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Full Mock Test & Solutions: NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 (150 Questions)

You can boost your NDA 2026 exam preparation with this NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of NDA 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 150 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 150
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: English Language, General Awareness

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NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

He said to me, "I must win this game."

Detailed Solution: Question 1


To convert direct speech to indirect speech, we need to make a few changes in the sentence. Let's analyze the options:
A: He told me that he must win this game.
- In indirect speech, the pronouns usually change. Here, "I" becomes "he" and "me" becomes "him."
- The reporting verb "said" changes to "told."
- The tense of the verb usually changes from present to past.
- The word "this" remains the same as it refers to the game mentioned in the direct speech.
B: He told me that he had to win that game.
- This option correctly changes the pronouns, as explained in option A.
- The word "must" changes to "had to" to indicate past tense.
- The word "that" is used instead of "this" to refer to the game mentioned in the direct speech.
C: He told me that he had to win this game.
- This option incorrectly changes the word "this" to "that." The correct word is "this" as it refers to the game mentioned in the direct speech.
D: He told me that he must win that game.
- This option correctly changes the pronouns, as explained in option A.
- The tense of the verb remains the same, indicating present tense.
- The word "that" is used instead of "this" to refer to the game mentioned in the direct speech.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B: He told me that he had to win that game. It accurately converts the direct speech into indirect speech, taking into account the changes in pronouns, verb tense, and the use of the word "that" to refer to the game mentioned.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

He said to his father, “Please increase my pocket-money.”

Detailed Solution: Question 2


To convert the reported speech to direct speech, we need to consider the following points:
- The reporting verb "said" should be changed to "told" or "asked" in the reported speech.
- The pronoun "his" should be changed to "my" in the reported speech.
- The phrase "increase my pocket-money" should be changed to "increase his pocket-money" in the reported speech.
Converting the sentence to direct speech:
He said to his father, "Please increase my pocket-money."
The correct options are:
A:

He told his father, "Please increase the pocket-money."


- This option correctly changes the reporting verb to "told" and adjusts the pronoun and phrase accordingly.
B:

He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket money.


- This option does not accurately change the pronoun and phrase. It also uses the incorrect reporting verb "pleaded."
C:

He requested his father to increase his pocket-money.


- This option correctly changes the reporting verb to "requested" and adjusts the pronoun and phrase accordingly.
D:

He asked his father to increase his pocket-money.


- This option correctly changes the reporting verb to "asked" and adjusts the pronoun and phrase accordingly.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: He requested his father to increase his pocket-money.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

The event was canceled, ____ we planned a new one.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

So shows the result of the cancellation leading to planning a new event. The other options suggest contrast, examples, or simultaneity.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

The topic was interesting, ____ I read more about it.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

So indicates the result of the topic’s interest leading to further reading. The other options suggest contrast or addition.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q and S. Each sentence is followed by four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d), indicating the rearrangement of the parts. You are required to select the most appropriate option and mark your response.
a decade sooner than 2050 (P)/ that the population will peak (Q)/ the second scenario suggested (R)/ at 8⋅5 billion by 2040 (S)

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The correct answer is Option (B) i.e. RQSP
Key Points

  • The sentence logically begins with "the second scenario suggested," which introduces the context and the proposition, indicated by R.
  • Next, "that the population will peak" follows up by explaining what the scenario suggested, indicated by Q.
  • Following this, "at 8.5 billion by 2040" provides the specific detail related to the peak, indicated by S.
  • Finally, "a decade sooner than 2050" completes the thought by placing the timeline in context, represented by P.

Therefore, the correct answer is RQSP.
Additional Information

  • Option A (PSQR): This sequence incorrectly starts with "a decade sooner than 2050," leaving the context unclear and disrupting the logical flow.
  • Option C (RPSQ): This sequence places "a decade sooner than 2050" before specifying the population peak, making the sentence less coherent.
  • Option D (PRSQ): This sequence starts with "a decade sooner than 2050" and does not follow a logical flow, making the sentence fragmented and confusing.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Which among the following is the correct equation between the P-5 Nations at the United Nations Security Council?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Refer to, “India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other.”

It is very much clear from the above lines that the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are divided in their opinions and there are basically two groups in this council. The US, UK and France are on one side whereas Russia and China are on the other side.

