OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ

The correct answer is ​Primary Succession.

• Ecological succession is the process by which the structure of a biological community evolves over time.
• Primary Succession:
  • In primary succession on a terrestrial site, the new site is first colonized by a few hardy pioneer species that are often microbes, lichens, and mosses. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The pioneers over a few rations alter the habitat conditions by their growth and development. These new conditions may be conducive to the establishment of additional organisms that may subsequently arrive at the site.
  • The pioneers through their death any decay leave patches of organic matter in which small animals can live.
  • The pioneer species disappear as the habitat conditions change and the invasion of new species progresses, leading to the replacement of the preceding community.
• Secondary Succession:
  • Secondary succession occurs in areas where a biological community has already existed but some or all of that community has been removed by small-scale disturbances that did not eliminate all life and nutrients from the environment.
  • Although fire, flooding, and other disturbances may drive out many plants and animals and set back the biological community to an earlier stage, the community does not “start from scratch” as it would during primary succession because the soil, which contains many nutrients provided by the former biological community, remains.
• Autogenic and Allogenic Succession:
  • When succession is brought about by living inhabitants of that community itself, the process is called autogenic succession while change is brought about by outside forces known as allogenic succession.
• Autotrophic and Heterotrophic succession:
  • Succession in which, initially the green plants are much greater in quantity is known as autotrophic succession and the ones in which the heterotrophs are greater in quant is known as heterotrophic succession.

The correct answer is ​Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986.
• It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India. Wide ranges of ecosystems and species diversity are found in this region. Thus, it was a natural choice for the premier biosphere reserve of the country.
  • It portrays the confluence of Afro-tropical and Indo-Malayan biotic zones of the world.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve encompasses parts of Tamilnadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.
• The annual rainfall of the reserve ranges from 500 mm to 7000 mm with temperatures ranging from 0°C during winter to 41°C during summer.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain forest.
• The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park, and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established mainly to fulfil the following objectives:
  • To conserve in situ genetic diversity of species.
  • To restore degraded ecosystems to their natural conditions.
  • To provide baseline data for ecological and environmental research and education.
  • To function as an alternate model for sustainable development.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve comprises substantial unspoiled areas of natural vegetation ranging from dry scrub to evergreen forests and swamps thus contributing to the highest biodiversity.
  • The altitude and climatic gradients support and nourish the different vegetational types.
  • The varied habitats of the NBR house a sizeable number of species of animals and plants including a large number of endemics having special relevance to conservation.
  • To name a few among endemic plants: Rhododendron arboretum Ssp. nilagiricum, Actinodaphne malabarica, Garcinia morella, Glochidion neilgherrensis, Garcinia gummi-gutta, Litsea bourdillonii, Michelia nilgirica, Mahonia leschenaultiana, Cinnamomum sulphuratum. etc.
  • Important faunal elements which need protection are Panthera tigris (Tiger), Elephas maximus (Elephant), Boss gaurus (Gaur), Macaca silenus (Lion tail macaque), Axis axis (Cheethal), Cervus unicolor (Sambar), Sus scrofa (Wild Boar), Muntiacus muntjak (Barking deer), Nilgiri Tahr etc.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Vice President(VP):

• VP is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Vice President shall act as President in case of any occurrence of vacancy due to death, resignation or removal.
  • Vice President can also act as President when the President is unable to discharge his function due to absence or illness.
  • In such a period Vice President will be entitled with all the immunities, powers and privileges of the President.

Election:

• Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
  • The electoral college consists of members of both houses of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Vice President shall not be a member of any house of the Parliament. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Qualification:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• Completed the age of 35 years.
• qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
• must not hold the office of profit.

