General Knowledge Mock Test - 5 - CDS MCQ

The correct answer is Suktagendor.

Key Points

Suktagen Dor -

• Suktagen Dor is an archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization located on the Iran border in the current Balochistan province of Pakistan.
• It is considered to be the westernmost site of the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Sutkagan Dor was discovered in a small-scale excavation in 1875 by Major Edward Mockler.
• It is located on Makran Coast near Gwadar on Iran Border; around 55 km from the shore of the Arabian Sea on the Bank of Dasht River.
• Suktagen Dor was an important coastal town and its Excavations at Suktagen Dor have revealed a two fold division of the township.
• It was originally a port and later cut off from the sea due to coastal upliftment.
• A trading point between Harappa and Babylon. Hence option 4 is correct.
• It is believed that Sutkagen Dor might be on the trade route from Lothal in Gujarat to Mesopotamia.
• It was probably heavily involved in the fishing trade similar to that which exists on the coast along Baluchistan.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The Elements of group 16 such as Oxygen, Sulfur, Selenium, Tellurium, Polonium and all have 6 electrons on the outermost cell.
• The 's' valence shells always contain 2 electrons, the 'p' valence shell contains 4 electrons.

• The elements present in group 16 consist of oxygen (0), sulfur (S), selenium (Se), tellurium (Te), and polonium (Po).

• Of all the elements, only Polonium is radioactive.
• Group 16 electron configuration indicates that its members of Group 16 have six elements in its valence shell, and therefore require two elements to complete the octet valency.
• Therefore, all the elements of group 16 are negatively charged since they can receive two electrons from other elements.

Important Points

The correct answer is Sultan Ibrahim Sultan Iskandar.

In News

• Sultan Ibrahim ascended to the Throne as Malaysia's 17th King.

Key Points

• Sultan Ibrahim of Johor was installed as Malaysia's 17th king, succeeding Al-Sultan Abdullah Sultan Ahmad Shah.
• Malaysia's monarchy, known as "Yang di-Pertuan Agong," follows a unique system where heads of nine royal families take turns as the King every five years.
• The monarchy in Malaysia traditionally played a ceremonial role but has gained influence, allowing the king to use discretionary powers to address political instability.
• Sultan Ibrahim, aged 65, is recognized for his outspoken nature and active involvement in political issues, despite the monarchy being generally seen as above politics.
• Apart from his royal duties, Sultan Ibrahim is known for his extensive collection of luxury cars and motorbikes.
• With diverse business interests ranging from real estate to mining, including a stake in the Forest City project, Sultan Ibrahim is a prominent figure in Malaysia's economic landscape.

The correct answer is Jayaprakash Narayan.

Key Points

• Jayaprakash Narayan:
  • He was the leader of Bihar movement and became the symbol of opposition to Emergency.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan demanded the dismissal of the Congress government in Bihar and gave a call for total revolution in the social, economic and political spheres in order to establish what he considered to be true democracy. ​
  • He was the moving force behind the formation of Janata Party.
  • He was awarded Bharat Ratna in the year 1999.

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced on 9 February that former Prime Ministers PV Narasimha Rao and Chaudhary Charan Singh, alongside agricultural scientist MS Swaminathan, will be conferred the Bharat Ratna.
• Earlier, politician and former Bihar chief minister Karpoori Thakur, and politician and former deputy prime minister Lal Krishna Advani were announced to be conferred with India's highest civilian honour.
• This year's five recipients surpass the four awarded in 1999, marking the highest number of Bharat Ratnas awarded in a single year.
• Karpoori Thakur (Posthumous)
  • ​Bihar's former chief minister and a well-known socialist leader will be posthumously honoured with Bharat Ratna.
  • Popularly known as referred to as 'Jan Nayak' (people's leader), Thakur will become the 49th recipient of this prestigious award.
• Lal Krishna Advani
  • ​Bharatiya Janata Party stalwart and former deputy prime minister, has been associated with the party since its establishment in 1980.
  • Apart from this Advani served as both the home minister and deputy Prime Minister under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee from 1999 to 2004.
• Pamulaparthi Venkata Narasimha Rao (Posthumous)
  • Ex-Prime Minister, who passed away in 2004, will be conferred with Bharat Ratna, PM Modi announced on 9 February.
  • PV Narasimha Rao, a respected Telugu leader, served a full five-year term as prime minister from 1991 to 1996 and is widely lauded for his pivotal role in introducing economic reforms.
• Chaudhary Charan Singh (Posthumous)
  • ​Another former Prime Minister and prominent Jat leader hailing from western Uttar Pradesh will be conferred with Bharat Ratna. He is known for playing a pivotal role in spearheading anti-Congress politics during an era when the party held dominant influence.
• Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan (Posthumous)
  • ​Eminent agronomist will be the fifth person to be conferred with Bharat Ratna. Swaminathan is known for his significant contributions to agriculture and the welfare of farmers. He revolutionized Indian agriculture, ensuring both food security and prosperity for the nation.

