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Judiciary Exams Exam  >  Judiciary Exams Test  >  Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2026  >  Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Judiciary Exams MCQ

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 (100 Questions)

You can boost your Judiciary Exams 2026 exam preparation with this Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Judiciary Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 1
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Who is considered a "living person" under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The term "living person" under the Transfer of Property Act includes companies, associations, or bodies of individuals, whether incorporated or not, in addition to natural persons. Thus, Option C is accurate.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 2
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The power of supreme court to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it previously or power to review its own judgment is provided in Article

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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 3
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Who appoints the Attorney general of India and Comptroller and auditor general of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by the President of India following a recommendation by the Prime Minister. On appointment, he/she has to make an oath or affirmation before the President of India.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 4
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Which one of the following is the correct combination regarding country and its capital?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct country-capital pairs are:
- Australia: Canberra (not Sydney).
- Pakistan: Islamabad (not Karachi).
- Japan: Tokyo (correct).
- United States of America: Washington, D.C. (not New York).
Only Option C correctly matches Japan with its capital, Tokyo. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 5
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How does the amendment of pleadings contribute to fostering equity within the legal system?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The amendment of pleadings plays a significant role in upholding fairness within the legal system by ensuring that both sides have an equal opportunity to present their respective cases. This process acts as a safeguard against one party gaining an unjust advantage over the other, promoting a balanced and just legal environment where disputes can be resolved equitably.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 6
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What does BSA consider a "not proved" fact?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

BSA states a fact is "not proved" when it is neither proved nor disproved, lacking certainty. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 7
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Doing of an act which would bring the Government establishment by law in India into hatred is called as:___________

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code defines sedition as acts that bring or attempt to bring hatred, contempt, or disaffection towards the Government established by law in India. Waging war (Section 121) involves direct hostility, conspiracy (Section 120A) involves agreement to commit an offence, and abetment (Section 107) involves instigating an offence. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 8
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Which river is the primary source of water for Bengaluru?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The Kaveri River is the primary source of water for Bengaluru, supplying water through pipelines from the river basin.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 9
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The National Judicial Academy is situated at ___________:

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The National Judicial Academy (NJA), established for the training and research of judicial officers in India, is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The other options—New Delhi, Bengaluru, and Nagpur—are incorrect as they do not host the NJA. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 10
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How does undue influence impact the weaker party's decision-making capacity?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Undue influence significantly diminishes the weaker party's capacity to make independent and well-informed decisions. By leveraging a position of power or trust, the influencing party exerts psychological or emotional pressure, impairing the vulnerable party's ability to act autonomously. This manipulation can lead to agreements that are unjust or unconscionable, highlighting the detrimental effects of undue influence in contractual relationships.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 11
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'A' was relieved of his wristwatch worth Rs. 100 by 'B' in a running train. When the train was about to stop at a railway station, 'A' raised an alarm. At this point of time, 'C' pushed 'A' as a result of which 'A' fell down and sustained injuries. This was done by 'C' to enable 'B' to carry the stolen watch. 'C' has committed the offence of:

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Under Section 390 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC), theft becomes robbery if, during the commission of theft or in carrying away the stolen property, the offender causes or attempts to cause hurt, wrongful restraint, or fear of instant hurt. 'B' committed theft by taking the watch, and 'C' pushed 'A', causing injuries (hurt under Section 319), to enable 'B' to escape with the stolen watch. Since 'C' acted in furtherance of the theft, both 'B' and 'C' are liable for robbery under Section 392 read with Section 34 (common intention). Option A (hurt) is too narrow, Option B (grievous hurt) requires specific injuries not mentioned, and Option C (abetment) is incorrect, as 'C’s direct act constitutes the principal offence. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 12
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What should be included in the title of a written statement as per the Civil Procedure Code (CPC)?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

According to the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), the title of a written statement should prominently indicate it as a "Written Statement" under the CPC. It must also include the case number and the names of the parties involved. This ensures clarity and proper identification of the legal document for all parties involved.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 13
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What legal principle highlighted in the Indian Contract Act was central to the court's ruling in the case of Mohri Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The court's ruling in the case of Mohri Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose emphasized the importance of the parties possessing the legal capacity to enter into a contract as outlined in Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act. This legal principle ensures that the parties involved are of legal age and sound mind, making them competent to enter into a contract.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 14
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Three men (Tej, Partha, and Jeeva) and three women (Eleena, Anita and Kavita) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There is nobody else staying in the same row of houses.

1) Anita, Tej and Jeeva do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.

2) Anita is unwilling to stay beside any occupied cottage.

3) Kavita is next to Partha and Jeeva.

4) Between Anita and Jeeva’s cottage-there is just one vacant house.

5) None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.

6) The house occupied by Tej is next to an end cottage.

Q.
Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The correct option is D.
Arrangement is as follows-
Tej,Parth,kavita, jeeva, vacant,anita, vacant, ellena,vacant

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 15
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Under what condition may a perpetual injunction be granted?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

A perpetual injunction is granted to prevent the breach of an existing legal obligation. This can originate from various legal sources such as contracts, torts, or trusts. Unlike temporary injunctions that address immediate harms, perpetual injunctions provide a long-term remedy to protect rights that are currently being violated or threatened.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 16
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What does Section 122 of the Provisions Dealing With Privileged Communication in Evidence Act primarily focus on?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Section 122 of the Provisions Dealing With Privileged Communication in Evidence Act primarily focuses on communication within marriage. This section specifies that spouses are not obliged to disclose conversations shared during marriage without the consent of the communicating spouse or their legal representative. It outlines exceptions to this rule and highlights the legal implications of communication within the marital relationship.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 17
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Which of the following does NOT constitute abetment?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Mere failure to prevent an offence does not amount to abetment, as abetment requires active instigation, conspiracy, or aiding under Section 107. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 18
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Directions : Read the following information and the five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Steve Jobs himself said it: “It’s smart to take an existing idea and enhance it beautifully,” Apple did it and so did some of the most successful brands worldwide. To be successful, it is not essential to imovation’ which is a combination of innovation and imitation.