Term:

• Vice President can hold the office for a term of 5 years.
  • He can resign addressed to President.
  • He can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of states passed by the Majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People for which 14 day's notice period is required.
• Vice President continue to hold his office until his successor comes.
• The election for Vice President must be conducted before the expiration of the Term.
  • In case of death, resignation or removal it should be conducted as soon as possible.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)

• CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India.
• He is the head of the Indian Audit & account department and the chief Guardian of Public purse.
• It is the institution through which the accountability of the government and other public authorities (all those who spend public funds) to Parliament and State Legislatures and through them to the people is ensured.
• Duties of CAG
  • It audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, Consolidated Fund of each state and UT having a legislative assembly. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • CAG audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and the state governments. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • It audits the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or State revenues; government companies; other corporations and bodies when so required by related laws. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
  • He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty and his certificate is final on the matter.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Atal Tunnel

• It has officially been certified by the World Book of Records as the ‘World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet’.
• World Book of Records UK, is an organisation that catalogues and verifies extraordinary records across the world with authentic certification.
• It was built by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).
• The 9.02-km tunnel is the longest highway tunnel in the world above a height of 3,000 metres. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It cuts through a mountain west of the Rohtang pass and shortens the distance between Solang Valley and Sissu by around 46 km and takes around 15 minutes to cover. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Earlier, it would take nearly 4 hours to travel between the two points.
• The Atal tunnel is the first step towards all-year connectivity to Ladakh. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• The tunnel has the potential to link Ladakh to Manali and Chandigarh throughout the year, as it bypasses Rohtang Pass, which is snowed in through the winter months.
• The tunnel provides a strategic advantage to the country's armed forces by providing year-long connectivity to border areas. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• It will save an entire day for troops and supplies as they move towards forward posts.

​​The correct answer is Moon.

The Moon

• The moon is the only natural satellite of the earth.
• Like the origin of the earth, there have been attempts to explain how the moon was formed.
• In 1838, Sir George Darwin suggested that initially, the earth and the moon formed a single rapidly rotating body.
  • The whole mass became a dumbbell-shaped body and eventually, it broke.
• It was also suggested that the material forming the moon was separated from what we have at present the depression occupied by the Pacific Ocean.
• However, the present scientists do not accept either of the explanations.
• It is now generally believed that the formation of the moon, as a satellite of the Earth, is an outcome of a ‘Giant Impact’ or what is described as “the big splat”. So, option 4 is correct.
• A body the size of one to three times that of mars collided with the earth sometime shortly after the earth was formed.
  • It blasted a large part of the earth into space.
  • This portion of blasted material then continued to orbit the earth and eventually formed into the present moon about 4.44 billion years ago

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• Padmapani is one of the protective deities around Buddha in the Ajanta Caves, who is regarded as the Bodhisattva of Compassion. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • He is also known as Avalokitesvara and is holding a Lotus flower in his hand.
  • Vajrapani, also depicted in the Ajanta caves, is regarded as the Bodhisattva of Power.
• Bodhisattva could be both male and female. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Padampani is regarded as a female by some.
• Vajrayana Buddhism has been influenced by Hinduism.
  • It is also based on the Mahayana Buddhist philosophy and believes in Tantra, Mantra, and Yantra for the attainment of Nirvana. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Gautam Buddha was a contemporary of Bimbisara and Ajatshatru.
  • He was not a contemporary of Ashoka. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Buddhism in India

• Buddhism started in India over 2,600 years ago as a way of life that had the potential of transforming a person.
• It is one of the important religions of South and South-Eastern Asian countries.
• The religion is based upon the teachings, and life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam, born in circa 563 BCE.
• He was born into the royal family of the Sakya clan who ruled from Kapilvastu, in Lumbini which is situated near the Indo-Nepal Border.
• At the age of 29, Gautama left home and rejected his life of riches and embraced a lifestyle of asceticism or extreme self-discipline.
• After 49 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya a village in Bihar.
• Buddha gave his first sermon in the village of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in UP.
  • This event is known as Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (turning of the wheel of law).
• He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagara a town in UP.
  • The event is known as Mahaparinibban.

​So, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 4.

Three processes help Earth keep its surface crater free.

