General Knowledge Mock Test - 3 - CDS MCQ

The correct answer is Statements 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false.

Concept:

• Hormones play a crucial role in the onset and regulation of reproductive functions during adolescence, including the initiation of puberty.
• The pituitary gland is a key player in the endocrine system, regulating the release of hormones, including sex hormones, which in turn play significant roles in sexual development and function.
• Sex hormones also influence emotional and cognitive changes, not just physical development, during puberty and across the lifespan.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is true: Hormones are critical in initiating reproductive functions and other physical changes during adolescence.
• Statement 2 is true: The pituitary gland plays a regulatory role in the release of sex hormones, acting under the influence of the hypothalamus and affecting the gonads testes in males and ovaries in females.
• Statement 3 is false: Sex hormones have a broader array of effects, including on emotional and cognitive development. For example, changes in estrogen and testosterone levels are associated with mood fluctuations, cognitive changes, and behavioral adjustments during puberty.

​Conclusion:

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• Prosopis Juliflora and Spirulina can be used as Potential bioenergy feed stock.

Key Points

Biofuels-

• The production of renewable and sustainable biofuels is a solution to depleting fossil fuels.
• Significantly, the sustainable biorefinery of lignocellulosic waste is an alternative fuel source.
• It is a prognosticating approach to tackle many agricultural/forestry residue problems like stubble burning.
• It offers a circular economy as well as environmental benefits.
• Various lignocellulosic biomass like sugarcane bagasse, berry waste, jatropha seeds, sunflower straw, sorghum stem, rice straw, waste peach pulp, wheat straw, and corn stover, can help effective production of biofuels.

Prosopis juliflora-

• Recently G. Gayathri & Kiran Babu Uppuluri conducted a comprehensive characterization of Prosopis juliflora pods as a potential bioenergy feedstock. Hence 1 is correct.
• The Prosopis juliflora (Pj) plant is drought-tolerant.
• It is an evergreen tree with drooping branches of the Leguminosae family as an energy stock.
• The native of the Pj pods to arid and semi-arid regions of the world.
• Pj plants have been colonized in many countries, such as North America, Africa, and Asia.
• Pj plants have flexible branches
• It has a green-brown, twisted stem, and curving multi-seeded pods with a hardened pericarp and flattened.
• Pj plants can survive in a very harsh and poor soil environment
• It controls erosion, improves soil fertility, and reduces soil salinity in drylands.

Spirulina-

• Spirulina is a biomass of cyanobacteria that can be consumed by humans and animals.
• Spirulina is an edible microalga and a highly nutritious potential feed resource for many agriculturally important animal species. Hence 2 is correct.
• Research findings have associated Spirulina to improvements in animal growth, fertility, aesthetic and nutritional product quality.
• Spirulina intake has also been linked to an improvement in animal health.
• Spirulina is emerging as a cost-effective means of improving animal productivity for a sustainable and viable food security future.

Additional Information

Lactobacillus Plantarum JBC5

• It is a next-generation probiotic bacterium developed from a dairy product.
• This probiotic bacterium was found to improve longevity and healthy aging
• It modulates antioxidative, innate immunity, and serotonin-signaling pathway.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• (1) Any seven or more members of a Trade Union may, by subscribing their names to the rules of the Trade Union and by otherwise complying with the provisions of this Code with respect to registration, apply for registration of the Trade Union under this Code.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• (2) No Trade Union of workers shall be registered unless at least ten per cent. of the workers or one hundred workers, whichever is less, engaged or employed in the industrial establishment or industry with which it is connected are the members of such Trade Union on the date of making of application for registration.
  • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• (3) Where an application has been made under sub-section (1) for registration of a Trade Union, such application shall not be deemed to have become invalid merely by reason of the fact that, at any time after the date of the application but before the registration of the Trade Union, some of the applicants, but not exceeding half of the total number of persons who made the application, have ceased to be members of the Trade Union or have given notice in writing to the Registrar dissociating themselves from the application.
• (4) A registered Trade Union of workers shall at all times continue to have not less than ten per cent. of the workers or one hundred workers, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of seven, engaged or employed in an industrial establishment or industry with which it is connected, as its members.
• A Trade Union shall not be entitled to registration under this Code, unless the executive thereof is constituted in accordance with the provisions of this Code, and the rules of the Trade Union provide for the following matters, namely:—
  • (a) the name of the Trade Union;
  • (b) the whole of the objects for which the Trade Union has been established;
  • (c) the whole of the purposes for which the general funds of the Trade Union shall be applicable, all of which purposes shall be purposes to which such funds are lawfully applicable under this Code;
  • (d) the maintenance of a list of members of the Trade Union and adequate facilities for the inspection thereof by the office-bearers and members of the Trade Union;

