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RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 (120 Questions)

You can boost your Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam preparation with this RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 120
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: General Knowledge, Engineering Civil

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RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Which one of the following is not a tributary of Banas River ?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct answer is Parvati.

  • Parvati River is a tributary of the Chambal River.
  • Parvati River is also known as the 'Para River.
  • This river originates from the western ranges of Vindhyachal and joins the Sindh (or Kali Sindh) flowing in the Gwalior region.

Key Points

  • Banas river
    • Banas river originates from the Khamnor hills of Aravalli.
    • Its tributaries are Bedach, Kothi, Mansi, Khari, Morel and Dhundh.
    • It is a tributary of the Chambal River, itself a tributary of the Yamuna River (which further merges with the Ganges River).
    • The total route of Banas is 512 km.
    • This entire river and its watershed area is within Rajasthan

Additional Information

  • Chambal River
    • Ancient name – Charmanvati river
    • It is also called Nityavahini and Sadavahini.
    • It is called Kamdhenu of Rajasthan.
    • Origin – Janapav hill of Vindhyachal mountain near Mhow of Indore in Madhya Pradesh
    • It joins the Yamuna after walking 322 km in Uttar Pradesh.
    • Rivers that join Chambal from the right side:- Kalisindh, Parvati, Ahu Parwan, and Niwaj
    • Rivers that join the Chambal river from the left side are Banas, Kothari, Khari, Mansi, Morel, Kural Bamni, etc.
    • Dam on Chambal River: Kota Barrage Dam, Jawahar Sagar Dam, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, Gandhi Sagar Dam

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

In which district of Rajasthan first panchayat was constituted?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The correct answer is Nagaur.

  • After Independence, Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj.
  • The scheme was inaugurated by then by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur in Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Rajasthan was the first state to introduce the panchayat system in India after independence.
  • Constitutional 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • This amendment contains provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities to the panchayats by state governments.
  • Panchayat has 29 subjects listed in the eleventh schedule of the constitution.
  • The Act aims to provide a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj.

Important Points

  • All the members of the Gram Sabha elect a Sarpanch who is the panchayat head.
  • The Ward Panchs and the Sarpanch form the Gram Panchayat.
  • The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.
  • The Gram Panchayat has a Secretary who is also the Secretary of the Gram Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Important committees related to the development of Panchayati Raj:
    • Balwant Rai Mehta.
    • Ashok Mehta Committee.
    • G.V.K. Rao Committee.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Sonari variety of sheep mostly found in which of the following districts of Rajasthan?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The correct answer is Udaipur, Dungarpur, Bhilwara.

Key Points

  • Distribution:
    • Udaipur and Dungarpur districts and, to some extent, Chittorgarh district of Rajasthan; also extends to northern Gujarat.
  • ​Numbers:
    • ​The total sheep population in the Sonadi distribution area, according to the 1972 census, was 1.76 m; according to the 1977 census it was 1.667 m. Of these, 0.150 m were adult males and 1.073 m were adult females.
  • ​​Confirmation:
    • ​Fairly well built, somewhat smaller than Malpura (see 2.2.7 above), with long legs. Light brown face with the color extending to the middle of the neck.
    • Ears are large, flat, and drooping; ear length:
      • 17.56 ± 0.17 cm (391).
    • Ears generally have a cartilaginous appendage.
    • Tail is long and thin; tail length: 30.50 ± 0.42 cm (391). Both sexes are polled.
    • The udder is fairly well developed.
    • White fleece, extremely coarse and hairy.
    • Belly and legs are devoid of wool.
  • ​Thus the most appropriate answer will be Udaipur, Dungarpur, Bhilwara.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

In 1817-1818, the following states of Rajputana signed the treaty with the East India Company :

  1. Kota
  2. Jodhpur
  3. Karauli
  4. Udaipur

Which of the following chronological order is correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct answer is 3 1 2 4.

Key Points

  • The first state which signed a treaty with the East India Company was Bharatpur.
  • Ranjeet Singh was the ruler of Bharatpur.
  • The Karauli state signed the treaty on 15 November 1817.
  • At that time the state was ruled by Harvakshpal Singh.

Additional Information

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Which of the following places are related with zinc mines?
1. Mochia
2. Dingor
3. Balaria
4. Dadiya
5. Zawar mala
Choose the correct answer from the given code :

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 5.

Key Points

  • The three main Zawar lead-zinc deposits -
    • Mochia, Balaria and Zawarmala.
  • They are located south of Udaipur in Rajasthan.
  • The Zawar belt extends for a distance of around 20 km.
  • These mines are operated by Hindustan Zinc Limited.
  • Hindustan Zinc was originally formed in 1966.
  • The Zawar mine also has a dry stack tailing plant, the first of its kind in India.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

According to Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, who is the Chairman of the District Establishment Committee?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The correct answer is Zila Pramukh.

Key Points

  • Article 243ZD of the Indian Constitution-
    • There shall be constituted in every State at the district level a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole.
  • According to Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994:
    • Zila Pramukh is the Chairman of the District Establishment Committee.
  • As per the Act, for each District, there shall be a District Establishment Committee consisting of the following-
    • Zila Pramukh, as the Chairman
    • Chief Executive Officer
    • District Elementary Education Officer (where the matter before the said committee relates to the appointment of, or disciplinary proceedings against, a teacher of a primary school)
    • An officer nominated by the competent authority
  • Some of the functions of the District Establishment Committee-
    • make a selection or the posts in different grades and categories [with exception] existing in the service in the Panchayat Samiti and the Zila Parishad
    • regulate the mode of temporary appointment and recommend the names of persons for extending such appointments beyond six months
    • prepare lists of persons for promotion in the prescribed manner
    • advise the Panchayat Samitis of the district and Zila Parishad in all disciplinary matters (with exception)

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Which of the following Sisodia rulers formed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The correct answer is Bhim Singh.

Key Points

  • Bhim Singh-
    • He became king of Mewar at the age of 10.
    • He did a subsidiary alliance with East India Company on 13 January 1818 AD.
    • Krishna Kumari was his daughter.

Additional Information

  • Jai Singh-
    • He was the son of Raj Singh.
    • He signed a treaty with Aurangzeb nearby Raj Samand lake in 1681 AD.
  • Amar Singh-
    • He was Mewar's first king who accepted Mughal's Docility.
    • He was the eldest son of Maharana Pratap.
    • On 5 February 1615 AD, he meets with Khuram (Shah Jahan who negotiated on behalf of Jahangir) and accepted Mugal's Docility.
    • His Chhatri is Situated nearby Rajsamand Lake.
  • Uday Singh-
    • He was the son of Rana Sanga.
    • He was coronated at the age of 15 in the Kumbhalgarh court in 1537 AD.
    • Shershah Suri attacked Mewar in his reign.
    • He was the Mewar's first ruler who accepted the docility of Afghan.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Which region of Rajasthan experiences Aw type of climate as per Koeppen's climatic classification?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The correct answer is Southernmost region.

  • Aw Climate Region (Tropical Wet Climate):
    • The region includes parts of Dungarpur, Chittorgarh, Pratapgarh, Banswara and Udaipur in Rajasthan.
    • The extent of this climate is in southern Rajasthan.
    • Rainfall - The average annual rainfall in this region is 80 to 100 cm.
    • Winter temperature - Average winter temperature is 12℃-15℃.
    • The temperature in Summer - Average temperature in summer is 30℃-34℃.
    • Dr. According to Vladimir Köppen, the lowest part of Rajasthan comes under the Aw climate region.
    • Vegetation - Monsoon deciduous forests and savanna-type grasslands are found.

Additional Information

  • Renowned German geographer Dr. Vladimir Koeppen classified the climate on the basis of temperature and rainfall and divided the climate of Rajasthan into four parts in 1918 on the basis of vegetation:
    • Aw Climate Region (Tropical Wet Climate)
    • BShw climate region (semi-arid or steppe climate)
    • BWhw Climate Region (Tropical Dry Desert Climate)
    • Cwg Climate Region (Subtropical Humid Climate)

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Which is not an iron ore mining area?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is Talwada.

Key Points

  • Deposits of Iron-Ore in Rajasthan
    • Jaipur – Morija-banol, Neemla-Raisalo
    • Bhilwara – Pur Banera belt
    • Udaipur – Natha ki Pal, Thur Hunder
    • Sikar – Dabla
    • Dausa -Lalsot

Additional Information

  • Other Minerals deposit in Rajasthan:
    • ​Deposits of Mica in Rajasthan:
      • Beawer-Ajmer belt: Dhand
      • Bhilwara belt: Bagor-Lesva
      • Dungarpur-Banswara belt: Chota-Padri
      • Tonk belt: Dholi & Bhojapura
    • Deposits of Dolomite in Rajasthan:
      • Ajmer: Kajla Kabra
      • Alwar: Jhiri, Dhani & Nizra
      • Bhilwara: Kosithan

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

Which among the following (River - Associated District) is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is Vatrak - Banswara.

Key Points

  • The Vatrak River is a river that flows through the Indian states of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
    • It is a tributary of the Sabarmati River.
    • It rises in the hills near Dungarpur in Rajasthan and enters Gujarat in Meghraj taluka.
    • It joins the Sabarmati river near Dholka.

Additional Information

  • Kankani river originates from Kothari village (Jaisalmer).
    • This river is the smallest river of internal flow.
  • The Banganga River originates from the Bairath hills of the Jaipur district. It flows in three districts of Rajasthan Jaipur, Dausa and Bharatpur.
    • Jamwa Ramgarh dam is built on this river in Jaipur.
    • It joins the Yamuna river at Fatehabad salt station near Agra in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Dai (Ajmer, Jaipur)

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

The momentum correction factor (β) for the stream-line flow in pipes is generally ________.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

a) Momentum correction factor (β):

The momentum correction factor is defined as the ratio of the momentum of the flow per second based on actual velocity to the momentum of the flow per second based on average velocity across a section.

For turbulent flow, the momentum correction factor is slightly higher than one near to 1.2 and

for laminar, its value is 1.33 = 4/3

b) Kinetic energy correction factor(α):

  • It is defined as the ratio of kinetic energy/second based on actual velocity to the kinetic energy/second based on average velocity.
  • where A = area, V= average velocity, u= local velocity at distance r.
  • For laminar flow in a circular pipe α = 2

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

What is the maximum acceptable limit of Sulphide (as H2S) (Max.) (in mg/l), as per latest revised, updated and amended code IS 10500 : 2012?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

As per IS 10500: 2012 clause 3, the acceptable and permissible limit of some constituents in drinking water are as follow:

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

The engineer chain used for chain survey is ________ long.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Concept:

Chain surveying:

  • Chain surveying is the simplest method of surveying.
  • Measurements for this survey are taken on the field and other supplementary works like plotting and calculations are carried out in the office.
  • The measurements in chain surveying are linear.
  • Chain, tape, ranging rod, arrows and, cross-staff, Offset rods, Plumb bob are the tools required for chain surveying.

Types of chain:

1. Revenue chain:

  • The revenue chain is 33 ft long.
  • It is used by the Revenue Department of India.
  • The number of links is 16, each link being .

2. Gunter's chain:

  • It is also known as the surveyor’s chain.
  • It comes in standard 66 ft. this chain consists of 100 links, each link being 0.66 ft or 7.92 inches.
  • The length 66 ft is selected because it is convenient in land measurements.

3. Engineer's chain:

  • This chain comes in 100 ft length.
  • Its consists of 100 links each link being 1ft long.
  • At every 10 links, a brass ring or tags are provided for indication of 10 links. Readings are taken in feet and decimal.

4. Metric chain:

  • Metric chains are the most commonly used chain in India. These types of chains come in many lengths such as 5, 10, 20, and 30 meters.
  • The most commonly used is a 20m chain. Tallies are provided at every 2m of the chain for quick reading. Every link of this type of chain is 0.2m. The total length of the chain is marked on the brass handle at the ends.
  • Metric chain - 30 m (150 links) or 20 m (100 links)

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Find the incorrect statement.
A good formwork

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Concepts:

Concrete being plastic material in fresh state, has to kept within an enclosure (moulds) till it gain reasonable strength, this temporary structure which has to be built for any concrete member is called Formwork.

Characteristics of Good formwork:

  1. Formwork should be smooth get a smooth surface of the required member.
  2. It should strictly follow dimensions of the structure.
  3. It should be such that it can easily be removed without damaging the surface, so that, a suitable mould oil (release agent) is recommended for easy striking of forms.
  4. Deflection is the most important consideration for design of formwork, the limit for deflection varies according to class of the work. For simply supported spans, this limit is not more than span/360.
  5. Formwork must be water tight: so that there is not loss of fine material (cement paste etc.).
  6. It is strong enough to support the weight of fresh concrete during placing and compacting, and any other loads it may be required to take.
  7. It should be cheap, easily available and can be reused several times.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Compressibility is the reciprocal of the

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Bulk modulus: The ratio of hydrostatic stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic range is called bulk modulus.

SI unit of the bulk modulus is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm–2 or Pa.

Compressibility: The reciprocal of the Bulk modulus of the material of a body is called the compressibility of that material.

Unit of compressibility ∝ 1/Unit of Bulk Modulus ∝ 1/Nm–2 m2N-1 m2/N

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

In the design of a straight glacis fall, the minimum clear length of the crest for >3 m drop is ______.

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Concept:

In the design of straight glacis fall, the clear length of the crest is calculated as per the table given below;

Hence option (2) is correct.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

The following statements (S1 and S2) pertain to the effect of moisture content in wood.

S1: The physical and mechanical properties of wood are dependent on moisture content, for moisture content above the fibre saturation point.

S2: Shrinkage of wood in the longitudinal direction is the least when compared to the radial and tangential directions, for change in the moisture content from the fibre saturation point to oven dry.

Identify whether the statements is/are true/false and select the most appropriate answer. ​

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Concepts:

S1 False

The Fiber Saturation Point (FSP) in wood is the stage where the cell walls are fully saturated with water, but the cell lumens are empty. Below this point, typically around 25-30% moisture content, changes in moisture content can affect the wood's mechanical properties like strength, stiffness, and hardness. However, up to this point, the mechanical properties are not materially affected as the water is only being removed from the cell lumens and not the cell walls.

S2: True

Shrinkage in wood takes place due to a reduction in moisture content. This reduction takes place in directions perpendicular to the grain only, while a much smaller change takes place along the length. The experimental results show that wood shrinks and swells the greatest amount in the tangential direction, about half as much in the radial direction, and about 0.1% to 0.2% in the longitudinal direction.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

The following figure represents:

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Stretcher Bond:

A course of brick in which all the bricks are laid as stretcher on the facing is known as stretcher course

Header Bond:

Header is shorter (9 × 9) face of brick.

→ A course of brick in which all the bricks are laid as Header on the facing is known as Header course.

English Bond:

→ This bond consist of alternate courses of Header and stretches.

→ A Queen closer is used after first header.

Flemish Bond:

This bond consist of alternate Header and stretches in each course.

So, ACC2 to Figure given in question, In each course alternate Header and stretchers are placed, so this is Flemish Bond.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

As per IS 456-2000, the minimum transverse reinforcement shall be _________ for a slab which is assumed to act as a compression flange of a T-beam.

Consider that the main reinforcement of the slab parallel to the beam is 500 mm2/m.

Detailed Solution: Question 19

According to IS 456: 2000, clause no. 23.1., 1 If the transverse reinforcement shall not be less than 60% of the main reinforcement at the mid-span of the slab.

Calculation:
Main reinforcement of the slab parallel to the beam = 500 mm2/m.
The minimum transverse reinforcement = 60% × 500 = 300 mm2/m.

Additional Information

For monolithic and isolated T - beam, effective of flange width is given by:

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Gross irrigated area is equal to:

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Gross irrigated area = Net irrigated area in a year + Area irrigated more than once in the same year

Additional Information

Gross Crop Area:

  • Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a given year ( particular year). When the crop is sown on a piece of land twice, the area is counted twice in the gross cropped area (GCA), or counting the area as many times as the number of crops sown (or grown) on the same land.

Gross Command Area:

  • Gross command area is the total area enclosed within the project's irrigation boundary that can be economically irrigated regardless of the amount of water available.
  • Gross command area includes culturable area and unculturable area. Examples of unculturable area include ponds, residential areas, reserved forests, and roads.

Cultivated Command Area:

  • The cultivable command area is also called a culturable command area. This is defined as the cultivable part of the gross command area. This is that area where cultivation is possible.

Net Crop Area:

  • The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net cropped area. Or in other words, Net Crop Area is defined as the area sown once as well as more than once in a given year but counted only once.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Which of the following is most durable varnish?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Oil varnishes:

  • Linseed oil is used as a solvent in this type of varnish.
  • The hard resins such as amber and copal are dissolved in linseed oil and if the varnish is not workable, a small quantity of turpentine is added.
  • The oil varnishes dry slowly, but they form hard and durable surface.
  • oil varnishes are the hardest and the most suitable varnishes.
  • They are specially adopted for exposed works which require frequent cleaning. They are used on coaches and fittings in houses.

Spirit varnishes:

  • The methylated spirits of wine are used as solvent in this type of varnish.
  • The resins are of soft variety such as lac or shellac.
  • The spirit varnishes dry quickly. But they are not durable and are easily affected by weathering actions.
  • They are generally used for furniture.
  • The French polish is a variety of this class of varnish and the desired colouring tinge can be obtained by the addition of suitable colouring pigment.
  • The French polish is one of the finest finish for ornamental furniture prepared from superior-quality of wood.

Turpentine varnishes:

  • The turpentine is used as solvent in this type of varnish.
  • The resins adopted are of soft variety such as gum dammar, mastic and rosin.
  • These varnishes dry quickly and possess light colours.
  • They are not durable and tough as oil varnishes.

Water varnishes:

  • The shellac is dissolved in hot water and enough quantity of either ammonia or borax or potash or soda is added such that shellac is dissolved.
  • These varnishes are used for varnishing maps, pictures, etc.
  • They are also used for delicate internal work and as a covering for wall paper.

The most durable varnish is oil varnish, hence option (1) is correct.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

What will be the shear stress for the laminar flow of oil with a maximum velocity of 5 m/s between two horizontal fixed plates which are 150 mm apart. (μ = 2.5 Ns/m2).

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Concept:

Velocity distribution across a section:

For flow between two stationary parallel plates:
y = 0, u = 0 and y = t, u = 0

At y = t/2, u = Umax

Average velocity:

where Umax = Maximum velocity, μ = dynamic viscosity, ∂p/∂x = axial pressure gradient , t = distance between two parallel plates.

Calculation:

Given:

μ = 2.5 Ns/m2 , t = 150 mm = 0.15 m, Umax = 5 m/s

We know

Shear stress at the wall:


τ = 333.33 Pa

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

In consolidation testing, what is curve fitting method used to determine?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Coefficient of consolidation: Coefficient of Consolidation is defined as the parameter used to measure the rate at which the saturated clay or soil undergoes compaction or consolidation when they subjected to an increase in the pressure.

There are two types of curve fitting method used to determine:

Logarithm of Time fitting method:
This method was formulated by Casagrande to compute the value of settlement at consolidation U of 100%. The semi-log plot is made from laboratory test results. The consolidation curve using the results is plotted between the value of the degree of consolidation U and logarithm of time taken.

Square Root of Time method:
In this method, the curve is plotted between dial gauge reading as ordinate and the square root of time taken from the consolidation test results. It was developed by Taylor. The value of time required for 90% consolidation and coefficient of consolidation is obtained from the graph.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

A stratified soil deposit consists of three layers. The permeabilities of the layers are 8.5 x 10-4, 38 x 10-4 and 12 x 10-4 cm/sec; the thickness of the layers are 6.2 m , 3.5 m and 10 m respectively. Then the average permeability of the deposit perpendicular to plane is

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Concept:

Consider a section of stratified soil as shown in the figure below of varying thickness of each stratum eg: H1, H2, H3 & H4, with their respective coefficient of permeability k1, k2, k3 & k4

1) Horizontal Flow (Parallel to bedding plane):

Flow is taking place through all the layers at the same time hence hydraulic gradient is the same in each layer.

(constant)

2) Vertical flow (Normal to bedding Plane):

Calculation:

Given:
kv1 = 8.5 × 10-4 cm/s, H1 = 6.2 m
kv2 = 38 × 10-4 cm/s, H1 = 3.5 m
kv3 = 12 × 10-4 cm/s, H2 = 10 m

Equivalent vertical permeability (keq v)

 
⟹ 11.9 × 10-4 m/s = 1.19 × 10-3 cm/sec

The vertical (perpendicular) permeability is 1.19 × 10-3 cm/sec

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Which of the following tests is performed to detect the leakage of rain water pipe in the testing of house sewers?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The laid pipes are usually tested to ascertain the water-tightness of the pipes and joints. There are three tests that are commonly performed to test leakage of the pipes and are as follows:

  1. Air Test - Generally used to test underground and vertical pipes. The escape of air from the leaky joint forms bubbles that can be seen visually.
  2. Water Test - Most commonly used for underground house sewer pipes. The drain is plugged at the lower end and the water is filled in the pipe through the upper manhole to maintain a pressure of 1 to 1.5 m depth of water. If there is no drop in the water level in 10 minutes, then there is no leakage from the pipe.
  3. Smoke Test - Generally used to detect leakage of existing vertical sullage pipe or rainwater pipes. In this test, smoke is forced into the pipe with the help of a blower to test the leakage.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

The method used to remove the salinity of the soil is

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Leaching: In this process, the land is flooded with adequate depth of water in order to maintain the salinity of a given soil, and to avoid any further increase in its salinity.

Note: Flood irrigation, sprinkler irrigation, surface irrigation are the methods of irrigations.

∴ The method used to remove the salinity of the soil is called leaching.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

A statically indeterminate structure is the one which:

Detailed Solution: Question 27

(i) If a structure is determinate then equations of equilibrium(ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0, ΣM = 0) are enough to find reaction, shear force, bending moment, and axial thrust at supports and members.
(ii) The equilibrium conditions do not involve the use of properties of materials and cross-section.
(iii) If the structure is indeterminate then apart from equilibrium conditions extra compatibility conditions (Relation between deformation) are required which depend upon the properties of materials and cross-section.
(iv) If properties of materials are known then exact methods can be used to analyze the structure but if the properties of material are not known then approximate methods may be used.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

The method of plane tabling commonly used for establishing the instrument stations only, is a

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Plane table surveying:

It is a graphical method of surveying in which the fieldwork and plotting are carried out simultaneously.

Principle:

The rays drawn from different points should pass through a single point i.e position of station point.

Methods:

1) Radiation method:

It is adopted when the points to be plotted are intervisible and accessible from a single instrument station. Orientation is not required because only one instrument station is required.

2) Intersection method:

It is adopted when the points to be plotted are intervisible but inaccessible. Orientation is required

3) Traversing method:

The traverse is directly plotted on the paper by drawing the traverse lines with the alidade. No angle measuring instrument is used.

4) Resection method:

Resection is a general term used or the process of determining the location of the instrument station. The principle of resection is opposite to that of the intersection method.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The degree of freedom (or kinematically indeterminate) of the continuous beam ABC shown in Figure, with support A as fixed and supports B and C hinged is:

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Concept:
Kinematic indeterminacy:
The number of unknown joint displacements are called the degree of freedom or degree of kinematics indeterminacy. Or in other words, If the number of known displacement components exceeds the number of compatibility equations, additional equations are needed to balance and determine all displacement components. These additional equations required are known as the degree of kinematic indeterminacy.

Dk = Total possible degree of freedom - No. of available support, reactions generate as a result of restrained joint displacement.

In the given figure -
Total possible degree of freedom = 3 (at joint A) + 3 (at joint B) +3 (at joint C)

Total possible degree of freedom = 9
Total number of available restraints = 3 (at support A) + 1 (at support B) + 1 (at support C)

Total number of available restraints = 5
Dk = 9 - 5 = 4

Dk = 4
Degree of freedom (Dk) of a given figure is 4.

RSMSSB JE Civil Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

The daily per capita consumption of water apparently increases with:
A. Higher standard of living of people
B. Availability of sewerage in the city
C. Metered water supply
D. Wholesome and potable quality of water

Choose the correct answer below.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Factor affecting demand of water;

  • Size of city
  • Extent of industrialization
  • Type of sewerage system
  • Type of gentry
  • Climate condition
  • Cost of water
  • Quality of water
  • Type of distribution system
  • Pressure in the distribution system

Note: Metered water supply decreases water demand because people have to pay the cost of water according to their use.

Important points:

Types of water demand and their range;

Total water demand = 250 to 350 (Avg = 335) (liter/capita/day)

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