• The first is called erosion.
  • Earth has weather, water, and plants.
  • These act together to break apart and wear down the ground.
  • Eventually, erosion can break a crater down to virtually nothing.
• The second thing is something called tectonics.
  • Tectonics are processes that cause our planet’s surface to form new rocks, get rid of old rocks, and shift around over millions of years.
  • Because of tectonics, the surface of Earth is recycled many times throughout its long history.
  • As a result, very few rocks on Earth are as old as the rocks on the Moon.
  • The Moon has not had tectonics for billions of years. That’s a lot more time for craters to form and stay put.
• The third thing is volcanism.
  • Volcanic flows can cover up impact craters.
  • This is a major way impact craters get covered up elsewhere in our solar system, but it is less important than the recycling of crust here on Earth.
  • The Moon once had large volcanic flows way in the past that did cover up many of the bigger earlier impacts, but it has been without volcanism for around three billion years.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Britain, France, Japan, China, Italy, Belgium, Norway, Sweden have the unitary model of government and the US, Switzerland, Australia, Canada, Russia, Brazil, Argentina, etc have the federal model of the government.
• The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government as well as the unitary system of the government in the country.
• The framers adopted the federal system due to main reasons-
  • the large size of the country
  • its socio-cultural diversity
• However, the term 'federation' has nowhere been mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• The federal features of the Indian Constitution-
  • Dual Polity
  • Written Constitution
  • Division of Powers
  • The supremacy of the Constitution
  • Rigid Constitution
  • Independent Judiciary
  • Bicameralism
• Unitary feature of the Indian Constitution-
  • Strong Centre
  • States not Indestructible
  • Single Constitution
  • The flexibility of the Constitution
  • No Equality of State Representation
  • Emergency Provisions
  • Single Citizenship
  • Integrated Judiciary
  • All India Services
  • Integrated Audit Machinery
  • Parliament's Authority over state list
  • Appointment of Governor
  • Integrated Election Machinery
  • Veto power state bills

The correct answer is option 2.

Sixth Schedule of the Constitution

• It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
• It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.

Features:

• Provisions have been made for the creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of certain legislative and judicial powers.
  • However, their jurisdiction is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court.
  • They have powers to form courts to hear cases where both parties are members of Scheduled Tribes and the maximum sentence is less than 5 years in prison. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • They also have powers to levy taxes, fees and tolls on buildings, land, animals, vehicles, boats, entry of goods into the area, roads, ferries, bridges, employment and income and general taxes for the maintenance of schools and roads.
• The Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• Governor is vested with powers regarding the councils. He/she, by public notification, may:
  • Include or exclude any new area.
  • Create a new autonomous district.
  • Define the boundaries of any autonomous district.
  • Increase or decrease the area of an existing autonomous district.
  • Alter the name of any autonomous district.

So, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

• The Hindu: ISRO’s Aditya-L1 successfully placed in a halo orbit around L1 point.

Key Points

The Lagrangian points:

• The Lagrangian points are positions in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as Earth and the moon, or Earth and the sun, create enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. These can be used by smaller objects, like spacecraft, to maintain their position relative to the large bodies. Hence option 2 is the correct answer.
• Here's how it works: As one celestial body orbits another, there are five positions in space where the gravitational forces of the two large bodies balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller object, which might be located at those points. This equilibrium enables the smaller object to stay "fixed" in a position relative to the two large bodies.
• The five points are named L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5. L1, L2, and L3 lie along the line connecting the two large bodies, while L4 and L5 form an equilateral triangle with them. L4 and L5 are particularly interesting because they are stable, which means an object can move slightly away from the exact position of the point and still be pulled back. This is why they are proposed locations for space missions or space colonies.
• To elaborate:
  • L1 is in-between the two larger bodies. It is often used for sun-observing scientific missions as it provides a constant view of the sun.
  • L2 also offers a stable environment for astronomical observations from space, staying fairly fixed in the sky relative to the Earth and Sun, and is on the 'dark side' of the Earth relative to the Sun.
  • L3 is on the opposite side of the larger of the two bodies, in line with the smaller body. In the case of the Sun and Earth, this would place it on the opposite side of the sun from us.
  • L4 and L5 lead and trail the orbit of the smaller of the two bodies forming what is known as an equilateral triangle. These points are considered stable and objects tend to gather around them, as seen with the Trojan asteroids in Jupiter's orbit.
• The Lagrangian points have become increasingly important as our ambitions in space exploration and astronomy have grown, for they provide particularly advantageous positions for spacecraft from which to observe the universe or conduct scientific missions.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4

Laterite Soil

• Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means Brick.
• The laterite soils develop in areas with High Temperatures and High Rainfall. Hence Statement 4 is Correct.
• These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
• With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.
• The Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, the application of manures and fertilisers is required for making the soils fertile for cultivation.
• Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nut. Hence Statement 3 is Correct.
• Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction.
• These soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the Peninsular plateau.
• The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.