The correct answer is 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only.

• Textile and Construction are not core industry, using the elimination method it can be corrected.

Key Points

Core Industries:

• The Eight Core Industries are:
  • Electricity, Steel, Refinery products, Crude Oil, Coal, Cement, Natural Gas and Fertilizers.
• Hence option 3 is correct.
• The Central Statistics Office (CSO) of the Government of India brings out a monthly Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
• Industrial Production in the IIP comprises three distinct groups of industry such as:
  • Mining, Manufacturing and Electricity.
• Among the industries that go into the IIP basket, in order to provide an indication of how the industries whose production performance was 'core' in nature because of their likely impact on general economic activity, as well as other industrial activity, the exercise of bringing out an Index of Core Industries, was initiated in the Office of the Economic Adviser.
• The Eight Core Industries are Electricity, Steel, Refinery products, Crude Oil, Coal, Cement, Natural Gas and Fertilizers (in decreasing order of weight in IIP).
• The Eight Core Industries comprise nearly 38 % of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

The correct answer is Both A and B

In News

• The names of the 'Indira Gandhi Award for Best Debut Film of a Director' and the 'Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film on National Integration' have been dropped from the National Film Awards.

Key Points

• The 'Indira Gandhi Award for Best Debut Film of a Director' will now be known simply as the 'Best Debut Film of a Director', with the award money increased to Rs 3 lakh.
• Similarly, the 'Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film on National Integration' has been renamed as the 'Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social and Environmental Values'.
• These changes were recommended by the Committee for Rationalisation of Film Awards.
• The renaming reflects a broader scope beyond individual names, emphasizing broader values such as national, social, and environmental concerns.
• The Dadasaheb Phalke Award has increased from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 15 lakh.

• The National Film Awards have undergone renaming for certain categories:

  • The "Best Actor" award has been renamed as "Best Actor in a Leading Role" with an increased prize amount of Rs 2 lakh.
  • The "Best Actress" award has been renamed as "Best Actress in a Leading Role" with an increased prize amount of Rs 2 lakh.
  • The "Best Supporting Actor" award has been renamed as "Best Actor in a Supporting Role" with an increased prize amount of Rs 2 lakh.
  • The "Best Supporting Actress" award has been renamed as "Best Actress in a Supporting Role" with an increased prize amount of Rs 2 lakh.

The correct answer is ​All three.