Among the given options, we can see that Option C gives us the correct situation of the UNSC and the group based politics in the council whereas other options can be eliminated from consideration.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Which among the following is correct regarding the equation India shares with the UNSC permanent members?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Refer to, “India has a unique role to play at the UNSC, given the near-complete polarization among the permanent members (P-5 nations), with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and Russia and China on the other. India’s ability to work with both sides is well known.”

It is clear from the above lines that India has balanced relationship with both the camps in the UNSC Security Council and that is why India can work with both the sides.

Among the given options, Option C is the correct pick due to the fact that it gives us the correct equation of Indian government with the other countries. Other options can be eliminated since they do not follow from the information given in the passage.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Which among the following should be the ultimate goal of the Indian government when it gets the non-permanent membership of UNSC?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Refer to, “An even bigger challenge will be to nudge all five permanent members on the one issue they have unitedly resisted: towards the reform and expansion of the UNSC, which would include India’s claim to a permanent seat at the high table.”

It is clear from the above lines that the author wants the government to take up the challenge to get India a seat in the United Nations Security Council. It should get permanent membership of that council after getting into the non-permanent membership of the organization.

Among the given options, we can see that Option A is our pick since it provides us the correct opinion of the author regarding the ultimate goal of India after getting the UNSC non-permanent membership group. Others can be ruled out due to the fact that they do not follow from the given passage.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark mark your response.

S1: James Watt used the power of steam to drive machines.
P: With petrol engines people were able to build motor cars and aeroplanes.
Q: Then, many years later, the petrol engine was invented.
​R: These provided quicker means of traveling.
S: His invention was used later by other clever men to give us the railway engine.
S6: The jet engine is relatively more recent.

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is "SQPR"

Key Points

  • Sentence S1 mentions that James Watt used the power of steam to drive machines.
  • Sentence S explains that his invention was later used by other clever men to give us the railway engine.
  • Sentence Q says that many years later, the petrol engine was invented.
  • Sentence P mentions that with petrol engines, people were able to build motor cars and aeroplanes, which provided quicker means of traveling.
  • Sentence R states that the jet engine is a relatively more recent invention.
  • Sentence S6 confirms this by stating that the jet engine is more recent.
  • When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about the history of transportation technology, beginning with James Watt's use of steam power and culminating in the development of the jet engine.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 James Watt used the power of steam to drive machines. S His invention was used later by other clever men to give us the railway engine. Q Then, many years later, the petrol engine was invented. P With petrol engines people were able to build motor cars and aeroplanes. R These provided quicker means of traveling. S6 The jet engine is relatively more recent.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

The flight was canceled, ____ we booked a train.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Thus indicates the result of the cancellation leading to booking a train. The other options suggest examples, contrast, or alternatives.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

Qubit refers to a two-valued quantity used in

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The correct answer is quantum computers.

Key Points

  • A qubit, or quantum bit, is the fundamental unit of quantum information in quantum computing.
  • Unlike a classic binary bit, which can exist in one of two states (0 or 1), a qubit can exist simultaneously in multiple states due to quantum superposition.
  • This property allows quantum computers to process a vast amount of information at once, making them potentially much more powerful than classical computers for certain tasks.
  • Quantum entanglement, another quantum phenomenon, allows qubits that are entangled to be correlated with each other regardless of the distance separating them. This is integral for quantum computing and quantum cryptography.
  • Current research and development in quantum computing are focused on harnessing these properties for applications in cryptography, modeling, and solving complex computational problems that are infeasible for classical computers.

Additional Information

  • Classical computers
    • Classical computers use the traditional binary data system (bits), which can be either a 0 or a 1.
    • They are powerful for a wide range of tasks, including general-purpose computing and running of software applications, but are limited by binary processing for specific complex computations.
  • Classical cryptography
    • Relies on traditional mathematical computations for encryption and security.
    • While quantum computers pose a threat to classical cryptography due to their potential to break existing encryption methods, classical forms are still widely used and effective for most current security needs.
  • Lasers
    • Lasers emit light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation.
    • While they have applications in various areas of science and technology, including in creating quantum states for research, they do not inherently involve qubits or quantum computing.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

The base of an electric iron is brightly polished mainly -

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Polished surfaces are poor radiators of heat. So loss of heat on that account is reduced and the electric iron remains hotter than otherwise.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about Rana Kumbha of Mewar:

1. He wrote a commentary on Jayadeva's Gitagovinda.

2. He wrote four dramas in which he is said to have made use of four provincial languages.

3. He erected Kirtistambha in Chitor in commemoration of his victory over Gujarat.

​Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Key PointsRana Kumbha of Mewar