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Economic capital includes both produced (man-made) and financial assets.
• The key components of Economic capital are:
  • Produced fixed assets
  • Intellectual property assets
  • Gross fixed capital formation
  • Investment in R&D
  • The financial net worth of the total economy
  • The financial net worth of general government
• According to Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), there are large disparities that persist across OECD countries in the case of economic capital.
  • The OECD average stock of produced fixed assets increased by 11%, cumulatively, between 2010 and 2018, and intellectual property assets by 16%.
  • However, annual growth in gross fixed capital formation in 2018 was lower than in 2010 for around one-third of OECD countries, and rates of R&D investment have only increased by around half.
  • OECD countries’ net financial positions have diverged further since 2010, and the gap between the top and bottom OECD countries has widened for the financial net worth of the general government sector.
  • Household debt levels across OECD countries range from 200% of disposable income to less than 50%.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Key Points

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
  • It is considered a significant source of non-debt financial resource for economic development.
  • A non-resident entity can invest in India except in those sectors/activities which are prohibited.
  • A person resident outside India may hold a foreign investment in any particular Indian company either as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) or as Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI).
  • ‘FDI’ or ‘Foreign Direct Investment’ means investment through capital instruments by a person resident outside India.
  • Entities that can invite FDI in India
    • Indian Company
    • Partnership Firm
    • Proprietary Concern
    • Trusts
    • Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs)
    • Investment Vehicle
    • Startup Companies
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The Correct Answer is Streams of stars that are building blocks of the Milky Way.

In News

• Scientists uncover Milky Way’s ancient building blocks, Shakti & Shiva.

Key Points

• Shakti and Shiva are comprised of stars with similar chemical compositions.
• Each structure has a mass about 10 million times greater than our sun.
• These structures were found using observations from European Space Agency's Gaia space telescope.
• The scientists predicted that these may be the relics of two distinct galaxies that merged 12 billion years ago with the Milky Way's primordial pieces.
• The Milky Way is a large spiral-shaped galaxy populated by hundreds of billions of stars whose disk measures approximately 100,000 light years in diameter.
• A light year is the distance light travels in a year, 5.9 trillion miles (9.5 trillion km).

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3.

In News

• The Election Commission announced the schedule for the Lok Sabha polls on March 16

Key Points

• Lok Sabha Polls:
  • Voting will be conducted in 7 phases from April 19 to June 1. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The results will be announced on June 4. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The Model Code of Conduct is in effect immediately following the announcement of the schedule.
• Phase-wise Breakdown:
  • First phase: 102 constituencies
  • Second phase: 89 constituencies
  • Third phase: 94 constituencies
  • Fourth phase: 96 constituencies
  • Fifth phase: 49 constituencies
  • Sixth phase: 57 constituencies
  • Seventh phase: 57 constituencies (Hence statement 3 is correct.)
• Assembly Elections:
  • Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim will hold assembly elections on April 19.
  • Andhra Pradesh (A.P.) assembly elections will be on May 13.
  • Odisha assembly elections will take place in four phases on May 13, May 20, May 25, and June 1.

• Group 18 of the periodic table which contains Nobel gases is called group 0.
• It was originally termed as group 0 because after the discovery of Nobel gases, it was believed that they could not bond with other elements.
• It was later found that some of them do form compounds with other elements.

The correct answer is Only two

Key Points

Money and Functions:

• Money is a commonly accepted medium of exchange.
• Money is anything that can be generally accepted as payment for goods and services or settlement of debts.
• Money is the most liquid (it is easy to sell in the market like gold, silver etc.) of all assets in the sense that it is universally acceptable and hence can be exchanged for other commodities very easily.