Key Points

• Blackbuck is found only in the Indian subcontinent, mainly in three countries: India, where nearly 95% of the population is present, Nepal, where a small population survives in the arid part of the Nepal plains or Terai, and Pakistan, where it is extinct as a free-ranging animal but an introduced population is found in the Lal Suhanra National Park in Bahawalpur, Southern Punjab province. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Blackbuck is the finest representative of arid and semi-arid short grass plains that were once abundant in undivided Punjab, Haryana, parts of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and down south up to Tamil Nadu.
  • It is a denizen of open countryside, avoiding forest and hilly areas.
  • Blackbuck is now a rare species, surviving in small scattered herds in about 13 states of India.
• The lion-tailed macaque is only native to India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • They live in the Western Ghats hills and mountains of southwestern India, is a rainforest dweller; it is diurnal, meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours.
  • It is a good climber and spends the majority of its life in the upper canopy of tropical moist evergreen forests.
  • Unlike other macaques, it typically avoids humans when possible.
  • In group behaviour, the lion-tailed macaque is much like other macaques, living in hierarchical groups of usually 10 to 20 members, which usually consist of a few males and many females.
  • It is a territorial animal, defending its area first with loud cries towards the invading troops.
• The pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is a suid native to alluvial grasslands in the foothills of the Himalayas at elevations of up to 300 m (980 ft).
• Pygmy Hog is found only in the reserve forest belts of the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and the Barnadi Wildlife Sanctuary in northwestern Assam, India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• However, they were once found in throughout northern India, Bhutan, and Nepal.
  • In India, the only viable population of the pygmy hog in the wild is in the Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.

The correct answer is the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend.

Key Points

Marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR):

• It refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI.
• It is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank.
• MCLR actually describes the method by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank - on the basis of marginal cost or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee for the prospective borrower.
• The MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates for advances was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India with effect from April 1, 2016.
• This new methodology replaces the base rate system introduced in July 2010.
• Reasons for introducing MCLR:
  • RBI decided to shift from base rate to MCLR because the rates based on marginal cost of funds are more sensitive to changes in the policy rates. This is very essential for the effective implementation of monetary policy.
  • Prior to the MCLR system, different banks were following different methodology for calculation of base-rate /minimum rate – that is either on the basis of average cost of funds or marginal cost of funds or blended cost of funds.
• MCLR aims:
  • To improve the transmission of policy rates into the lending rates of banks.
  • To bring transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining interest rates on advances.
  • To ensure the availability of bank credit at interest rates that are fair to borrowers as well as banks.
  • To enable banks to become more competitive and enhance their long-run value and contribution to economic growth.

The correct answer is ​2 Only.

Key Points

The Indian coastline is broadly divided into two: the Western Coastal Plains and the Eastern Coastal Plains.

Western coastal plains:

• The western coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plains. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
• Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast.
• The western coastal plains are Narrow in the Middle and get Broader towards the North and South.
• The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
• The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists.

Eastern coastal plains:

• The Eastern Coastal Plain is Broader and is an example of an Emergent Coast.
• There are well developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.
• Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.
• The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
• Tamil Nadu - Tuticorin, Ennore, Chennai; Andhra Pradesh - Vishakkspatnam; Andaman & Nicobar Island - Port Blair; Odisha - Paradip; West Bengal - Haldia & Kolkata.

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

Balance of Payments:

• There are two main accounts in the Balance of Payments:
  • Current account
  • Capital account.

Current Account:

• It records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.
• Trade-in services denoted as invisible trade (because they are not seen to cross national borders) includes both factor income (payment for inputs-investment income, that is, the interest, profits, and dividends on our assets abroad minus the income foreigners earn on assets they own in India) and non-factor income (shipping, banking, insurance, tourism, software services, etc.). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Transfer payments are receipts that the residents of a country receive for free, without having to make any present or future payments in return.
• They consist of remittances, gifts, and grants. They could be official or private. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Capital Account:

• It includes sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc.
• The main components of the capital account include foreign investment, loans and banking capital.
• Foreign investment, comprising Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Portfolio Investment consisting of Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) investment, American Depository Receipts/Global Depository Receipts (ADRs/GDRs) represents non-debt liabilities, while loans (external assistance, external commercial borrowings, and trade credit) and banking capital, including non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits, are debt liabilities. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Arthritis.

Arthritis is caused by bacteria.

