Indian Polity- 2 - SSC CGL Free MCQ Test with solutions

Fundamental Rights are not absolute and can be restricted reasonably (e.g., Article 19 restrictions), making Statement 1 false. Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, expanded in cases like Maneka Gandhi (1978), making Statement 2 true.

Article 1 defines India as a “Union of States” and describes its territory. Article 14 (equality), Article 32 (constitutional remedies), and Article 356 (President’s Rule) have different purposes.

The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the Right to Property (Article 31) as a Fundamental Right and restored judicial review powers, reversing some 42nd Amendment provisions. Other options relate to different amendments.

Quo Warranto is issued to question the legality of a person’s claim to a public office. Habeas Corpus (unlawful detention), Mandamus (public duty), and Certiorari (judicial review) serve different purposes.

The Fifth Schedule governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas. The Eighth Schedule (languages), Ninth Schedule (laws protected from judicial review), and Tenth Schedule (anti-defection) have different roles.

Statement 1 is correct as the President is elected by an electoral college (Article 54).
Statement 2 is false as Article 356 relates to President’s Rule in states, while national emergency is under Article 352.

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment (1985), contains provisions for the anti-defection law, addressing disqualification of MPs/MLAs for defection. Other schedules serve different purposes.

The 42nd Amendment (1976) is called the “Mini-Constitution” for its wide-ranging changes, including adding “socialist,” “secular,” and Fundamental Duties. Other amendments had more specific focuses.

Article 14 ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 19 (freedoms), Article 21 (life and liberty), and Article 32 (constitutional remedies) address different rights.

Article 39 promotes equitable distribution, making Statement 1 correct. DPSPs are non-justiciable and not enforceable by courts, unlike Fundamental Rights, making Statement 2 false.

The 73rd Amendment (1992) mandates State Election Commissions to conduct elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions. The Election Commission of India handles parliamentary and state assembly elections.

The NJAC case (2015) saw the Supreme Court strike down the 99th Amendment and NJAC Act, preserving the Collegium system for judicial appointments. Other cases addressed different constitutional issues.

Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution. Article 356 (President’s Rule), Article 123 (ordinances), and Article 74 (Council of Ministers’ advice) have different functions.

The 103rd Amendment (2019) introduced a 10% reservation for EWS. The 86th (Right to Education), 101st (GST), and 44th (judicial review restoration) amendments addressed other issues.

The Lok Sabha’s maximum strength is 552 members (Article 81), making Statement 1 correct. The Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha members, not the President, making Statement 2 false.

The Ninth Schedule, introduced by the 1st Amendment (1951), protects certain laws from judicial review, primarily related to land reforms. Other schedules address different aspects.

The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India (Article 155). Other officials listed do not have this authority.

Article 40, a Gandhian DPSP, promotes the organization of village panchayats. Other options relate to Liberal-Intellectual (Uniform Civil Code) or Socialistic (equitable distribution, free legal aid) DPSPs.

Both statements are correct. One-third of Rajya Sabha members retire every two years (Article 83), and the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman (Article 89).

The National Digital Health Mission, launched on Independence Day 2020 aims to create a digital health ecosystem. Other initiatives have different objectives.