  • Rana Kumbha, also known as Maharana Kumbhakarna, was a ruler of Mewar, a region in the present-day state of Rajasthan, India. He is known for his contributions to art, architecture, and music, as well as his military victories.
  • He wrote a commentary on Jayadeva's Gitagovinda. The Gitagovinda is a Sanskrit poem composed by the 12th-century Indian poet, Jayadeva, and is considered a significant text in the Bhakti movement of Hinduism. Rana Kumbha's commentary on this text highlights his scholarly interest and patronage of the arts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • He wrote four dramas in which he is said to have made use of four provincial languages. This fact underscores Rana Kumbha's linguistic abilities and his efforts to promote cultural diversity through literature. It reflects the cosmopolitan nature of his court and his support for regional languages. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • He erected Kirtistambha in Chitor in commemoration of his victory over Gujarat. Kirtistambha, or the Tower of Fame, is located in Chittorgarh Fort in Rajasthan. It is an imposing victory monument that celebrates Rana Kumbha's military success. This architectural marvel stands as a testament to his power and the artistic sensibilities of the era. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Chittorgarh Fort is one of the largest forts in India and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It has witnessed numerous historical events and battles and is a symbol of Rajput valor and resistance.
  • Gitagovinda is celebrated for its expression of devotion to Lord Krishna and is a key work in the development of the Bhakti tradition in Hinduism. Its influence extends beyond religious texts and into various forms of art and culture in India.
  • Rana Kumbha's reign is often remembered for its patronage of the arts, including music and literature, which led to the flourishing of Rajasthani culture. His contributions have left an indelible mark on the cultural landscape of India.
  • His military campaigns not only expanded the territory of Mewar but also secured its borders against various adversaries, making it a formidable Rajput state during his reign.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

What is the full form of PM-SURAJ, a portal inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in March 2024?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurates ‘Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan’ (PM-SURAJ) national portal, emphasizing credit support for one lakh entrepreneurs from disadvantaged communities.

Key Points

  • PM-SURAJ portal signifies the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s commitment to prioritizing underprivileged individuals in development initiatives.
  • The event includes interactions with beneficiaries of schemes like NAMASTE, VCF-SC, VCF-BC, and ASIIM, aimed at economic upliftment of Scheduled Castes, backward classes, and Safai Mitras.
  • Ministry distributes Ayushman health cards and Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits to Safai Mitras under the NAMASTE program, ensuring access to cashless healthcare services and safety for frontline workers.
  • The government’s dedication to “Vanchiton Ko Variyata” ensures equitable support for historically underserved communities, aligning with the broader vision of “Viksit Bharat” for inclusive development.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Choose the correct statements:-

Statement 1: Hormones play a crucial role in initiating reproductive functions during adolescence.

Statement 2: The pituitary gland regulates the release of sex hormones.

Statement 3: Sex hormones only affect physical development, not emotional or cognitive changes.

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The correct answer is Statements 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false.

Concept:

  • Hormones play a crucial role in the onset and regulation of reproductive functions during adolescence, including the initiation of puberty.
  • The pituitary gland is a key player in the endocrine system, regulating the release of hormones, including sex hormones, which in turn play significant roles in sexual development and function.
  • Sex hormones also influence emotional and cognitive changes, not just physical development, during puberty and across the lifespan.

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is true: Hormones are critical in initiating reproductive functions and other physical changes during adolescence.
  • Statement 2 is true: The pituitary gland plays a regulatory role in the release of sex hormones, acting under the influence of the hypothalamus and affecting the gonads testes in males and ovaries in females.
  • Statement 3 is false: Sex hormones have a broader array of effects, including on emotional and cognitive development. For example, changes in estrogen and testosterone levels are associated with mood fluctuations, cognitive changes, and behavioral adjustments during puberty.

​Conclusion:

Therefore, the correct response is that Statements 1 and 2 are true; Statement 3 is false because sex hormones do influence emotional and cognitive changes, in addition to physical development.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

A train is moving with a constant speed along a circular track. The engine o f the train emits a sound of frequency f. The frequency heard by the guard at rear end of the train :

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Let v be the speed of sound and u the speed of train.