The correct answer is option 1.

Aerosol Radiative Forcing (ARF):

• Radiative forcing is a measure of the influence a factor (e.g., greenhouse gaseous, aerosol, cloud and surface albedo) has in altering the balance of incoming and outgoing energy in the Earth-atmosphere system and is an index of the importance of the factor as a potential climate change mechanism.
• It is expressed in watts per square metre (w/m²).
• The atmospheric aerosols play a key role in the regional/global climate system through scattering and absorption of incoming solar radiation and by modifying the cloud formations and have impacts on atmospheric warming and glacier retreat.
• Aerosol Radiative Forcing (ARF) is the net change in the energy balance of the earth system due to some forced perturbation by anthropogenic aerosols. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The Research shows that the monthly mean ARF of aerosols leads to heating rates of 0.04 to 0.13 degrees Celsius per day.
• This heating over the Himalayas strengthens the temperature gradient between land and ocean and modifies the atmospheric circulation and the monsoon rainfall.
• Researchers at the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital an autonomous research institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) have found that aerosol radiative forcing larger than the global averages over the trans-Himalayas implying some amount of radiative effects, in spite of the clean atmosphere.

The correct answer is option 1.

In News

• Quality Council of India and Open Network for Digital Commerce launch DigiReady Certification Portal to empower MSMEs and small retailers.

DigiReady Certification (DRC) portal:

• The Quality Council of India (QCI) and Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) have joined forces to introduce the DigiReady Certification (DRC) portal.
• The initiative targets assessing and certifying the digital readiness of MSME entities, facilitating their seamless transition into sellers on the ONDC platform. Hence option 1 is correct.
• MSMEs can utilize an online self-assessment tool provided by the DRC portal to evaluate their digital readiness.
• The DRC portal offers a user-friendly interface, simplifying the seller journey for MSMEs and small retailers.
• Criteria for certification encompass documentation for online operations, proficiency in technology usage, integration with digital workflows, and efficient order and catalogue management.

​Additional Information

• The Indian government popularised the MSME concept through the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act 2006. The Government of India’s Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises serves as the apex ministry for developing and enforcing laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to micro, small, and medium-sized businesses in India.
• Narayan Rane is the minister of micro, small, and medium enterprises. The headquarters of MSME is located in New Delhi.
• The MSME full form is Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises. The Indian government popularised it through the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act 2006. MSME is a vibrant and dynamic sector of the Indian economy. The role of MSMEs is to provide large employment opportunities at lower capital costs than large industries.
• Additionally, It helps in the industrialization of rural & backward areas to reduce regional imbalances and assure more equitable distribution of national income and wealth.

The correct answer is an ionic compound.

Ionic Compound

• An ionic compound is a chemical compound composed of ions held together by electrostatic forces termed ionic bonding.
• The compound is neutral overall.
• It consists of:
  • positively charged ions called Cations
  • negatively charged ions called Anions
• Ionic compounds can be produced from their constituent ions by evaporation, precipitation or freezing.
• Electrostatic forces between particles are strongest when the charges are high.
• The distance between the nuclei of the ions is small.
• The compounds generally have very high melting and boiling points and low vapour pressure.
• The solubility is highest in polar solvents (such as water) or ionic liquids but tends to be low in nonpolar solvents (such as petrol/gasoline)
• When the ionic compounds are dissolved in a liquid or are melted into a liquid, they can conduct electricity because the ions become completely mobile. Hence option 1 is correct.

Option 4 is Not Correct.

Key Points

Fundamental Duties:

• ​They were added to the constitution on the recommendation of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
• They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
• This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
• This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens. Some of them are:
  • to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures; Hence option 1 is correct.
  • to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; Hence option 2 is correct.
  • to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture; Hence option 3 is correct.
• To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance; This is a directive principle of State Policy under Article 49. Hence option 4 is not correct.

The correct answer is the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced.

• Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced.