Primary Functions:

• The measure of value- Money serves as a common measure of value or unit of account so, the relative comparison of goods is possible. This is possible because of the Divisibility & Fungibility of money. Hence, statement 2 is the primary function of money.
• Medium of exchange (transaction) – people can easily exchange goods and services with money. Hence, statement 3 is the primary function of money.

Secondary Functions:

• Store of Value- It can be kept as savings (in a bank account) and could be used for investment purposes e.g. buying property. Its storage costs are also considerably lower.
• Transfer of Value- money has the same value throughout the country and its value is transferrable.
• Deferred Payment- Money also serves as a standard mode of deferred payments. Time value of Money, for instance, Credit card, EMI etc. If a loan is taken today, it can be paid back in future using money.

Contingent Functions:

• It is the Basis of the credit system and Financial markets.
• National Income Distribution
• Credit Creation
• Money maximizes the satisfaction of producers and consumers.

Concept:

Xerophytes:

• They are the plants that are able to survive in very dry places.
• They are generally found in areas like deserts.
• When water is abundant, their rate of transpiration is the same as other plants.
• In a prolonged drought, they have several survival mechanisms which make them successful.

Explanation:

• The most characteristic feature is the presence of chlorenchymatous palisade cells in the cortex, the function of these cells is decidedly to carry on photosynthesis in place of leaves.
• The sclerenchymatous hypodermis is present in a monocotyledonous stem. It is 2-3 layered thick and lies below the type epidermis. It is made up of thick-walled lignified sclerenchyma fibers.
• Xerophytes plants have a thick waxy cuticle on the stem and leaves. This waxy cuticle reduces water evaporation.
• Aerenchyma is the spaces or air channels in the leaves, stems, and roots of some plants. Aerenchyma is also widespread in aquatic and wetland plants, which must grow in hypoxic soils. It is an adaptation of hydrophytes.

So, the Presence of aerenchymatous cells in the stem is not an adaptation for Xerophytes.

Additional Information

Mesophytes

• Mesophytes are terrestrial plants that live in an average supply of water.
• Examples of mesophytes are sunflowers, palm trees, roses, and tomatoes.

Hydrophytes

• Hydrophytes are plants that live in water.
• Examples of hydrophytes are lotus and water lily.

Epiphytes

• Epiphytes are plants that grow upon another plant or object merely for physical support.
• Epiphytes have no attachment to the ground or other obvious nutrient sources and are not parasitic on the supporting plants.
• Epiphytes are also called air plants.
• Examples of epiphytes are orchids and mosses.

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only.

​Key Points

Countries on the equator:

• Of the 13 countries that lie on the equator, seven are in Africa—the most of any continent—and South America is home to three of the nations.
• The remaining countries are island nations in the Indian and Pacific oceans.
• The Equator passes through the following countries of South America:
  • Ecuador
  • Colombia
  • Brazil
    • ​Hence statements 1 and 4 are correct and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

​

Important Point

Equator:

• The Equator is an imaginary line around the middle of a planet or other celestial body.
• It is halfway between the North Pole and the South Pole, at 0 degrees latitude.
• An equator divides the planet into a Northern Hemisphere and a Southern Hemisphere.
• The Earth is widest at its Equator.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key Points

• The Chairman and every other Member of the Central Administrative Tribunal shall be appointed after consultation with the Chief Justice of India by the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• According to the 272 Law Commission Report, Some of the Tribunals allow for reappointment and some of the tribunals do not allow for the same. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• National Green Tribunal:
  • It is a specialized body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
  • With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
  • NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
  • The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four.
• The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for non-compliance:
  • Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years,
  • Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and
  • Both fine and imprisonment. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 3.

In News

• Down to Earth: Gene variant in people of African origin helps control HIV, says study.

Key Points

CHD1L gene:

• CHD1L stands for Chromodomain Helicase DNA Binding Protein 1-Like.
• This gene is located on chromosome 1 (1q21) in humans.
• CHD1L is a protein-coding gene.
• The CHD1L gene encodes a protein that belongs to the SNF2/RAD54 helicase family.
• This protein has a chromo-ATPase/helicase-like domain, which can alter chromosome structure and modify chromatin.
• The CHD1L gene is involved in important cellular processes such as transcription regulation, DNA repair, and chromosome stability.
• It's also crucial for embryonic development.

