was based on the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society as the goal of economic policy.
  • Acute shortage of forex led to pruning of development targets, the price rise was also seen ( about 30%) vis a vis decline in the earlier Plan & the 2nd FYP was only moderately successful.

Important Points

• The 2nd year five-year plan functioned based on the Mahalanobis model.
• The Mahalanobis model was propounded by the famous Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in the year 1953.
• As many as five steel plants including the ones in Durgapur, Rourkela ,Bhilai were set up as per the 2nd five-year plan.
• During the term of the 2nd five-year plan, Atomic Energy Commission came into being.
• The Commission was established in the year 1957.
• During the same period, the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research was born.

Additional Information
First Five Year Plan:

• It was launched from 1951 to 1956, under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar model with a few modifications.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 3.6% (more than its target of 2.1%).
• At the end of this plan, five IITs were set up in the country.

Third Five Year Plan:

• It was made from 1961 to 1966.
• It is also called ‘Gadgil Yojna’, after the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission D.R. Gadgil.
• The target of this plan was to make the economy independent.
• The stress was laid on agriculture and the improvement in the production of wheat.
• India was engaged in two wars: (1) the Sino-India war of 1962 and (2) the Indo-Pakistani war of 1965. These wars exposed the weakness in our economy and shifted the focus to the defense industry, the Indian Army, and the stabilization of the price (India witnessed inflation).
• The plan was a flop due to wars and drought. The target growth was 5.6% while the achieved growth was 2.4%.

Fourth Five Year Plan:

• Its duration was from 1969 to 1974, under the leadership of Indira Gandhi.
• The two main objectives of this plan i.e. growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance.
• Fourteen major Indian banks were nationalized and the Green Revolution was started.
• Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 and the Bangladesh Liberation War took place.
• Implementation of Family Planning Programmes was amongst major targets of the Plan
• It failed and could achieve a growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

The logic followed is:
As the statements talk about the electricity board has started going from home to home to collect bills.
Assumption I is implicit because electricity board has started going from home to home to collect bills since people have to face many problems.
B. The electricity board has increased its focus on collecting bills.
From the statement, we can assume that if non - renewable sources of energy go exhausted, the next generation will not be able to use them and will have to think of alternatives as non - renewable energy will extinct if we are not saving it.
Therefore, Assumption II is implicit.
Hence, Both A and B are implicit
Additional Information

1. Read the statement with an approach that the assumptions would be true about the statement.
2. Do not go too logical with the statements. Analyze the given information and the assumption must only be made based on the information in the statement. Do not over-complicate it.
3. Common assumptions can always be followed but other than that do not align the statement with General Knowledge or other facts
4. Use the elimination method if you are unable to apprehend the answer. Read the statement and then the assumptions given in the options, you shall notice that a few of them will most definitely not follow. Eliminate them and then choosing from lesser options may prove to be more convenient
5. One thing to note is that the assumption is something that the author believes to be true, so while choosing the correct option, keep this thought in mind. If any option contradicts the statement, then that assumption will not follow.

A. All popular cricketers earn a handsome amount through advertisement.

Conclusion A does not follows. From the statement, we know that MS Dhoni is a popular cricketer who earns a handsome amount, but it does not gives information of all popular cricketers earn a handsome amount through advertisement.

B. MS Dhoni is fit and healthy.

Conclusion B follows. As, MS Dhoni is a popular cricketer and All cricketers are fit and healthy, which clearly implies MS Dhoni is a cricketer and being a cricketer, he is fit and healthy.

C. MS Dhoni, being famous, advertises only famous products.

Conclusion C does not follows. The statements does not gives information if MS Dhoni advertises only famous products or not.

Hence, only conclusion B follows.

Additional Information

• If there are two or more sentences that are used to frame a statement, then, the sentences must be interrelated, and mutual contradiction should be there.
• Do not look for truthful notions. The information provided in the statement is the only requirement for a student to answer the question. No assumptions must be made.
• Read the statement carefully and look for keywords that are common between the statement and the conclusions.
• If there is more than one conclusion that is applicable to the statement, students must ensure that the conclusions they opt for have some relation with each other.

The correct answer is 24th April.