Important Points

Additional Information

• Protozoa Diseases:
  • Amoebic dysentery by Entamoeba Histolytica Protozoa
  • Kala Azar by Leishmania donovani Protozoa
  • Malaria by Plasmodium parasite Protozoa
  • Sleeping sickness by Trypanosoma Brucei Protozoa
• Bacteria Diseases:
  • Cholera Vibrio - Cholerae Bacteria
  • Leprosy - Mycobacterium Leprae Bacteria
  • Plague - Yersinia pestis Bacteria
  • Pneumonia - Streptococcus pneumonia Bacteria
  • Tetanus - Clostridium tetani Bacteria
  • Tuberculosis - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Bacteria
  • Typhoid - Salmonella typhi Bacteria
  • Whooping Cough - Bordetella pertussis Bacteria

The correct answer is delayed clotting of blood.

Key Points

• Vitamin K deficiency in our body leads to delayed clotting of blood.
• It plays a key role in helping the blood clot and preventing excessive bleeding.
• Unlike many other vitamins, vitamin K is not typically used as a dietary supplement.
• Vitamin K is actually a group of compounds.
• The most important of these compounds appears to be vitamin K1 and vitamin K2. Vitamin K1 is obtained from leafy greens and some other vegetables.
• Vitamin K2 is a group of compounds largely obtained from meats, cheeses, and eggs, and synthesized by bacteria.
• Low levels of vitamin K can raise the risk of uncontrolled bleeding.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Only two​.

Key Points

Types of rocks

• There are three major types of rocks: Igneous Rocks, Sedimentary Rocks and Metamorphic Rocks.

Igneous Rocks

• When the molten magma cools, it becomes solid. Rocks thus formed are called Igneous Rocks.
• They are also called Primary Rocks. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• There are two types of Igneous Rocks: Intrusive Rocks and Extrusive Rocks.
• Extrusive Rocks
  • Lava is actually fiery red molten magma coming out from the interior of the earth on its surface.
  • When this molten lava comes to the earth’s surface, it rapidly cools down and becomes solid.
  • Rocks formed in such a way on the crust are called Extrusive Igneous rocks.
  • They have a very fine-grained structure. For example, basalt. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Deccan plateau is made up of basalt rocks.
• Intrusive Rocks
  • Sometimes the molten magma cools down deep inside the earth’s crust. Solid rocks so formed are called Intrusive Igneous Rocks.
  • Since they cool down slowly they form large grains. Granite is an example of such a rock.
  • Grinding stones used to prepare paste/powder of spices and grains are made of granite.

Sedimentary Rocks

• Rocks roll down, crack, and hit each other and are broken down into small fragments. These smaller particles are called sediments. These sediments are transported and deposited by wind, water, etc.
• These loose sediments are compressed and hardened to form layers of rocks. These types of rocks are called sedimentary rocks.
• For example, sandstone is made from grains of sand. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• These rocks may also contain fossils of plants, animals and other microorganisms that once lived on them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.​

Additional Information

Metamorphic Rocks

• It forms when igneous and sedimentary rocks are changed because of heat and pressure.
• For example, marble, gneiss etc.
• Metamorphic rocks melt to form molten magma when subjected to great heat and pressure.

The correct answer is ​Review the working of Indian universities.

Key Points

• In 1902 Raleigh Commission was set up to go into conditions and prospects of universities in India and to suggest measures for improvement in the constitution and working.
• Endorse proposals for improving their constitution and working, on 27 January 1902 to inquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India, Raleigh Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh.
• It was appointed by Lord Curzon.
• The recommendations of the commission included regulations for the reformation of Universities, greater representation of affiliated colleges in the senates, and stricter monitoring of affiliated institutions by the universities.
• The commission precluded reporting on primary or secondary education.
• Based on its recommendations the Indian University Act was passed in 1904.

The correct answer is 'Windward mountain slopes receive less precipitation as compared to leeward slopes.'

Key Points

• Precipitation and Rainfall Distribution:
  • Precipitation refers to all forms of water, liquid or solid, that falls from clouds and reaches the ground. It includes rain, sleet, snow, and hail.
  • Rainfall distribution varies widely due to several factors including geography, season, and air currents.
  • The distribution of rainfall is crucial, as it affects agriculture, water resources, and ecosystems.

• Statement Analysis:
  • Correct Answer Explanation: Windward mountain slopes actually receive more precipitation than leeward slopes. As moist air ascends the windward side of a mountain, it cools and condenses into clouds, leading to precipitation. Upon descending the leeward side, the air warms and dries, often leading to a rain shadow effect.
  • Convectional Rainfall: Occurs mainly during summer in tropical regions, particularly over equatorial doldrums due to intense solar heating causing air to rise, cool, and condense into rainfall.
  • Western Cool Temperate Regions: These regions experience relatively even rainfall throughout the year due to prevailing westerly winds bringing moist air from the oceans.
  • Dust Particles: Act as hygroscopic nuclei, around which water vapor condenses to form clouds. These particles are fundamental in the cloud formation process.

Additional Information

• Convectional Rainfall:
  • Common in equatorial regions, this type of rainfall is usually intense and short-lived, caused by rapid warming of the Earth's surface.
  • Often leads to thunderstorms and heavy downpours due to the rising and cooling of air masses.
• Orographic (Relief) Rainfall:
  • Occurs when moist air is forced to ascend a mountain barrier, cooling and condensing into precipitation on the windward side.
  • Leads to a rain shadow effect on the leeward side, where descending air becomes warmer and drier, resulting in less precipitation.
• Frontal Rainfall:
  • Occurs when two air masses of differing temperatures meet; the warmer air mass is lifted over the cooler air, resulting in condensation and precipitation.
  • Common in mid-latitude regions where polar and tropical air masses interact.
• Hydroscopic Nuclei:
  • Particles such as dust, salt, and pollutants in the atmosphere serve as surfaces on which water vapor condenses to form cloud droplets.
  • Essential for cloud formation and subsequent precipitation processes.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Democracy:

• Democracy literally means rule by the people.
• The term is derived from the Greek Demokratia, which was coined from demos (“people”) and kratos (“rule”) in the middle of the 5th century BCE to denote the political systems then existed in some Greek city-states, notably Athens.
• It can be simply defined as a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.

Features of democracy:

• In a democracy, the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
• Democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
• In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
• A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights. Hence option 4 is correct.

​

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Key Points

Ecosystem Services

• They are “the benefits people derive from ecosystems”.
• Besides provisioning services or goods like food, wood and other raw materials, plants, animals, fungi and micro-organisms provide essential regulating services such as pollination of crops, prevention of soil erosion and water purification, and a vast array of cultural services, like recreation and a sense of place.
• Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and
• services.
• The products of ecosystem processes are named ecosystem services, for example, healthy forest ecosystems purify air and water, mitigate droughts and floods, cycle nutrients, generate fertile soils, provide wildlife habitat, maintain biodiversity, regulates climate, pollinate crops, provide storage site for carbon and also provide aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values.
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Deficiency of Calcium causes retarded growth in plants.

The correct answer is Only two

Key Points

Government of India Act, of 1919,

• The Imperial Legislative Council was expanded and reorganised by the Government of India Act 1919.
• A bicameral arrangement was introduced in the Centre. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The lower house was the Legislative Assembly, which had 145 members, 104 elected and 41 nominated, with a three-year term. The upper chamber was the Council of State, which had a five-year term and was made up of 34 elected and 26 nominated members.
• The Government of India Act 1919, introduced diarchy in the provinces i.e., Executive Counsellors and Popular Ministers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Subjects were divided into 2 categories i.e., Reserved and Transferred. Reserved subjects included law & order, finance, land revenue, irrigation etc., whereas the Transferred subjects included health, education, local government, agriculture, industry etc.
• No responsible government was envisaged in the Act for the government at the all-India level. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Government of India Act of 1935 established all Indian federations with provinces and princely states as divisions.
• The legislation split powers between the centre and the units into three lists: the Federal List, the Provincial list, and the concurrent list.
• Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct and statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Reserved subjects were to be administered by the Governor through his Executive Council and Bureaucrats.
• Transferred subjects were to be administered by Ministers nominated among the elected members of the Legislative Council.
• Ministers were responsible to the Legislature, but the Executive Counsellors were not responsible to the Legislature.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• The accelerated rates of species extinctions that the world is facing now are largely due to human activities. There are four major causes (The Evil Quartet is the sobriquet used to describe them).
  • Habitat loss and fragmentation:
    • This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
    • This habitat loss mainly happens due to tropical rain forests. For eg. The Amazon rain forest (it is so huge that it is called the ‘lungs of the planet’) harbouring probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.
    • Besides total loss, the degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the survival of many species.
    • When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities, mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits are badly affected, leading to population declines. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Over-exploitation:
    • Humans have always depended on nature for food and shelter, but when need turns to greed, it leads to over-exploitation of natural resources. Many species extinctions in the last 500 years (Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to overexploitation by humans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Alien species invasions:
    • When alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for whatever purpose, some of them turn invasive and cause the decline or extinction of indigenous species.
    • The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake; the introduction of the African catfish Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.
  • Co-extinctions:
    • When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct.
    • When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate.
    • Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism where extinction of one invariably leads to the extinction of the other. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Semi-classical style of Hindustani music

• The Hindustani branch of music focuses more on the musical structure and the possibilities of improvisation in it.
• The Hindustani branch adopted a scale of Shudha Swara Saptaka or the ‘Octave of Natural Notes’.
• Semi-classical style of music is based on Swara (note).
• However, they slightly deviate from the standard structure of the raga in the way that lighter versions of ragas like Bhoopali or Malkaush are used.
• They employ a lighter version of tala and use madhyam or dhrut laya, i.e., they are faster in tempo.
• They emphasise more on bhava and lyrics than alap-jor-jhala.
• Some of the prominent semi-classical styles like thumri, tappa, kajari and ghazal.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Acid Rain -
  • Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or dry forms.
  • This can include rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is acidic.
  • Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents.
    • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids.
  • These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.
• Measuring Acid Rain -
  • Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6; it is slightly acidic because carbon dioxide (CO2) dissolves into it forming weak carbonic acid.
  • Acid rain usually has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4.
    • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Important Points

• Forms of Acid Deposition -
  • Wet Deposition - Wet deposition is what we most commonly think of as acid rain. The sulfuric and nitric acids formed in the atmosphere fall to the ground mixed with rain, snow, fog, or hail.
  • Dry Deposition - Acidic particles and gases can also deposit from the atmosphere in the absence of moisture as dry deposition. The acidic particles and gases may deposit to surfaces (water bodies, vegetation, buildings) quickly or may react during atmospheric transport to form larger particles that can be harmful to human health. When the accumulated acids are washed off a surface by the next rain, this acidic water flows over and through the ground, and can harm plants and wildlife, such as insects and fish.

The Correct Answer is ​​To allow the public to report election code violations.

In News

• Election Commission launched CVIGIL App to supervise election process.

Key Points

• The CVIGIL app has allowed the public to report election code violations via photos/videos.
• It has enabled the reporting of Model Code of Conduct and expenditure breaches.
• CEC Rajiv Kumar has assured action on reports within 100 minutes.
• The app will connect vigilant citizens with District Control Room, Returning Officer and Flying Squads Teams, making the electoral system more transparent.

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Melghat Tiger reserve:
  • It lies in the Melghat Forests of Amravati district in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra.
  • It is a part of the Satpura-Maikal landscape.
  • Protected Areas within the Reserve include Gugamal National Park, Wan, Ambawarba, and Narnala sanctuaries.
  • The Tapi river flows through the northern end of the Melghat Tiger Reserve, through a forest that lies within the catchment area of the river system. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • It is the Deccan trap and the underlying rock is basalt in one form or another.
  • The forests are of deciduous nature and have been classified as ‘dry deciduous forests.
  • The most prominent tree is the Teak.
  • The Korku tribe adds to the cultural diversity of the Reserve.
• Dehing Patkai Wildlife sanctuary: ​
  • It is located in the districts of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia.
  • Dehing Patkai is a deciduous rainforest interspersed with semi-evergreen and lush green flora, the only patch of virgin rainforest in Assam.
  • It comprises Jeypore, Upper Dehing, and Dirok.
  • Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the sanctuary lies.
  • The Wildlife Sanctuary is endowed with rich bio-diversity.
  • Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the sanctuary lies. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Sharavathi Valley Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • It is located in the Sharavathi River Valley of Sagar Taluk in the Shivamogga District of Karnataka. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • The Sanctuary lies in the Western Ghats, mainly covered with evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the valleys and grassy patches on hilltops, and is immensely rich in flora and fauna both in variety and diversity.
  • The Sanctuary is immensely rich in species like Dhoopa, Gulmavu, Surahonne, Mavu, Nandi, etc.
  • It also harbours wildlife like Bison, Spotted deer, Tiger, Panther, etc.
• Nagarahole National Park:
  • Nagarahole is named after Nagarahole, a winding river that runs eastwards through its centre situated in the two districts of Mysore and Kodagu in the state of Karnataka.
  • Nagarahole National Park forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and together with Bandipur National Park and Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary to its South-East and Wayanad to the South-West is one of the last remaining and best-protected habitats for endangered species like the Elephant and the Tiger.
  • The river Kabini originates in the Wayanad district of Kerala, and flows eastward to join the river Cauvery, which empties into the Bay of Bengal.
    • This is the largest river in the Nagarhole National Park and was dammed in 1974 for an irrigation project. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

The correct answer is Dachigam National Park.

Key Points

Dachigam National Park

• The Kashmir stag, also called hangul, is a subspecies of elk native to Kashmir.
• It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of the Kashmir Valley and the northern Chamba district in Himachal Pradesh.
• Dachigam National Park has located 22 km (kilometre) from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir.
• The park is best known as the home of the hangul, or Kashmir stag. Hence option A is the correct answer.
• The name literally stands for ‘ten villages’, which could be in memory of the ten villages that were relocated in order to create the park.
• Dachigam was initially established to ensure the supply of clean drinking water to Srinagar city.
• A protected area since 1910, it was declared as a national park in 1981.
• These deer once numbered about 5,000 animals at the beginning of the 20th century.
• Unfortunately, they were threatened, due to habitat destruction, over-grazing by domestic livestock, and poaching.
• However, the state of Jammu & Kashmir, along with the IUCN and the WWF prepared a project for the protection of these animals.
  • It became known as Project Hangul.
• This brought great results and the population increased to over 340 by 1980.
• It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Additional Information

Tal Chhapar Sanctuary

• It is a sanctuary located in the Churu district of Northwestern Rajasthan in the Shekhawati region of India.
• It is known for blackbucks and is also home to a variety of birds.

The Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary

• It is also a declared tiger reserve, lies on the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills (Blue Mountains), in Nilgiri District.
• The sanctuary is divided into five ranges – Masinagudi, Thepakadu, Mudumalai, Kargudi and Nellakota.
• The protected area is home to several endangered and vulnerable species including the Indian elephant, Bengal tiger, gaur and Indian leopard.
• There are at least 266 species of birds in the sanctuary, including critically endangered Indian white-rumped vulture and long-billed vulture

Kanha Tiger Reserve

• It is also known as Kanha–Kisli National Park is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of the state of Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is ​option 4.

Key Points

• The Hoysala Empire
  • It was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka, India between the 10th and the 14th centuries.
  • Hoysala literature in the Kannada language began to proliferate under the patronage of Vishnuvardhana. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebidu. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Vishnuvardhana took the first steps in creating an independent Hoysala Empire in South India through a series of battles against his overlord, the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI, and the Chola Empire to the south. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • He recovered parts of Gangavadi province from the hegemony of the Cholas in the Battle of Talakad, and parts of Nolambavdi.
  • Hoysala architecture and sculpture, especially ornate and intricate, are best seen at Halebid, Belur, and Somnathpur. The family liberally patronized Kannada and Sanskrit literary artists. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

​

Additional Information

• Pallava dynasty :
  • Mahendravarman contributed to the greatness of the Pallava dynasty.
  • Some of the most ornate monuments at Mamallapuram, especially those dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva, were constructed under his rule.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Home Rule Movement:-
  • The main motto of the Home Rule Movement was for the establishment of self-government for India in the British empire using constitutional methods. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Home Rule Movements were launched in the country in 1916 under the leadership of Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave the popular slogan during the movement - “Home Rule is my birth-right, and I will have it.”
  • The Government of India Act 1909 was dissatisfactory to the aspirations of Indians.
  • Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum.
  • Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
  • They had the common objective of achieving self-government in India.
  • It created organizational links between town and country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • There was an informal understanding between both the leagues wherein Tilak’s league worked in Maharashtra (except Bombay), Karnataka, Berar, and the Central Provinces. Besant’s league worked in the rest of the country.
  • The leagues did not find a lot of support among Muslims, Anglo-Indians, and non-Brahmins from Southern India as they thought home rule would mean a rule of the upper caste Hindu majority. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • And so far as mass mobilization was concerned, the Home Rule Leagues of Tilak and Annie Besant prepared the ground for the success of Gandhi's initial satyagraha movements. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The Correct Answer is Ahilya Nagar.

In News

• Ahmednagar renamed as Ahilya Nagar: Maharashtra Cabinet approves name change.

Key Points

• Maharashtra Cabinet approved renaming of Ahmednagar as Ahilya Nagar.
• In 2023, Maharashtra Chief Minister Eknath Shinde had announced the renaming of Ahmednagar city to ‘Ahilyanagar’ in honor of the esteemed 18th-century Maratha queen, Ahilyabai Holkar.
• This announcement was made on Ahilyabai Holkar's 298th birth anniversary.
• The renaming of Ahmednagar follows previous initiatives by the Shinde-Fadnavis government, including renaming Aurangabad to ‘Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar’ and Osmanabad to ‘Dharashiv’.
• Ahmednagar, founded by Ahmad Nizam Shah in 1494, later became the capital of the independent Sultanate of Ahmednagar.
• Aurangabad, established by Aurangzeb in the 1650s, and Osmanabad, named after Mir Osman Ali Khan.

The correct answer is Sitar and Tanpura

In News

• Made-in-Miraj sitars and tanpuras received geographical indication (GI) tags, highlighting the unique craftsmanship of string instruments in Miraj.

Key Points

• Craftsmen in Miraj have been renowned for their exceptional sitars and tanpuras for nearly 200 years, contributing to the town's musical legacy.
• The GI tags were granted on March 30, distinguishing Miraj Musical Instrument Cluster for sitar and Soultune Musical Instrument Producer Company for tanpura.
• Mohsin Mirajkar, head of the Miraj Musical Instrument Cluster, expressed that the GI tags would enhance Miraj's identity as a "music city" exporting string instruments.
• Mubin Mirajkar, head of Soultune Musical Instrument Producer Company, highlighted the usage of locally available wood and thick-skinned pumpkin gourds from specific areas for crafting the instruments.
• Approximately 25 families of hereditary craftsmen, spanning multiple generations, continue to specialize in making various string musical instruments in Miraj.
• Instruments crafted by Miraj craftsmen include tanpura, sitar, dilruba, sarangi, taus, rudraveena, and surbahar, showcasing the town's rich musical heritage.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Finance Commission
  • Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the Finance Commission as a balancing wheel of Fiscal.
  • Federalism in India. It is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every fifth year or such an earlier time as he considers necessary.
  • Article 280 of the Constitution fixes the composition of the commission. It provides that the Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.
  • The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • They hold the office under the pleasure of the President and are eligible for reappointment.
  • The Parliament under the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Commission.
  • As per the act, the Chairperson should be a person having experience in public affairs.
  • So persons under the three organs of state whether Executive, Legislative or Judiciary are eligible for appointment. P. V. Rajamannar who was Chief Justice of Madras High court was Chairman of the 4th Finance Commission.
  • Though Finance Commission is a Quasi-Judicial body its recommendations are not binding on the government. recommendations are only advisory in nature and it is up to the government whether to implement recommendations or not. Hence, statement 2 is correct.