Important Points

• Some people of African descent possess a gene variant that likely controls human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), lowering their risk of transmitting the virus and delaying the advancement of their own illness, according to a new study. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The gene in question is Chromodomain Helicase DNA Binding Protein 1 Like (CHD1L), which contains information to make proteins that allow the body to repair DNA damage.
• A variant of the CHD1L gene, specifically present in the African population, has been linked to the reduced viral load (amount of HIV in the blood) of the most common and virulent type of HIV, called HIV-1 (more common and severe retrovirus compared to HIV-2), the study published in journal Nature on August 2, 2023, noted.
• They analysed the DNA of almost 4,000 people of African ancestry living with HIV-1 and found a gene variant CHD1L on chromosome 1. People carrying this variant had a low viral load. This lowers their risk of spreading the virus and slowing the progress of their own illness.

CONCEPT:

Electric Fuses

• An electric fuse is a safety device used in electrical circuits to protect against excessive current.

• Function: The primary function of a fuse is to break the circuit if the current flowing through it exceeds a certain threshold, thereby preventing potential damage to the electrical components and reducing the risk of fire.
• Construction: A fuse typically consists of a thin wire or strip of metal that melts when too much current flows through it.
• Operation: When the current exceeds the rated capacity of the fuse, the heat generated by the current causes the fuse wire to melt, breaking the circuit and stopping the flow of electricity.

EXPLANATION:

• From the above discussion, it is clear that:
• Assertion: Electric fuses are used in electrical circuits - This statement is true.
• Reason: Electric fuses prevent overloading by breaking the circuit when excessive current flows through it - This statement is true and is the correct explanation for the assertion.

The correct is Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

Additional Information

• Types of Fuses: There are various types of fuses, including cartridge fuses, blade fuses, and ceramic fuses, each designed for specific applications and current ratings.
• Applications: Fuses are used in a wide range of applications, from household appliances and automotive circuits to industrial machinery and power systems.
• Maintenance: It is important to replace blown fuses with ones of the correct rating to ensure the continued protection of the circuit.

The correct answer is Blood.

Key Points

• Thrombosis is a blood clot within blood vessels that limits the flow of blood.
• Acute venous and arterial thromboses are the most common cause of death in developed countries.
• Thrombosis occurs when there is an imbalance in endogenous anticoagulation and hemostasis through a complex pathophysiologic mechanism.

Additional Information

• Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot (partial or complete blockage) within blood vessels, whether venous or arterial, limiting the natural flow of blood and resulting in clinical sequela.
• The ability of blood to flow freely in vessels relies on complex homeostasis that exists between blood cells
  • (including platelets), plasma proteins, coagulation factors,
  • inflammatory factors and cytokines, and the endothelial lining within the lumen of arteries and veins.
• When there is an imbalance with this physiologic process, there can be an increased risk of developing a thrombosis versus a coagulopathy (increased risk of bleeding).

Important Points

• other diseases
  • Lungs: Pneumonia, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),Lung Cancer.
  • Thyroid Gland: Hypothyroidism, Hyperthyroidism ,Thyroid Cancer:
  • Nerve Burst (Assuming you mean nerve-related conditions):Peripheral Neuropathy ,Stroke, Nerve Compression Disorders:

The correct answer is Rahul Singh

In News

• Rahul Singh, a senior bureaucrat and a 1996-batch IAS officer of the Bihar cadre, has been appointed as the new chairperson of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

Key Points

• Singh is currently serving as the Additional Secretary in the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
• Nidhi Chhibber, the outgoing CBSE chairperson, has been appointed as Advisor to the Niti Aayog.
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved Singh's appointment, as per an order issued by the Personnel Ministry.

Additional Information

• A P Das Joshi, a 1994-batch IAS officer of the Assam-Meghalaya cadre, will replace Singh as the new Additional Secretary in DoPT.
• Rajeev Kumar Mital has been appointed as the Director General of the National Mission for Clean Ganga under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Gyanesh Bharti will take over as the Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Women and Child Development, while Deepak Narain has been named as the Additional Secretary and Financial Advisor in the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

Kirchhoff's Law

For an arbitrary body emitting and absorbing thermal radiation in thermodynamic equilibrium, the emissivity and absorptivity are equal. That means anybody absorbing heat well will also emit the heat energy well.

The Correct Answer is 126.