• Ball-bearing uses 'balls' as their rolling factors and works on the principle of rolling friction
  
• The bearing ring inside the shaft is known as the Inner ring and outside the shaft is known as the Outer ring.
• The ball bearing reduces the rotational friction more than a plain bearing, resulting in a decrease in the amount of energy consumption during rotation.
• It is used between the wheels of cars, bicycles. etc. and it supports radial and axial loads.

The correct answer is 4 i.e. 1, 2 and 3.

• Maize starch is produced by the wet milling process, which involves the grinding of softened maize and separation of corn oil seeds (germs), gluten (proteins), fibers (husk), and finally pure starch.
  • ​Corn starch is made from maize kernels, which are high in starch. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Corn starch has a wide variety of applications. It is used as a thickening agent in soups.
  • Corn starch is also used in manufacturing bio-plastics and the preparation of corn syrup.
• The general way to Produce Biodiesel fuels is transesterification of fat or oil triacylglycerols with short-chain alcohol such as methanol or ethanol in the presence of alkaline or acid catalysts.
  • Corn Biodiesel chemically is a mixture of long-chain fatty acid methyl esters (FAMEs).
  • Oil extracted from maize that can be converted into ethanol or biodiesel. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The type of alcohol in the alcoholic drinks we drink is a chemical called ethanol. To make alcohol, you need to put grains, fruits, or vegetables through a process called fermentation. the common source of ethanol is maize and other grains. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Commercial Paper:

• Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-period debt tool issued by a company, usually for finance and inventories and temporary liabilities.
• The maturities in this paper do not last longer than 270 days.
• These papers are like a promissory note allotted at a huge cost and exchangeable between the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) and Primary Dealers (PDs).
• Most of the commercial paper investors are from the banking sector, individuals, corporate and incorporated companies, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), etc.
• However, FII can only invest according to the limit outlined by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
• In India, commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by the Primary Dealers (PDs) and the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) for a short period of 90 days to 364 days.

Features of Commercial Paper:

• It is a short-term money market tool, including a promissory note and a set maturity.
• It acts as an evidence certificate of unsecured debt.
• It is subscribed at a discount rate and can be issued in an interest-bearing application.
• The issuer guarantees the buyer to pay a fixed amount in the future in terms of liquid cash and no assets.
• A company can directly issue the paper to investors, or it can be done through banks/dealer banks.

Additional Information

Treasury Bills (T-Bills):

• Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are government bonds or debt securities with a maturity of less than a year.
• T- bills are issued to meet short-term mismatches in receipts and expenditures.

A certificate of deposit (CD):

• A certificate of deposit (CD) is a savings certificate with a fixed maturity date and specified fixed interest rate that can be issued in any denomination aside from minimum investment requirements.
• A CD restricts access to the funds until the maturity date of the investment. CDs are generally issued by commercial banks.

Repo:

• A repurchase agreement, or repo for short, is a type of short-term loan used in the money markets, whereby the seller of a security agrees to buy it back at a specified price and time.
• The seller pays an interest rate, called the repo rate when buying back the securities.

The correct answer is option 3.

In News

• The HINDU: Details regarding Nobel laureate Muhammad Yunus.

Nobel Prize: Muhammad Yunus was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 for his innovative efforts in founding Grameen Bank and for pioneering microcredit and microfinance. His work has empowered countless individuals, especially women, to lift themselves out of poverty. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Social Entrepreneurship: Known as the 'Banker to the Poor,' Yunus is celebrated for his significant contributions to social entrepreneurship and microfinancing, which have had a lasting impact on economic development and poverty alleviation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Fortune Magazine Recognition: In 2012, Fortune Magazine recognized Muhammad Yunus as one of the greatest entrepreneurs of our time, highlighting his visionary leadership and transformative impact on the global economy. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Founder of Grameen Bank:
  • In 1983, Yunus established Grameen Bank in Bangladesh, focusing on providing small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral.
  • Grameen Bank is credited with lifting millions from poverty — it has disbursed collateral-free loans of $34.01 billion among 9.55 million people since its inception.
  • The recovery rate is 97.22%, as per a report by Daily Sun, a Bangladesh-based national daily.
• Microfinance Revolution:
  • His concept of microcredit has been influential globally, inspiring similar microfinance efforts in around 100 countries, including developed nations.
  • The Grameen Bank model primarily focuses on lending to women, recognizing their crucial role in family and community welfare​​.
• Global Initiatives and Recognition:
  • In 2011, he co-founded Yunus Social Business – Global Initiatives (YSB), which supports and creates social businesses worldwide.
  • Yunus also served as the Chancellor of Glasgow Caledonian University from 2012 to 2018 and has been a member of various international foundations and organizations​​.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