(A) As an innovation is a standalone product in the market, it reaps in all the profit till the ‘innovators’ imitate it. ‘Imovation’, however, is not profitable as there are many imitated products in the market at the same time, all reducing each other’s profits.

(B) Brand X duplicated Brand Y’s mobile phones with exactly the same features and same price range but failed to make an impact in the market.

(C) No one remembers the innovators after some time because they did not turn their idea into success. On the other hands, the imitators did what they had to just at the right time.

(D) While Sanfy invented portable MP3 players, it was Apple which enabled MP3 players to play videos and games at a fairly reasonable price, thus capturing the market.

(e) ‘Imovation’ is a lot less risky business venture. An imitator is already equipped with the analysis of how market received the innovation

Q. 
Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represented an advantage of imitating an existing product?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Direct from the statement "While Sanfy invented portable MP3 players, it was Apple which enabled MP3 players to play videos and games at a fairly reasonable price, thus capturing the market."

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 19
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What does the BNSS define differently from the recommended bail definition?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

The BNSS provides a different bail definition than the recommended temporary release with a court appearance guarantee, as per Clause 479. Hence, Option B is correct.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 20
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P is the sister of I, Q is married to M, E is grandmother of F.

  1. K is the father of A, Q is married to only brother of K
  2. P has only two children one is daughter and one  is son
  3. H is granddaughter of N, who is father of I, A’s maternal uncle has only one child F
  4. G and A are cousin

Q.
How is E related to A?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The correct answer is C as A 's maternal uncle has only one child F . So this concludes that A and F are cousins and since E is grandmother of F so she will be the grandmother of his cousin A too.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 21
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Which legal principle does BSA emphasize for an accused person?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

BSA underscores that an accused person is presumed innocent until proven guilty, ensuring fair trials. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 22
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What is the doctrine of part-performance under Section 53A?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Section 53A protects a transferee who has paid, taken possession, and performed obligations under an unregistered contract, preventing eviction. Option B is correct.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 23
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In an interpleader suit, the primary conflict typically arises between which parties?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

In an interpleader suit, the core conflict usually arises among the conflicting parties themselves, rather than involving the plaintiff directly. The purpose of the interpleader suit is to resolve disputes between rival defendants who are making conflicting claims to the assets, funds, or property held by a third party. This legal action helps to avoid multiple lawsuits and aims to settle matters involving parties other than the plaintiff.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 24
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According to Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, agreements that aim to prevent individuals from marrying, other than minors, are considered invalid in order to uphold which fundamental right?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act invalidates agreements that restrict individuals from marrying to safeguard their right to choose life partners freely. This provision ensures that individuals have the autonomy to make decisions concerning their personal lives without undue interference, protecting a fundamental aspect of individual liberty and personal choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 25
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Who is eligible to file a caveat under Section 148A of the CPC?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

According to Section 148A of the CPC, any individual, even if not directly involved in the lawsuit, can file a caveat. This provision allows individuals with a legal right to present themselves before the court regarding the specific lawsuit to lodge a caveat to protect their interests.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 26
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What happens if a tenant defaults on rent payment after receiving a notice benefit once?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

If a tenant defaults on rent after having received the benefit of a notice once, they are not entitled to further notice for subsequent defaults on the same premises. Hence, Option B is correct.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 27
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Which temple in Karnataka is famous for its Hoysala architecture?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The Chennakeshava Temple in Belur is a prime example of Hoysala architecture, known for its intricate stone carvings.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 28
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Directions: In this type of questions, some particular words are assigned certain substituted names. Then a question is asked that is to be answered in the substituted code language.

If 'rain' is 'water', 'water' is 'road', 'road' is 'cloud', 'cloud' is 'sky', 'sky' is 'sea' and 'sea' is 'path', where do aero planes fly ?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The aero planes fly in the "sky" and the 'sky' is called 'sea'.So, the aero planes fly the 'sea'.

Hence, option B is correct.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 29
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In a class of 20 students, Alisha's rank is 15th from the top. Manav is 4 ranks above Alisha. What is Manav's rank from the bottom?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Manav's rank from the top = 15 – 4 = 11th.

Manav's rank from the bottom

= 20 + 1 – 11 = 10th

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 2 - Question 30
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In the case of Beant Singh v. Dilbagh Singh, why was the defendant allowed to submit a written statement even after the 90-day statutory period had lapsed?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The defendant, Beant Singh, was granted the opportunity to submit a written statement after the 90-day statutory period had lapsed because the High Court acknowledged that despite the defendant's negligence in pursuing his case, he had been given multiple chances to file the written statement. This decision was based on recognizing the potential harm and loss the defendant might suffer if not granted another opportunity to present his defense.

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About this Judiciary Exams Mock Test

This mock test contains 100 questions designed to replicate the pattern, difficulty level and time pressure of the actual Judiciary Exams exam. It is part of Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2026 on EduRev, covering all the topics that are being asked as per the current Judiciary Exams syllabus. Attempting this test under timed conditions will help you assess your exam readiness, identify subject-wise weak areas, and improve your speed and accuracy before the actual exam.

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