In News

• World Happiness Report for 2024: India ranks 126 same as previous year.

Key Points

• Finland topped the list for the seventh year in a row, followed by Denmark, Iceland and Sweden.
• Israel too made it to the top five of the ranking.
• Meanwhile, Afghanistan was deemed as the least happy country, after Congo, Sierra Leone, Lesotho and Lebanon.
• India ranked 126th while China ranked 60th, Nepal at 93, Pakistan at 108, Myanmar at 118, Sri Lanka at 128 and Bangladesh at 129th spots.
• The World Happiness Report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network and takes into account six variables — GDP per capita, healthy life expectancy, having someone to count on, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and freedom from corruption.
• It is supported by taking the average life evaluation data gathered by the Gallup polls for the 2021-23 period.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• The Central Government, through the Food Corporation of India (FCI), has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of food grains to the State Governments. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• State Governments responsible for operations including allocation within State, identification of eligible families, issue of Ration Cards and supervision of the functioning of Fair Price Shops (FPSs) etc. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

Public Distribution System (PDS)

• The Public Distribution System (PDS) evolved as a system of management of scarcity and for distribution of food grains at affordable prices.
• Over the years, PDS has become an important part of Government‟s policy for the management of food economy in the country.
• PDS is supplemental in nature and is not intended to make available the entire requirement of any of the commodities distributed to a household or a section of the society.
• PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and the State Governments.
• The Central Government, through Food Corporation of India (FCI), has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of food grains to the State Governments.
• State Governments responsible for operations including allocation within State, identification of eligible families, issue of Ration Cards and supervision of the functioning of Fair Price Shops (FPSs) etc.
• Under the PDS, presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution.
• Some States/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.

The correct answer is Only one​.

Key Points

Pharma sector

• The Pharma sector is one of the top 10 attractive sectors for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India and currently, it contributes to around 1.72% of the country’s GDP.
• Generic drugs, OTC Medicines, API/Bulk Drugs, Vaccines, Contract Research & Manufacturing, Biosimilars & Biologics are the major Segments of the Pharmaceutical Industry.
• The Pharmaceutical industry in India is the 3rd largest in the world in terms of volume and14th largest in terms of value. Hence, statement 1 is not correct
• Due to preference for Indian medicines worldwide, India is also known as the "Pharmacy of the world".
• India is the largest provider of generic drugs globally. Hence, statement 2 is correct
• The Indian pharmaceutical industry meets over 50% of global demand for various vaccines, 40% of generic demand in the U.S. and 25% of all medicine in the U.K.
• Presently, over 80% of the antiretroviral drugs used globally to combat AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) are supplied by Indian pharmaceutical firms.
• About 20% of the global exports in generic drugs are met by India. It contributes 3.5% of the total drugs and medicines exported globally.
• FDI in Greenfield Pharmaceuticals Project has been allowed through automatic route up to 100% and for Brownfield pharmaceuticals projects it is allowed is up to 74% through automatic route and beyond that through government approval. Hence, statement 3 is not correct
• The cumulative FDI equity inflow in the Drugs and Pharmaceuticals industry constitutes 3.40% of the total FDI inflow received across sectors.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

Coriolis Effect:

• The Coriolis effect describes the pattern of deflection taken by objects not firmly connected to the ground as they travel long distances around Earth.
• The Coriolis effect is responsible for many large-scale weather patterns.
• The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth’s rotation. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Specifically, Earth rotates faster at the Equator than it does at the poles.
• Earth is wider at the Equator, so to make a rotation in one 24-hour period, equatorial regions race nearly 1,600 kilometres (1,000 miles) per hour.
• Near the poles, Earth rotates at a sluggish 0.00008 kilometres (0.00005 miles) per hour.
• There are only two forces acting:
  • the pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force.
• The pressure gradient force acts towards low-pressure perpendicular to the lines of constant height while the Coriolis force acts to the right and perpendicular to the wind direction. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind and this force is called the Coriolis force.
• It is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It deflects the wind to the left direction in the southern hemisphere and the right direction in the northern hemisphere.

CONCEPT:

Series and Parallel Circuits

• Electrical circuits can be arranged in two primary ways: series and parallel.