​​Second Schedule of the Constitution:

• Second Schedule deals with provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of
  • The President of India
  • The Governors of States
  • The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  • The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
  • The Judges of the Supreme Court
  • The Judges of the High Courts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
• The original remuneration for the prime minister and other ministers was specified in Part B of the second schedule of the constitution, which was later removed by an amendment.
  • Prime Minister is covered under the purview of the Salaries and Allowances Of Minister Act, 1952. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Leaders of Opposition are covered under the purview of Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament, 1977. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer is option 2.

Appreciation of the Rupee

• In a floating exchange rate system, market forces (based on the demand and supply of a currency) determine the value of a currency.
• It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency.
• Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles.
• Currency appreciation discourages a country's export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy.

Foreign Capital

• The inflow of foreign capital leads to an appreciation of the rupee, while the outflow would lead to a depreciation of the rupee. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
  • When Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) bring their capital into India, they need to convert these currencies into rupees, to be able to buy stocks.
  • Hence, they need to sell their currencies to buy rupees.
  • When this happens, the demand for the rupee goes up and pushes up its value against the foreign currency.

Current Account

• The current account is the balance of trade between a country and its trading partners, reflecting all payments between countries for goods, services, interest and dividends.
  • A deficit in the current account shows that the country is spending more on foreign trade than it is earning and that it is borrowing capital from foreign sources to make up the deficit.
  • In other words, the country requires more foreign currency than it receives through sales of exports, and it supplies more of its own currency than foreigners demand for its products.
  • The excess demand for foreign currency lowers the country's exchange rate until domestic goods and services are cheap enough for foreigners, and foreign assets are too expensive to generate sales for domestic interests.
  • Hence, a higher current account deficit can lead to the depreciation of the rupee while a lower current deficit can lead to an appreciation of the rupee. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Inflation

• ​As a general rule, a country with a consistently lower inflation rate exhibits a rising currency value, as its purchasing power increases relative to other currencies.
• Those countries with higher inflation typically see depreciation in their currency in relation to the currencies of their trading partners. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

Monetary Policy

• ​​Expansionary monetary policy is a set of policy measures used by the RBI to stimulate the economy.
  • It will lead to the money supply in an economy, hence it is inflationary in nature.
  • Those countries with higher inflation typically see depreciation in their currency. Hence, option 4 is not correct.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Atlantic Ocean Current

• The behaviour of the Atlantic Ocean Currents is quite significant because of their influence on the climate of North-western Europe, the climate of North-Western Africa, and fishing in the Grand banks region.
• Ocean currents in the Atlantic ocean include the below-given currents:
  • North Equatorial Current (warm)
  • South Equatorial Current (warm)
  • Equatorial Counter Current
  • Gulf Stream (warm)
  • Florida Current (Warm)
  • Canary current (Cold) - Hence, 1 is correct.
  • Labrador Current (Cold)
  • Brazilian Current (Warm)
  • Falkland Current (Cold)
  • South Atlantic Drift (Cold)
  • Benguela Current (Cold) - Hence, 2 is correct.​

Canaries Current

• It flows southwards along the coasts of Europe and Africa, to finally merge with the North Equatorial Current.
• Since it receives water from the polar regions, it is a cold current.

South Atlantic Current and Benguela Current

• On traversing westwards, the current is diverted northwards by the landmass of Africa.
• It is called Benguela current flowing along the west coast of Africa in the northward direction.
• Benguela current brings the cold polar waters from the West Wind drift into the tropical latitudes.
• Both these currents are cold waters.