Then 
and

The correct answer is: is equal to f

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Current flowing in conductor A is 2A and current flowing in conductor B is 4A. The ratio of magnetic field produced around conductor A to the magnetic field produced around conductor B at a distance 10 cm from both the conductors is:

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Because both of them have current flowing through them in equal ratio. i1: i2 = mag1: mag2

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

The frequency of direct current is :

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

During inter conversion of energy from one form to other forms, total energy at any time remains–

Detailed Solution: Question 19

During interconversion of energy from one form to other forms, total energy at any time remains constant.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Consider the following pairs:


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Melghat Tiger reserve:
    • It lies in the Melghat Forests of Amravati district in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra.
    • It is a part of the Satpura-Maikal landscape.
    • Protected Areas within the Reserve include Gugamal National Park, Wan, Ambawarba, and Narnala sanctuaries.
    • The Tapi river flows through the northern end of the Melghat Tiger Reserve, through a forest that lies within the catchment area of the river system. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • It is the Deccan trap and the underlying rock is basalt in one form or another.
    • The forests are of deciduous nature and have been classified as ‘dry deciduous forests.
    • The most prominent tree is the Teak.
    • The Korku tribe adds to the cultural diversity of the Reserve.
  • Dehing Patkai Wildlife sanctuary: ​
    • It is located in the districts of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia.
    • Dehing Patkai is a deciduous rainforest interspersed with semi-evergreen and lush green flora, the only patch of virgin rainforest in Assam.
    • It comprises Jeypore, Upper Dehing, and Dirok.
    • Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the sanctuary lies.
    • The Wildlife Sanctuary is endowed with rich bio-diversity.
    • Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the sanctuary lies. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Sharavathi Valley Wildlife Sanctuary:
    • It is located in the Sharavathi River Valley of Sagar Taluk in the Shivamogga District of Karnataka. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    • The Sanctuary lies in the Western Ghats, mainly covered with evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the valleys and grassy patches on hilltops, and is immensely rich in flora and fauna both in variety and diversity.
    • The Sanctuary is immensely rich in species like Dhoopa, Gulmavu, Surahonne, Mavu, Nandi, etc.
    • It also harbours wildlife like Bison, Spotted deer, Tiger, Panther, etc.
  • Nagarahole National Park:
    • Nagarahole is named after Nagarahole, a winding river that runs eastwards through its centre situated in the two districts of Mysore and Kodagu in the state of Karnataka.
    • Nagarahole National Park forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and together with Bandipur National Park and Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary to its South-East and Wayanad to the South-West is one of the last remaining and best-protected habitats for endangered species like the Elephant and the Tiger.
    • The river Kabini originates in the Wayanad district of Kerala, and flows eastward to join the river Cauvery, which empties into the Bay of Bengal.
      • This is the largest river in the Nagarhole National Park and was dammed in 1974 for an irrigation project. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Which of the following action(s) by the Government would lead to contraction of money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of Treasury Bills by the central bank from public
2. Sale of Treasury Bills by the central bank to public
3. Sale of foreign exchange by the central bank
4. Purchase of foreign exchange by the central bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The correct answer is 2 only.
Key Points
Sale of treasury bills by the central bank to the public:

  • When the central bank sells treasury bills to the public, it takes money out of the economy, thus contracting the money supply.

Additional Information
Purchasing of treasury bills from the public by the central bank:

  • When the central bank purchases treasury bills from the public, it is essentially injecting money into the economy, thus expanding the money supply, not contracting it.

Sale of foreign currency by the central bank:

  • When the central bank sells foreign currency, it receives domestic currency in return.
  • This action may increase foreign exchange reserves, but will not necessarily lead to a contraction in the money supply.

Purchase of foreign currency by the central bank:

  • When the central bank buys foreign currency, it releases domestic currency into the economy.
  • This increases the money supply instead of shrinking it.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

What is the significance of the Sutlej River in the context of regional geography?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The Sutlej River is significant in regional geography as it is a major source of irrigation and hydroelectric power. As a crucial tributary of the Indus River, it supports various irrigation projects and hydroelectric plants, playing a vital role in the agricultural and energy sectors of both India and Pakistan. Its waters are allocated primarily for irrigation as per the Indus Waters Treaty.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The correct answer is Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle.

In News

  • DRDO conducted the first successful flight test of an indigenously developed Agni-5 missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle ( MIRV) technology.
  • The flight test named Mission Divyastra was carried out from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha.

Key Points

  • MIRV is a technology enabling a single missile to deploy multiple nuclear warheads independently to different targets.
  • This technology significantly enhances the effectiveness and flexibility of missile systems.
  • MIRVs are possessed by a select group of nations including the US, UK, Russia, France, and China.
  • India's successful development of MIRV technology represents a significant advancement in its defense capabilities and strategic position.
  • MIRVs allow for a single missile to hit multiple targets simultaneously, increasing the potency of a country's nuclear arsenal.
  • The technology is crucial for executing a punishing second strike with lethal capabilities, particularly in the context of India's no-first-use policy.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the Morodharo and Dholavira sites:

1. The recently discovered Morodharo Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) site is located on the bank of River Sabarmati.

2. Dholavira is the only Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) site which is divided into three parts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is Only 2.

In News

  • Times of India: Kutch villagers' treasure hunt helps unearth Harappan site near Dholavira.

Key Points

Morodharo Harappan sites:

  • Archaeologists recently discovered a Harappan-era fortified settlement named Morodharo.
  • Morodharo is located in Kutch Desert, Gujarat 50km away from Dholavira. Lothal is located on the bank of the Sabarmati River. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Dholavira is the only IVC site which is divided into three parts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Morodharo (a Gujarati word for less salty and potable water). It yielded a large quantity of Harappan pottery, similar to those found in Dholavira.
  • The settlement looks mature (2,600-1,900 BCE) to late (1,900-1,300 BCE) Harappan.
  • The fortification measures 102 m east to the west and 58 m north to the south.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

Which of the following are included in the definition of Narrow Money?

1. Currency with the public

2. Demand deposits

3. 'Other' deposits with Reserve Bank of India

4. Banker's deposits with Reserve Bank of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Narrow money plays a vital role in facilitating day-to-day transactions and is an important indicator of the monetary health of the economy.
  • Narrow money is a type of money supply that consists of all real money held by a central bank, including coins and currency, demand deposits, and other liquid assets.
  • In India, narrow money is denoted by M1.
  • The high liquidity of narrow money allows for immediate spending, which impacts short-term economic health.
  • M1 = Currency with the Public + Demand Deposits with the Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
  • = Currency with the Public + Current Deposits with the Banking System + Demand Liabilities Portion of Savings Deposits with the Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
  • ‘Other’ deposits with RBI comprise mainly:
    • (i) deposits of quasi-government and other financial institutions including primary dealers,
    • (ii) balances in the accounts of foreign Central banks and Governments,
    • (iii) accounts of international agencies such as the International Monetary Fund, etc.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Which of the following statements are not correct regarding Butterfly mines :

Detailed Solution: Question 26

  1. It is a very sensitive anti-personnel landmine.

    • This statement is correct. Butterfly mines, also known as PFM-1 mines, are a type of anti-personnel landmine known for being sensitive and dangerous.
  2. It is very sensitive to the touch, and just the act of picking it up can set it off.

    • This statement is correct. Butterfly mines are designed to be highly sensitive and can be triggered by minimal pressure or handling.
  3. These are termed as 'soft target blast munition' by the DRDO.

    • This statement is incorrect. Butterfly mines are not specifically termed 'soft target blast munition' by the Defense Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). This designation does not align with common terminology used for these mines.
  4. It is banned by the International Convention on land mines.

    • This statement is correct. Butterfly mines are banned under the Ottawa Treaty, also known as the Mine Ban Treaty, which aims to eliminate anti-personnel landmines.

Given this analysis, the incorrect statement is: These are termed as 'soft target blast munition' by the DRDO

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

Gamma rays have greatest similarity with –

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Gamma radiation, also known as gamma rays or hyphenated as gamma-rays and denoted as y, is electromagnetic radiation of high frequency and therefore high energy. Gamma rays are ionizing radiation and are thus biologically hazardous. They are classically produced by the decay from high energy states of atomic nuclei (gamma decay), but are also created by other processes.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

A neutral body has

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Electrically neutral atoms simply possess the same number of electrons as protons. This gives the object a balance of both type of charge.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

What role do mangroves play in coastal communities, particularly in disaster risk reduction?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Mangroves serve as natural barriers that protect coastal communities from cyclones and erosion by stabilizing shorelines and reducing the force of floodwaters. Their presence has been linked to reduced devastation during natural disasters, demonstrating their vital role in disaster risk reduction and environmental health.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

Which of the following species was identified during the grassland bird census in Kaziranga National Park?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The Bengal Florican was one of the priority species identified during the grassland bird census in Kaziranga National Park. This census aimed to document rare and threatened grassland birds, highlighting the importance of conservation efforts for these species and their habitats.

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