• Series Circuit: In a series circuit, components are connected end-to-end, forming a single path for current flow. The key characteristics are:
  • Current: The same current flows through all components in a series circuit.
  • Voltage: The total voltage across the circuit is the sum of the voltages across each component.
• Parallel Circuit: In a parallel circuit, components are connected across common points or junctions, providing multiple paths for current flow. The key characteristics are:
  • Voltage: The voltage across each component in a parallel circuit is the same.
  • Current: The total current is the sum of the currents through each parallel branch.

EXPLANATION:

• From the above discussion, it is clear that:
• S1: A series circuit has the same current flowing through all components - This statement is true.
• S2: A parallel circuit has the same voltage across all components - This statement is true.

The correct option is Both S1 & S2 are true.

Additional Information

• Resistance in Series: The total resistance in a series circuit is the sum of the individual resistances.
• Resistance in Parallel: The total resistance in a parallel circuit is given by the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
• Application: Series circuits are used in applications where the same current is required through all components, such as in Christmas tree lights. Parallel circuits are used in home wiring to ensure that each appliance receives the same voltage.

The Correct Answer is Assam.

In News

• Assam Govt unveiled "Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan".

Key Points

• Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan aims to transform rural women into "Rural Micro-Entrepreneurs" with a ₹1 lakh annual income target.
• In the inaugural phase, each eligible applicant will receive a grant of ₹10,000 in the first year.
• Tailored child limitations for General, OBC, ST, SC, and specific communities, encouraging diverse participation.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

Fundamental Rights of Indian Constitution

• The Constitution of India offers all citizens, individually and collectively, some basic freedoms.
• These are guaranteed in the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable.
• Originally, Seven fundamental rights were mentioned in the constitution of India.
  1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
  2. Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
  3. Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
  4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
  5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
  6. Right to Property (Article 31)
  7. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
• However, the Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment act, 1978.
• It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution. So at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12-35). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Part III of the Constitution i.e. the Fundamental Rights is described as the Magna Carta of India.
• They are an integral part of the Indian Constitution.
• New technologies can be used for better implementation of these rights but they do not threaten these rights.
• They prohibit unreasonable interference of the state & prevent its executive & legislature to become authoritarian, hence putting due limitations on state power.
• Observance of fundamental duties is required for having one’s FRs redressed in case of their violation.
• FRs are not absolute but qualified rights.
• Article 12 defines the State for Part III of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Article 13 states that laws inconsistent with Part III shall be void.

Additional Information

• There are six Fundamental Rights-

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

GDP Deflator:

• The GDP Deflator is also known as the Price Deflator and Implicit Price Deflator.
• It is an indication of overall inflation across all goods and services in the economy compared to the base year.

• GDP deflator is a price index that measures the gross domestic product by adjusting the impact of changes in prices of goods and services to the true value of goods and services produced locally in the economy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year.
• This ratio helps show the extent to which the increase in the gross domestic product has happened on account of higher prices rather than an increase in output.
• The Deflator is a more comprehensive measure of inflation because it covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy.
• The formula to find the GDP price deflator:
  • GDP Price Deflator = (Nominal GDP ÷ Real GDP) x 100
• ​ If the value of the GDP deflator is greater than 1 then it means that the nominal GDP is higher than the real GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• If the value of the GDP deflator is less than 1 then it means that the nominal GDP is lesser than the real GDP.
• The data of the GDP Deflator is released quarterly basis by the Reserve Bank of India.
  • That is why RBI does not use a GDP deflator while formulating the Monetary Policy of India.
  • RBI uses the Consumer Price index (All India) to target inflation in its monetary policymaking.
  • The GDP deflator is available only on a quarterly basis along with GDP estimates, whereas CPI and WPI data are released every month.

The correct answer is PRERANA.

In News

• Ministry of Education launches PRERANA, an experiential learning programme for developing leadership qualities in students.

Key Points

• The programme, guided by the framework of the Indian education system and the philosophy of value-based education, adheres to the National Education Policy 2020.
• PRERANA is a week-long residential programme designed for the selected students from classes 9th to 12th.
• Every week, a batch of 20 students (10 boys and 10 girls) from various parts of the country will participate in the programme.
• The sessions will be held at a Vernacular School in Vadnagar, Gujarat, a school that was founded back in 1888.
• The curriculum for PRERANA is prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar and is founded on nine value-based themes including Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parisram and Samarpan among others.
• The programme seeks to inspire the youth and cultivate a respect for India's diversity, encapsulating the spirit of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the world is one family).

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

River Narmada

• The Narmada originates on the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau.
• Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north, it forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and the Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur.
• It meets the Arabian Sea south of Bharuch, forming a broad 27 km long estuary.
• The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on this river.
• Kapildhara is the first waterfall of the river Narmada from its origin. Hence pair 1 is correct.
• It is roughly 6 km. from the Narmada Temple in Amarkantak.
• The water falls from a height of around 100 ft.

River Kaveri

• The Kaveri rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore in Tamil Nadu.
• The upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular Rivers.
• Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani and the Amravati.
• It is designated as the “Ganga of the South”.
• Mettur dam is in river kaveri.
• Shivanasamudra Falls is a waterfall in the state of Karnataka, India. It is situated along the river Kaveri. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.

River Godavari

• The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga or Vridha ganga.
• It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Godavari is subjected to heavy floods in its lower reaches to the south of Polavaram, where it forms a picturesque gorge.
• It is navigable up to a distance of 900 km.
• The river after Rajamundri splits into several branches forming a large delta.
• It is famous for coal, natural gas, petroleum reserve and heavy floods in the lower course.
• Left Bank Tributaries: Banganga, Kadva, Shivana, Purna, Kadam, Pranahita, Indravati, Taliperu, Sabari, Dharna
• Right Bank Tributaries: Nasardi, Pravara, Sindphana, Manjira, Manair, Kinnerasani
• The Lal Bhadur Shastri Dam also known as Amatti Dam is on the Krishna river.
• Someshwar Waterfalls is one of the most favourite tourist places in Nashik. Hence pair 4 is incorrect.
• This small and beautiful waterfall is formed over the holy River Godavari.

Sharavati River

• Sharavati is a river which originates and flows entirely within the state of Karnataka in India.
• It is one of the few westward flowing rivers of India and a major part of the river basin lies in the Western Ghats.
• The famous Jog Falls, located about 25km from Siddapura, are formed by this river. Hence pair 3 is correct.
• The river itself and the region around it are rich in biodiversity and are home to many rare species of flora and fauna.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Compulsory Licencing:

• Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patent-protected invention itself.
• It is one of the flexibilities in the field of patent protection included in the WTO’s agreement on intellectual property- the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement.
• The patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid for copies of the products made under the compulsory licence.
• The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.
• However, the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine the grounds for granting compulsory licences and to determine what constitutes a national emergency.
• In India, Compulsory licensing is allowed and regulated under the Indian Patent Act, of 1970.
• Section 84 of the (Indian) Patent Act,1970, provides that after three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person can apply for the compulsory license, on certain grounds:
  • the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been satisfied
  • the patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price
  • Lastly, the patented invention is not used in the territory of India.
• Section 92 of the (Indian) Patent Act,1970, authorizes the central government to issue a compulsory license at any time after the grant of the patent, in the case of:
  • National emergency; or
  • Extreme urgency; or
  • Case of public non-commercial use.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Every year the Flamingo festival is celebrated to promote tourism at the Pulicat Lake near the Nellapattu Bird Sanctuary located in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a three days festival that is organized during the winter season when thousands of migratory birds visit the region.
• During this festival, several entertaining and cultural events are organized.
• It also provides an opportunity for people to study biodiversity and initiate conservation measures.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurates ‘Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan’ (PM-SURAJ) national portal, emphasizing credit support for one lakh entrepreneurs from disadvantaged communities.

Key Points

• PM-SURAJ portal signifies the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s commitment to prioritizing underprivileged individuals in development initiatives.
• The event includes interactions with beneficiaries of schemes like NAMASTE, VCF-SC, VCF-BC, and ASIIM, aimed at economic upliftment of Scheduled Castes, backward classes, and Safai Mitras.
• Ministry distributes Ayushman health cards and Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits to Safai Mitras under the NAMASTE program, ensuring access to cashless healthcare services and safety for frontline workers.
• The government’s dedication to “Vanchiton Ko Variyata” ensures equitable support for historically underserved communities, aligning with the broader vision of “Viksit Bharat” for inclusive development.