Humboldt Current

• It is the current of the South Pacific Ocean. Hence, 3 is incorrect.
• The Humboldt Current, also called the Peru Current, is a cold, low-salinity ocean current that flows north along the western coast of South America.
• The Humboldt Current is a highly productive ecosystem.
• It accounts for roughly 18-20% of the total worldwide marine fish catch.

So, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is Doctrine of Eclipse.

Key Points

Doctrine of Eclipse:

• There were several existing laws at the time when the Constitution was adopted, some of which were in direct conflict with Fundamental Rights, so in order to determine the validity of these laws the Supreme Court came up with certain principles/doctrines, one of which was the Doctrine of Eclipse.
• This doctrine emanates directly from Article 13(1) of the Constitution that is a part of the Fundamental Rights, which states, “all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, i.e. Part III, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.”
• The Doctrine of Eclipse envisages Fundamental Rights as prospective in nature.
• It states that a pre-constitutional law inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights is not a nullity or void ab initio but only remains unenforceable i.e., remains in a dormant state.
• These laws also remain applicable to individuals who have not been given Fundamental Rights, for example, non-citizens.
• Therefore, the impugned law remains hidden behind the fundamental rights and can become operative again if and when the Fundamental Right it is inconsistent with is amended. Hence option 2 is Correct answer.

Additional Information

Doctrine of Severability:

• As an extension of Article 13, the doctrine states that when some particular provision of the statute infringes or violates the Fundamental Rights, but the provision is severable from the rest of the statute, and then only that provision will be declared void by the courts and not the entire statute.
• The doctrine essentially lays down that if violative and non-violative provisions are separated in a way that the non-violative provision can exist without the violative provision, then the non-violative provision will be upheld as valid and enforceable.

Doctrine of Repugnancy:

• This doctrine deals with the conflict of law arises between Center and States. Article 254(1) states that if any provision of law or law made by the legislature of the State is repugnant to the any provision of law or law made by the Parliament, then the law made by Parliament will prevail over State enacted Law.

Doctrine of Progressive realization of Rights:

• The Doctrine of Progressive realization of Rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be “sensible” and “easy to apply”. Once right is recognized, it cannot be taken back by state at later date.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Chief Minister:

• Article 164 says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor. However, this does not imply that the Governor is free to appoint anyone as the Chief Minister.
• In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the Governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister.
• The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
• According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a state legislature. Hence statement 2 is Incorrect.
• Usually Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly), but, on a number of occasions, a member of the Upper House (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief Minister. (eg. Maharashtra: Shri Uddhav Thakarey)
• The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative Assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The Governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the Legislative Assembly within a reasonable period. Hence statement 3 is Incorrect.

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

Lieutenant Governor in India:

• Lieutenant Governor in India acts as the nominal head of the union territory.
• Article 239 - Administration of Union territories
  • ​(1) Save as otherwise provided by Parliament by law, every Union territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify
  • (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in Part VI, the President may appoint the Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union territory, and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions as such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers
• The administrator appointed under Article 239 is known as the Lieutenant Governor. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• In UTs, the real power lies with the lieutenant governor or administrator, except in NCT of Delhi and Puducherry where they share power with a council of ministers headed by a chief minister.
• In India, a lieutenant governor is in charge of a union territory. However, the rank is present only in the union territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi, and Puducherry. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• However, the governor of Punjab acts as the administrator of Chandigarh.
• Lieutenant governors do not hold the same rank as a governor of a state in the list of precedence.
• The governors and lieutenant governors are appointed by the president for a term of five years.
• The Government of NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021 requires the LG to reserve certain Bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President. These Bills are those:
  • (i) which may diminish the powers of the High Court of Delhi,
  • (ii) which the President may direct to be reserved,
  • (iii) dealing with the salaries and allowances of the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, and members of the Assembly and the Ministers, or
  • (iv) relating to official languages of the Assembly or the NCT of Delhi. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
  • The act requires the LG to also reserve those Bills for the President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the powers of the Legislative Assembly.
• This act seeks to ensure that the L-G is “necessarily granted an opportunity” to give her or his opinion before any decision taken by the Council of Ministers (or the Delhi Cabinet) is implemented.
• Under President's rule, the lieutenant governor assumes the role of a full executive leader. He has the power to choose advisors to serve on the Council of Ministers. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is the Acquisition Cost.