Key Points

• National Panchayati Raj Day
  • The first National Panchayati Raj Day was celebrated in 2010.
  • Since then, the National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated on 24^th April every year in India. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The annual celebration is done to commemorate the day on which the 73rd Constitutional Amendment was passed in 1992.
  • The act came into effect on April 24, 1993.
  • Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had declared the first National Panchayati Raj Day on 24 April in the year 2010.
  • National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated to mark the inception of decentralized power.
  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has been awarding the best performing Panchayats/States/UTs across the country in recognition of their good work.
  • After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats, and Article 246 empowered the state legislature to legislate concerning any subject relating to local self-government.
  • Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) was constitutionalized through the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
  • PRI is a system of rural local self-government in India.
  • Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies who have been elected by the local people.
  • To strengthen e-Governance in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across the country, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has launched eGramSwaraj, a user-friendly web-based portal.

Important Points

• Salient Features of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment
  • The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment added Part IX titled “The Panchayats” to the Constitution.
  • The basic unit of the democratic system-Gram Sabhas (villages) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
  • The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels except in States with population is below 20 lakhs (Article 243B).
  • Seats at all levels to be filled by direct elections (Article 243C (2)).

Additional Information

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:
2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (0.4 × 1/2) - 1/2 × 4(1.04 - 0.2 x 0.2)
⇒ 2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (4/10 × 1/2) - 1/2 × 4(1.04 - 0.04)
⇒ 2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (4/10 × 1/2) - 1/2 × 4 × 1
⇒ 2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (4/10 × 1/2) - 2
⇒ 2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (1/5) - 2
⇒ 2.2 × 0.2 × 5 - 2
⇒ 2.2 × 1 - 2
⇒ 0.2
∴2.2 × 0.2 ÷ (0.4 × 1/2) - 1/2 × 4(1.04 - 0.2 x 0.2) = 0.2

The correct answer is 23^rd April.
Key Points

• World Book and Copyright Day
  • It is organized every year on April 23^rd by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) to promote, highlight and expand the power of reading, books, and copyright. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • On this day UNESCO aims to make a community so that readers across the world can connect with each other in turn combat isolation.
  • The theme for 2021 is-In the wake of the pandemic, UNESCO has created a theme ‘Bookface Challenge’ to celebrate World Book Day 2021.
  • This year, UNESCO argued everyone to challenge themselves, and explore new topics, books, formats, genres in one’s reading lists.
  • Their goal is to engage people in reading and encourage them to enjoy while doing so.

Important Points

• UNESCO
  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is an international organization that aims to build peace through collaborative efforts in the field of Education, Science, and Culture.
  • It was founded on November 16, 1945.
  • It is based in Paris, France.

Additional Information

The logic is:

Hence, ‘64’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A police station at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh was set on fire by a mob.
Key Points
The Non-cooperation movement:

• It was launched on 5^th September 1920 by the Indian National Congress (INC) under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
• In September 1920, in a Congress session in Calcutta, the party introduced the Non-Cooperation program.
• Non-Cooperation Movement was a sequel to the Rowlatt Act, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and the Khilafat Movement.
• It was approved by the INC at the Nagpur session in December 1920.
• Khadi & Charkha became a symbol of NCM.
• The main aim of the Non- Cooperation movement was:
  • Work for the eradication of untouchability from society.
  • Adopt Swadeshi habits including hand spinning and weaving.
  • Adopt Swadeshi principles.
• The whole movement was abruptly called off on 11^th February 1922 by Gandhi following the Chauri Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of UP (22 policemen burnt).
• Thus, we can conclude that the main reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement by Gandhiji in 1922 was that a police station at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh was set on fire by a mob. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is 137.
Key Points

• As of August 2019, 137 Himalayan peaks are open for trekking for domestic and foreign mountaineers. Hence
• The government of India has allowed access to 137 mountain peaks to foreigners desirous of obtaining a Mountaineering Visa for mountaineering and trekking.
• These Himalayan peaks are located in the States of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Sikkim.
• In the recently concluded National Tourism Conference, New Delhi, in which Tourism Ministers from States/UTs participated, the Tourism Minister emphasized utilizing the adventure tourism potential in the Indian economy and the need for ensuring the safety of those travelers going for adventure tourism.
• The highest number of 51 peaks in Uttarakhand and 15 peaks of Jammu and Kashmir have also been included in the list.
• Now foreigners can directly apply to Indian Mountaineering Foundation for permits.
• The home ministry has clarified that for carrying satellite phones the expedition teams have to take prior permissions from the department of telecommunication and all information gathered during the journey has to be shared with local formations.
• The Indian Adventure Tourism Guidelines 2018 cover land, air, and water-based activities including mountaineering, trekking, paragliding, bungee jumping, river rafting, kayaking, scuba diving, snorkeling, and many other sports.

Additional Information
The Himalayas:

• It is the highest and the youngest fold mountain range of the world.
• Their geological structure is young, weak, and flexible since the Himalayan uplift is an ongoing process, making them one of the highest earthquake-prone regions of the world.
• The Himalayas are believed to have formed over 50 million years ago with the collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian plate.
• The Indian plate slid below the Eurasian plate, due to its density being higher, and in the process crumbling and buckling up the Eurasian plate into the various mountain ranges that are now a part of the Himalayas.
• The Himalayas are a series of parallel mountain ranges extending along the North-West to the South-East direction (known as the Strike of the Himalayas).
• These ranges are separated by longitudinal valleys.
• They include,
  • Trans-Himalayas
  • The Greater Himalayas or Himadri
  • The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
  • Shivalik or the Outer Himalayas
  • The Eastern Hills or Purvanchal

The correct answer is Norway.
Key Points
Human Development Index:

• The 2020 Report has introduced the planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index, which adjusts the standard Human Development Index (HDI) by a country’s per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.
• It was published by UNDP.
• HDI emphasizes that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
• Based on three Basic Dimensions of Human Development:
  • A long and healthy life,
  • Access to knowledge, and
  • A decent standard of living.
• Norway topped the index, followed by Ireland and Switzerland. Hong Kong and Iceland complete the top five. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Singapore was ranked 11, Saudi Arabia 40, and Malaysia was at 62 in the global index, representing the top bracket among the Asian countries with “very high human development".
• Sri Lanka (72), Thailand (79), China (85) and Indonesia and Philippines (both 107), and Vietnam (117), among others, were “high human development" countries.
• India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Cambodia, Kenya, and Pakistan were ranked among countries with “medium human development" with ranks between 120 and 156.
• India ranked at 131 out of 189 countries and territories.
• Norway, which tops the HDI, falls 15 places if this metric is used, leaving Ireland at the top of the table.
• The United States (HDI Rank -17) and Canada (HDI Rank -16) would fall 45 and 40 places respectively, reflecting their disproportionate impact on natural resources.
• The oil and the gas-rich Gulf States also fell steeply. China would drop 16 places from its current ranking of 85.

Additional Information

• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • It is the UN's global development network, advocating for change and connecting countries to knowledge, experience, and resources to help people build a better life.
  • Its headquarter is in New York City but works primarily through its offices in about 170 countries and territories.
  • United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), United Nations (UN) organization formed in 1965 to help countries eliminate poverty and achieve sustainable human development, an approach to economic growth that emphasizes improving the quality of life of all citizens while conserving the environment and natural resources for future generations.

Given:

Marks scored by one student = 65%

Marks scored by another student = 80%

Let the total marks be = y

Qualifying marks of one student = 65% of y + 20

Qualifying marks of another student = 80% of y - 10

As per the question;

65% of y + 20 = 80% of y - 10

⇒ 65/100 × y + 30 = 80/100 × y

⇒ 30 = 80y/100 - 65y/100

⇒ 15y/100 = 30

⇒ y = 200

∴ The total marks of the examination are 200.

The logic followed here is:

Given series: 46, 31, 22, 17, 30, -32, -89, -179

The series is in decreasing order but 30 is exceptionally greater than 17.

Thus 30 is the wrong term.

Hence, the correct answer is "30".

The correct answer is The North Atlantic sea route.
Key Points

• The North Atlantic sea route is the busiest sea route in the world.
  • The North Atlantic sea route connects two industrially developed parts of the world.
  • The North Atlantic sea route connects ports of the western coast of Europe with the ports on the east coast of North America.
  • It carries the foreign trade greater than that of the rest of the world combined altogether.
  • One-fourth of the world foreign trade moves through this route.

Additional Information

• The North Pacific sea route connects North America and East Asia as the main sea lane for vessel traffic.
• The Panama Canal connects western Europe and North America with Australia, New Zealand, and a smattering of Pacific islands via the South Pacific sea route.
• The Cape of Good Hope route connects Eastern Asia and Europe to southern parts of Africa

The correct answer is Qatar,
Key Points

• The 2023 AFC Asian Cup was the 18th edition of the tournament, organized by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
• The event featured 24 national teams, continuing the expanded format introduced in 2019.
• Qatar, the defending champions, replaced China as hosts on 17 October 2022.
• Due to Qatar's participation in the 2023 CONCACAF Gold Cup and extreme summer temperatures, the tournament was rescheduled to 12 January – 10 February 2024.
• This tournament was the second of three consecutive Asian Cups hosted in the Middle East, following UAE (2019) and preceding Saudi Arabia (2027).
• Qatar became the first FIFA World Cup host to also host the AFC Asian Cup and retained their title by defeating Jordan 3–1 in the final.

Given:
P = 2 + √3, Q = 2 - √3
Formula used:
(a - b)(a + b) = a² - b²
Calculation:
By rationalization
P/Q = (2 + √3)/(2 - √3) × (2 + √3)/(2 + √3)
⇒ P/Q = (2 + √3)²/(2)²- (√3)²
⇒ P/Q = (4 + 3 + 4√3)/(4 - 3)
∴ P/Q = (7 + 4√3)/1

Given:

Principal = Rs.12000

Time = 5 years

Formulas used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100)ⁿ

Calculation:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100)⁵

⇒ 24000 = 12000 × (1 + r/100)⁵

⇒ 24000/12000 = (1 + r/100)⁵

⇒ 2 = (1 + r/100)⁵ (1)

⇒ At the end of 15 years,

⇒ Amount = 12000 × (1 + r/100)¹⁵

⇒ Amount = 12000 × [(1 + r/100)⁵ ]³ (From 1)

⇒12000 × 2³

⇒12000 × 8

⇒ 96000

∴ The amount at the end of 15 years will be Rs.96000

Shortcut Trick

∴ The amount at the end of 15 years will be 8 times of 12000 = Rs.96000

Concept:

The standard form of a quadratic equation is ax² + bx + c = 0

Given:

One root of the equation 2x² - 8x - m = 0, is 5/2 

Calculation:

By substituting 5/2 for x in the equation 2x² - 8x - m = 0

⇒ 2 × (5/2)² - 8 × (5/2) - m = 0

⇒ 2 × 25/4 - 40/2 - m = 0

⇒ 25/2 - 40/2 - m = 0

⇒ - 15/2 - m = 0

∴ m = -15/2

Now, by putting the value of m in the equation;

⇒ 2x² - 8x - (-15/2) = 0

⇒ 2x² - 8x + 15/2 = 0

⇒ 4x² - 16x + 15 = 0

⇒ 4x² - 10x - 6x + 15 = 0

⇒ 2x(2x - 5) - 3(2x - 5) = 0

⇒ (2x - 5)(2x - 3) = 0 n

⇒ x = 5/2, 3/2

∴ The other root, x = 3/2 and m = - 15/2

Mistake Points
One root x = 5/2 is already given in the question, we only need to find the root other than 5/2, so option 3 gets eliminated.

The correct answer is Turmeric.
Key Points

• Indian government challenges the US for patenting turmeric and forces them to revoke it.
• American researchers of Indian origin, Suman K. Das and Hari Har P. Cohly of the University of Mississippi Medical Center put a claim to the US Patent and Trademark Office, maintaining that they had discovered haldi's healing properties.
• In March 1995, they received a patent for the Haldi medication.
• On March 6, 1997, the United States filed its first complaint with the World Trade Organization (WTO) against India's 'patent protection for pharmaceutical and agricultural chemical products.'
• The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research requested a reexamination from the US Patent Office.
• This came after Indian experts screamed from the rooftops about how we are losing our traditional knowledge to marauding foreign firms stealing our ancient medicinal practices.
• The US Patent Office said it made a mistake and revoked the turmeric patent.
• This is a significant victory because it rarely entirely revokes a patent that it has awarded.
• This victory will send a strong warning to all those bio-pirates of India's herbal wealth.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,
Y - 3 = V;
V - 5 = Q;
Q - 7 = J;
J - 9 = A
Hence, ‘A’ is the correct answer.

Concept:

First five composite numbers = 4, 6, 8, 9, 10 (Which are obtained by multiplying two positive integers)

First five prime numbers = 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 (Which have only 2 factors, 1 and the number itself)

Formula used:

Mean = Sum of observations/No of observations

Calculation:

Mean of first 5 composite numbers = (4 + 6 + 8 + 9 + 10)/5 = 37/5

Mean of first 5 prime numbers = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11)/5 = 28/5

∴ The required difference = 37/5 - 28/5 = 9/5

⇒ 1.8

Given:

Denominator = 2 + Numerator

Calculation:

Let the numerator be = a

⇒The denominator be = 2 + a

As per the question;

a × 3 /(2 + a) × 2 = 1/2

⇒ 3a/(2 + a) = 1

⇒ 3a = 2 + a

⇒ 2a = 2

⇒ a = 1

Numerator = 1

Denominator = 1 + 2 = 3

∴ The required fraction = 1/3

Alternate Method
By Hit & Trial Method
By checking the condition, Denominator = 2 + Numerator
Option A: 5 ≠ 2 + 2
Option B: 4 ≠ 1 + 2
Option C: 3 ≠ 2 + 1
Option D: 3 = 2 + 1

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Census of 2011 was the 7th census after Independence.
• A population Census is a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, and disseminating demographic, social, cultural, and economic data relating to all persons in the country, at a particular time in ten years intervals.
• According to Census 2011:
  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populated state of India.
    • 16.16% of Uttar Pradesh's total population lives in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Sikkim was the least populated State in India.
  • Meghalaya has the highest population growth rate (27.95%) among the states.
  • The population of Andaman and Nicobar is the lowest.
  • Kerala was the most literate state in India.
  • Bihar was the least Literate state in India.
  • C. Chanderamouli was the Census Commissioner of India in 2011.

Additional Information

• During the British rule in India, the first census was conducted in 1872.
• The 1872 Census did not include all of the British territories they owned or controlled.
• W.C.Plowden conducted the 1881 Census on the 17th of February.
• In 1951, the first census of independent India was held.

Calculation:

Let the side of original triangle be a and area is A₁ and the new area of the equilateral triangle be A₂

Area of equilateral triangle (A₁) = √3/4 × a²

According to the question

On increasing sides by three times

New area of equilateral triangle (A₂) = √3/4 × (3a)²

⇒ √3/4 × 9a²

⇒ 9 × √3/4a²

⇒ A₂ = 9A₁

∴ The area of new equilateral will become 9 times of the original area

Given:

SP = Rs. 50

Gain = 5%

Loss = 5%

Calculation:

Let the original selling price be Rs. x

According to the question

⇒ (x × 100)/105 = (x – 50) × 100/95

⇒ 19x = 21x – 1050

⇒ 2x = 1050

⇒ x = Rs. 525

∴ The original selling price is Rs. 525.00

Given:

The shadow of a pole of 10 m height = 10√3 m

Calculation:

Let the angular elevation of sun = θ

tanθ = Perpendicular/Base

⇒ tanθ = 10/10√3

⇒ tanθ = 1/√3

⇒ tanθ = tan 30°

⇒ θ = 30°

∴ The angular elevation of the sun is 30°

The correct answer is China.
Key Points

• Indonesia hosted the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta and Palembang.
• During the opening ceremony, India's flag-bearer was Neeraj Chopra.
• China came out on top with 132 gold medals.
• In the end, India came in eighth place.
• India won 70 medals in total, including 16 gold.
• During the closing ceremony, Rani Rampal carried the Indian flag.
• In men's freestyle 65 kg wrestling, Bajrang Punia earned India's first gold medal.
• Japan placed first in the Asian Games between 1951 and 1978.
• Hangzhou, China, will host the Asian Games in 2022.

Given: 4, 14, 60, 248, ?

The logic follows here is:

4 = 4¹ - 0

14 = 4² - 2 = 4² - 2¹

60 = 4³ - 4 = 4³ - 2²

248 = 4⁴ - 8 = 4⁴ - 2³

So the series is of the form

4ⁿ - 2^n-1 where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, .....

So the next term is obtained by putting n = 5

Similarly,

= 4⁵ - 2⁴

= 1024 - 16

= 1008

Hence, 1008 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones in 2004 = 35

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones in 2008 = 70

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones from 2004 to 2008 = (70 – 35)/35 × 100

⇒ 35/35 × 100

⇒ 100%

∴ The required percentage is 100%

Four brothers: Aman, Gaurav, Aakash and Lokesh.
Occupations: Lawyer, Doctor, Professor and Engineer.
(1) Lokesh who is not the Professor, starts a conversation about the on-going IPL and after him the Engineer gives a long discourse about the teams that should reach the play-offs, implies Lokesh is not the Engineer.
(2) Aman who is sitting across the Engineer and next to the Professor responds to the Engineer's predictions. This gives two possible arrangements, as follows:

(3) Akash speaks only at the end, implies he is not the Engineer. Therefore, the final arrangement is as follows:

Now, we can answer that Akash is the professor
Hence, Akash is the correct answer.