Key Points

• Economic Cost is the total cost for FCI.
• It consists of Acquisition Cost and Distribution Cost.
• Acquisition cost consists of Minimum Support Price (MSP) plus procurement incidental cost.
• Procurement incidentals are expenses incurred during procurement till the foodgrains reach the first point of the godown.
• The elements are state taxes, commission to arathias or societies, bagging materials, mandi labour, transportation from mandi to depot etc.
• The methodology followed for Calculation of Economic Cost is based on the GoI circular to apportion the operational cost of FCI into Buffer Carrying cost and Distribution cost.
• Distribution cost becomes the part of the Economic cost whereas the Buffer carrying cost becomes the part of the Buffer subsidy.

Additional Information

• The operational Cost of FCI is categorized under the following elements-
  • Transportation Cost/Freight
  • Handling Charges
  • Storage Losses
  • Interest cost
  • Operational Losses
  • Administration Charges

The correct answer is Option 1.

Graphite ​

• Graphite is a covalent compound.
• These are network or giant compounds because the atoms are connected with the adjacent atom throughout the crystal.
• The compounds are insulators but graphite is an exception.
• The exceptional property is due to its structure.
• Carbon atoms are arranged in different layers and each atom is covalently bonded to three of its neighbouring atoms in the same layer.
• ​The fourth valence electron of each atom is present between different layers and is free to move about.
• These free electrons make graphite a good conductor of electricity. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Different layers can slide one over the other. This makes graphite a soft solid and a good solid lubricant.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

The Hindu–German Conspiracy / Zimmerman Plan:-

• The Hindu–German Conspiracy was a series of attempts between 1914 and 1917 by Indian nationalist groups to create a Pan-Indian rebellion against the British Empire during World War I.
• This rebellion was formulated between the Indian revolutionary underground and exiled or self-exiled nationalists in the United States.
• The Berlin committee was established for Indian Independence in the year 1915.
• Berlin drew activists such as Har Dayal, Maulana Barkatullah, Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Raja Mahendra Pratap, Bhai Parmanand, and others who formed part of the Berlin India Committee.
• The committee was formed with the help of the German foreign office under the ‘Zimmerman Plan’.
• The main aim of the committee was to send volunteers and arms to India.
• During the First World War, the Jugantar party arranged to import German arms and ammunition through sympathizers and revolutionaries abroad.
• Jatin asked Rashbehari Bose to take charge of Upper India, aiming to bring about an all-India insurrection in what has come to be called the ‘German Plot’ or the ‘Zimmerman Plan’.

The correct answer is ​1, 2 and 3 only.

• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 33 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• The Constitution of India has not fixed the tenure of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • However, it makes the following three provisions:
    • He/she holds office until the age of 65 years.
    • Can resign the office by writing to the President.
    • Can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.
• The Judge of Supreme Court may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity'. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• While the Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, it is colloquially used to refer to the proceedings under Article 124 (for the removal of a Supreme Court judge) and Article 218 (for the removal of a High Court judge). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• The Constitution provides that a judge can be removed only by an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The procedure for removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968.
  • ​Under the Act, an impeachment motion may originate in either House of Parliament.
  • To initiate proceedings:
    • At least 100 members of Lok Sabha may give a signed notice to the Speaker, or at least 50 members of Rajya Sabha may give a signed notice to the Chairman.
    • The Speaker or Chairman may consult individuals and examine relevant material related to the notice.
    • Based on this, he or she may decide to either admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
  • If the motion is admitted, the Speaker or Chairman (who receives it) will constitute a three-member committee to investigate the complaint.
    • It will comprise:
      • A Supreme Court judge
      • Chief Justice of a High Court
      • A distinguished jurist
    • The committee will frame charges based on which the investigation will be conducted.
  • After concluding its investigation, the Committee will submit its report to the Speaker or Chairman, who will then lay the report before the relevant House of Parliament.
  • The motion for removal is required to be adopted by each House of Parliament by:
    • A majority of the total membership of that House.
    • A majority of at least two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
  • If the motion is adopted by this majority, the motion will be sent to the other House for adoption.
  • Once the motion is adopted in both Houses, it is sent to the President, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge.