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UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 with solutions Attempt Free MCQ Test


Full Mock Test & Solutions: Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 (100 Questions)

You can boost your UPSC 2026 exam preparation with this Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of UPSC 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the proposal for a transshipment port at Galathea Bay in Great Nicobar:

1. The Great Nicobar port project assumes that new infrastructure will inherently attract maritime traffic without considering connectivity and stable cargo bases.

2. Galathea Bay is strategically positioned with an industrial hinterland and stable cargo bases that support successful port operations.

3. The geographical isolation of Great Nicobar poses significant challenges to the operational efficiency of a transshipment port.

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Statement 1 is correct. The proposal for the Great Nicobar port project is criticized for being based on the flawed assumption that new infrastructure will automatically attract maritime traffic. It fails to consider the need for connectivity, stable cargo bases, and long-term carrier loyalty, which are crucial for successful port operations.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to what is suggested, Galathea Bay lacks an industrial hinterland and stable cargo bases, which are essential preconditions for a successful port operation. The port's geographical location does not naturally support such infrastructure, making the project economically and logistically challenging.

Statement 3 is correct. The geographical isolation of Great Nicobar, being 1,200 km from the Indian mainland, complicates operational efficiency. This isolation leads to additional logistical challenges, such as costly feeder services, which are necessary to support port operations.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only. Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 2

What is the primary purpose of deploying Network Survey Vehicles (NSVs) by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI)?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The main objective behind deploying Network Survey Vehicles (NSVs) by the NHAI is to enhance road assessments and maintenance. These specialized vehicles are equipped with advanced technology for collecting detailed information about road conditions and features, aiding in better maintenance strategies and ensuring the safety and efficiency of the National Highway Network.(Note: The NSVs play a crucial role in systematically gathering information on the condition and inventory of National Highways, utilizing advanced sensors and data acquisition systems to improve road maintenance and safety.)

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 3

What is the primary objective of India's Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The primary goal of India's Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme is to provide preferential access to the Indian market for products from Least Developed Countries (LDCs). This initiative aims to stimulate economic growth in these nations and diversify their exports by granting duty-free access to various products such as agricultural goods, textiles, handicrafts, minerals, and metals. By facilitating access to the Indian market, the DFTP scheme supports the economic development of LDCs, promotes international trade, and fosters cooperation between nations.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following pairs related to CRYODIL and constitutional morality:

1. CRYODIL: A traditional egg yolk-based semen extender

2. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR): Established in 1929

3. Constitutional Morality: Concept limited to the judiciary

4. H.L.A. Hart: Warned against conflating legal prohibition with moral disapproval

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

1. CRYODIL: A traditional egg yolk-based semen extender - Incorrect. CRYODIL is specifically noted for being an egg yolk-free semen extender, marking a departure from traditional egg yolk-based methods.

2. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR): Established in 1929 - Correct. ICAR was indeed established on July 16, 1929, originally known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research.

3. Constitutional Morality: Concept limited to the judiciary - Incorrect. Constitutional morality involves not just the judiciary but also requires engagement from citizens, lawmakers, and public institutions to uphold democratic values.

4. H.L.A. Hart: Warned against conflating legal prohibition with moral disapproval - Correct. H.L.A. Hart argued against the idea that legal systems should enforce moral values, reflecting his viewpoint in the Hart-Devlin debate.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding CRYODIL and Constitutional Morality:

1. CRYODIL is an egg yolk-free semen extender specifically designed for buffaloes, and it has a shelf life of over 18 months.

2. The concept of constitutional morality includes adherence to the constitutional text and also encompasses liberal values and ethical governance.

3. The National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) is an autonomous organization under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Statement 1 is correct. CRYODIL is indeed an egg yolk-free semen extender designed for buffaloes, and it boasts a shelf life of over 18 months. This innovation enhances the viability and cost-effectiveness of buffalo semen preservation, marking a significant advancement in animal reproductive technology.

Statement 2 is correct. The concept of constitutional morality in India does indeed go beyond mere adherence to the constitutional text. It includes the embrace of liberal values and ethical governance, as articulated by the Indian Supreme Court. This principle is essential for ensuring fairness, accountability, and the upholding of democratic values.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) is not directly under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE). Instead, it is an institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), which is an autonomous organization under DARE. Therefore, statement 3 contains a factual inaccuracy regarding the direct organizational structure.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 6

Consider the following pairs regarding the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and East Timor:

1. East Timor - Joined ASEAN in 2025

2. ASEAN Charter - Enacted in 2008

3. ASEAN Membership - Includes 12 nations with East Timor

4. ASEAN Economic Community - One of the institutional pillars of ASEAN

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

1. East Timor - Joined ASEAN in 2025: Correct. East Timor officially became the 11th member of ASEAN in October 2025.

2. ASEAN Charter - Enacted in 2008: Correct. The ASEAN Charter was indeed enacted in 2008, providing a legal identity and framework for ASEAN.

3. ASEAN Membership - Includes 12 nations with East Timor: Incorrect. With the inclusion of East Timor, ASEAN comprises 11 member nations, not 12.

4. ASEAN Economic Community - One of the institutional pillars of ASEAN: Correct. The ASEAN Economic Community is indeed one of the three main pillars of ASEAN, alongside the Political-Security Community and the Socio-Cultural Community.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

1. Rehabilitation Council of India - Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

2. Cloud Seeding - Use of Silver Iodide and Sodium Chloride

3. Indian Meteorological Department - Forecasting Cyclones

4. Bay of Bengal - High Cyclone Susceptibility

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

1. Rehabilitation Council of India - Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Incorrect. The Rehabilitation Council of India operates under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2. Cloud Seeding - Use of Silver Iodide and Sodium Chloride
Correct. Cloud seeding involves using substances like silver iodide and sodium chloride to induce rainfall by providing nuclei for water droplets to form.

3. Indian Meteorological Department - Forecasting Cyclones
Correct. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) is responsible for weather forecasting, including forecasting cyclones in India.

4. Bay of Bengal - High Cyclone Susceptibility
Correct. The Bay of Bengal is highly susceptible to cyclones due to its geographical and climatic conditions, making the eastern coast of India particularly vulnerable.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 8

Where is the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Union Territory of Ladakh. This sanctuary is known for its diverse topography, including snow-covered peaks, alpine fields, and a range of flora and fauna, making it a crucial ecological region to protect.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

1. Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in Jammu and Kashmir

2. Cloud Seeding: Involves injecting clouds with silver iodide

3. National Seeds Corporation: Established in 1975

4. Hemis National Park: Located south of the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

1. Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary: The sanctuary is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh, not Jammu and Kashmir. This pair is incorrectly matched.

2. Cloud Seeding: This involves injecting clouds with substances like silver iodide to induce rain. This pair is correctly matched.

3. National Seeds Corporation: Established in 1963, not 1975. This pair is incorrectly matched.

4. Hemis National Park: It is indeed located south of the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary. This pair is correctly matched.

The correctly matched pairs are 2 and 4. Hence, two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India:

1. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has proposed to exclude employer-provided housing from the CPI housing index to improve market accuracy.

2. The CPI base year is being revised from 2012 to 2024 to better reflect current economic realities.

3. For the first time, the CPI will include data on rural housing to enhance the comprehensiveness of inflation measurement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

All three statements provided are correct based on the recent proposals and updates regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India:

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has indeed proposed the exclusion of employer-provided housing from the CPI housing index. This is intended to prevent distortions in market transactions and improve the accuracy of the CPI in reflecting actual housing costs.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The CPI base year is being updated from 2012 to 2024. This revision aims to ensure that the CPI reflects current economic conditions more accurately, incorporating recent changes in consumption patterns and economic activity.

3. Statement 3 is correct: For the first time, the CPI will include rural housing data. This inclusion is a significant methodological change aimed at creating a comprehensive housing index that captures both urban and rural housing costs, thereby providing a more complete picture of inflation in India.

Therefore, all the statements are accurate, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the correct choice. This reflects a comprehensive reform intended to align the CPI methodology with international best practices and enhance the representation of housing costs in the inflation measurement.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 11

What is the primary objective behind the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation's integration of data from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to create a District Domestic Product (DDP) framework?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The Ministry's initiative to integrate data from ASUSE and PLFS aims to enhance the accuracy of district-level economic data. By utilizing these surveys, policymakers intend to create a more precise District Domestic Product (DDP) framework, allowing for better economic estimations at the district level. This integration is crucial in addressing regional disparities and providing a more granular understanding of economic dynamics within India.

Please note that the primary focus of this integration is to improve the precision of economic data at the district level, thereby enabling more informed policy decisions and interventions based on real economic activities rather than generalized estimations.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 12

What is the main focus of the National Education Policy 2020 in relation to the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) into Indian classrooms?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The National Education Policy 2020 aims to prepare students for an AI-driven global economy by integrating Artificial Intelligence (AI) into Indian classrooms. This initiative aligns with the goal of equipping future generations with the necessary skills and knowledge to thrive in a rapidly evolving digital landscape. By integrating AI tools and technologies into the education system, students are better prepared to navigate the complexities of an AI-driven world, fostering innovation, critical thinking, and adaptability among learners.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Women in India earn 20-30% less than men, highlighting gender wage gaps and economic inequality, which limit economic empowerment.
Statement-II:
Women own only 13-14% of land holdings, and without land titles, they are seen as cultivators rather than farmers, limiting access to credit, government schemes, and independent decision-making.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 13


Statement-I correctly highlights the wage discrimination faced by women in India, where they earn 20-30% less than men, showcasing gender wage gaps. This inequality limits the economic empowerment of women.
Statement-II is also accurate in pointing out that women in India own only 13-14% of land holdings, and the lack of land titles results in them being perceived as cultivators rather than farmers. This limitation hampers their access to credit, government schemes, and their ability to make independent decisions. Therefore, Statement-II explains why economic empowerment is hindered by the lack of land ownership among women in India.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 14

What is one of the key takeaways from the RBI's recent policy decisions mentioned in the text?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

One of the key takeaways from the RBI's recent policy decisions, as mentioned in the text, is that the RBI introduced 22 structural measures aimed at stimulating growth through regulatory easing and reforms. This indicates the central bank's focus on long-term stability and resilience by extending support for growth beyond just interest rate adjustments.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Preventive detention is a practice aimed at holding individuals to prevent potential future actions that could pose a threat to public order, security, or essential supplies.

Statement-II:
The National Security Act (NSA) of 1980 in India allows for preventive detention to safeguard state security and maintain public order.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 15


Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Preventive detention is indeed a practice used to hold individuals to prevent future threats to public order or security. The National Security Act (NSA) of 1980 in India does empower authorities to detain individuals preventively to safeguard state security and maintain public order. Therefore, Statement-II explains the concept mentioned in Statement-I, making Option (a) the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs:

1. Cassini Spacecraft - Launched in 1997 by NASA, ESA, and ASI

2. Enceladus - Orbits Saturn at approximately 238,000 km

3. Mar del Plata Canyon - Located 100 km offshore from Mar del Plata, Argentina

4. Submarine Canyon - Typically less than 48 km long

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

1. Cassini Spacecraft - Launched in 1997 by NASA, ESA, and ASI: Correct. The Cassini spacecraft was indeed launched on October 15, 1997, as a collaborative project involving NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Italian Space Agency (ASI).

2. Enceladus - Orbits Saturn at approximately 238,000 km: Correct. Enceladus orbits Saturn at roughly 238,000 km, which matches the data provided.

3. Mar del Plata Canyon - Located 100 km offshore from Mar del Plata, Argentina: Incorrect. The Mar del Plata Canyon is located approximately 250-300 km offshore from Mar del Plata, Argentina.

4. Submarine Canyon - Typically less than 48 km long: Incorrect. While some submarine canyons are less than 48 km long, they can extend over 320 km. The statement is misleading as it doesn't capture the full range of their lengths.

The correctly matched pairs are 1 and 2, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 17

What was one of the key objectives of the Cassini spacecraft mission?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

One of the key objectives of the Cassini spacecraft mission was to explore various aspects of Saturn, including its cloud properties, atmospheric composition, rings structure, composition, dynamical processes, and the interaction of Saturn's magnetosphere with solar wind and its moons. This mission provided valuable insights into the mysteries of Saturn and its intricate system of rings and moons.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

1. The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, allowing for direct maritime passage between Europe and Asia without navigation around Africa.

2. The construction of the Suez Canal was completed in 1869 under the direction of French engineer Ferdinand de Lesseps.

3. The control and ownership of the Suez Canal has never been a point of conflict in international relations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

- Statement 1 is correct. The Suez Canal is indeed a man-made waterway that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, facilitating a direct maritime route between Europe and Asia. This eliminates the need for ships to navigate around the southern tip of Africa, significantly reducing travel time and distance for maritime shipping.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Suez Canal was completed in 1869, and its construction was led by Ferdinand de Lesseps, a French diplomat and engineer. His efforts were pivotal in bringing the canal to completion, despite numerous challenges and political hurdles.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Suez Canal has been at the center of international conflicts, most notably the Suez Crisis of 1956, when Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser nationalized the canal, prompting a military intervention by the United Kingdom, France, and Israel. This event highlights the canal's strategic importance and its role in international politics.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only. Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the Suez Canal's strategic significance and historical construction, while Statement 3 is incorrect as it overlooks the historical conflicts surrounding the canal.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following pairs:

1. AWS Outage - Affected primarily the Asia-Pacific region

2. DynamoDB - Central to AWS DNS failure

3. Rural Education - Directly reduces youth migration

4. Reverse Migration - Significantly boosted the rural economy during the pandemic

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

1. AWS Outage - Affected primarily the Asia-Pacific region: Incorrect. The AWS outage primarily affected the North Virginia data center, not specifically the Asia-Pacific region. This disruption impacted services globally, including significant effects in the UK and other parts of the world.

2. DynamoDB - Central to AWS DNS failure: Correct. The outage was indeed linked to DNS resolution issues associated with DynamoDB service endpoints, highlighting DynamoDB's role in the incident.

3. Rural Education - Directly reduces youth migration: Incorrect. While improving rural education is crucial, the current mismatch between education and job opportunities means it does not directly reduce youth migration. Many migrants move in search of better livelihoods due to unmet aspirations and lack of opportunities in rural areas.

4. Reverse Migration - Significantly boosted the rural economy during the pandemic: Correct. The pandemic-induced reverse migration led to revitalized rural sectors, such as agriculture, where returning workers contributed to increased agricultural activities and local economic resilience.

Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The outage on October 20 affected AWS's North Virginia data center, leading to increased error rates and latency across several services.

Statement-II:
The root cause of the AWS outage was identified as a DNS resolution issue linked to DynamoDB service endpoints.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 20


Statement-I correctly highlights the impact of the AWS outage on October 20, mentioning the increased error rates and latency across various services due to the disruption at AWS's North Virginia data center. This sets the context for the outage's effects.
Statement-II accurately identifies the root cause of the AWS outage as a DNS resolution issue linked specifically to DynamoDB service endpoints. This explanation directly connects the technical issue with the service disruption mentioned in Statement-I. The DNS resolution issue affecting DynamoDB service endpoints led to the widespread repercussions observed during the outage, aligning with the details provided.
Therefore, in this scenario, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the details provided in Statement-I, making option (a) the correct choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical dynamics between Pakistan and Afghanistan:

1. The rise of the Taliban in Afghanistan has led to the empowerment of the Tehrik-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) within Pakistan.

2. Pakistan's airstrikes on Kabul in 2025 reflected a continuation of its longstanding policy towards Afghanistan.

3. The Taliban's refusal to recognize the Durand Line has led to renewed border tensions between Afghanistan and Pakistan.

Detailed Solution: Question 21

1. Statement 1: The rise of the Taliban in Afghanistan has indeed resulted in the empowerment of the Tehrik-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) within Pakistan. This is a correct statement as the Taliban's control in Afghanistan has emboldened the TTP, which shares ideological roots with the Afghan Taliban. This has contributed to a severe internal security crisis in Pakistan.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Pakistan's airstrikes on Kabul in 2025 marked a significant shift from its previous policy of strategic depth and indirect support to the Taliban. Historically, Pakistan has supported the Afghan Taliban with the aim of establishing a friendly regime in Kabul; however, the airstrikes indicate a departure from this strategy towards direct military action, reflecting a change in policy rather than a continuation.

3. Statement 3: The Taliban's refusal to recognize the Durand Line, which is the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan, has indeed led to renewed historical tensions over the border. This is a point of contention that exacerbates the relationship between the two countries, making this statement correct.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) India Scheme:

1. The AEO scheme in India is fully aligned with the World Customs Organization's SAFE Framework of Standards.

2. The AEO certification program was initiated by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2011.

3. The AEO scheme is mandatory for all Indian exporters and importers to enhance trade security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

1. Statement 1: "The AEO scheme in India is fully aligned with the World Customs Organization's SAFE Framework of Standards."
- This statement is correct. The AEO program in India is harmonized with the WCO SAFE Framework, aiming to enhance trade security and customs processes through cooperation between customs authorities and private entities.

2. Statement 2: "The AEO certification program was initiated by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2011."
- This statement is correct. The AEO scheme is indeed a voluntary certification program initiated by the CBIC in 2011 to promote better customs compliance and supply chain security.

3. Statement 3: "The AEO scheme is mandatory for all Indian exporters and importers to enhance trade security."
- This statement is incorrect. The AEO scheme is not mandatory; it is a voluntary scheme that offers various trade facilitation benefits to accredited traders.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B: 1 and 2 Only, the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the environmental and economic challenges in Himachal Pradesh and EPFO:

1. The Supreme Court of India's intervention in Himachal Pradesh focuses solely on the ecological impacts of hydropower projects without addressing infrastructure developments.

2. The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has introduced a 25% minimum balance requirement to prevent excessive withdrawals, which has led to a significant increase in the retirement corpus of its members.

3. The Aryabhatta Geo-Informatics & Space Application Centre in Himachal Pradesh is fully utilized for data-driven environmental policymaking, ensuring effective governance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

1. The first statement is incorrect. The Supreme Court's intervention in Himachal Pradesh addresses both the ecological impacts of hydropower projects and infrastructure developments. The concerns include the inadequate assessment of the ecological impacts of both hydropower projects and infrastructure endeavors like the Bilaspur–Manali–Leh National Highway, which have been criticized for neglecting geological risks.

2. The second statement is also incorrect. While the EPFO has indeed introduced a 25% minimum balance requirement to curb excessive withdrawals, there is no evidence in the provided text to suggest that this measure has already led to a significant increase in the retirement corpus of its members. The introduction of this requirement is aimed at protecting long-term financial security, but the impact on the retirement corpus is not explicitly stated as significantly increased.

3. The third statement is incorrect as well. The Aryabhatta Geo-Informatics & Space Application Centre is mentioned as being underutilized, which undermines effective environmental governance in Himachal Pradesh. The text highlights the need for better utilization of such institutions for data-driven policymaking.

Therefore, none of the statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 24

Consider the following pairs based on the topic of global oil prices and India's economy:

1. Shale Extraction - Increases OPEC's price control

2. Supply Glut - Leads to price declines in the oil market

3. Lower Oil Prices - Reduces India's current account deficit

4. Low Oil Prices - Increases remittances from oil-rich regions

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

1. Shale Extraction - Increases OPEC's price control: Incorrect. Shale extraction, especially in non-OPEC countries, actually diminishes OPEC's price control by increasing global oil supply and providing alternative sources of oil, thereby reducing OPEC's ability to influence prices significantly.

2. Supply Glut - Leads to price declines in the oil market: Correct. A supply glut occurs when the production of oil exceeds demand, resulting in an oversupply that typically leads to a decline in oil prices due to surplus availability.

3. Lower Oil Prices - Reduces India's current account deficit: Correct. Lower oil prices benefit India economically by reducing the cost of oil imports. Since India is a major importer of crude oil, lower prices can substantially narrow its current account deficit, which measures the difference between a country's savings and investment.

4. Low Oil Prices - Increases remittances from oil-rich regions: Incorrect. Low oil prices often negatively impact economies that are heavily dependent on oil exports, such as those in the Gulf region where many Indian expatriates work. This can lead to reduced economic activity and potentially lower remittances as job opportunities and salaries may be affected in these regions.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 25

What prompted the Supreme Court of India to instruct the Jharkhand government to designate a new wildlife sanctuary in Saranda?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The Supreme Court's directive to designate a new wildlife sanctuary in Saranda was prompted by a plea for compliance with a National Green Tribunal (NGT) order from July 2022. This legal intervention highlights the importance of adhering to environmental regulations and protecting the ecological balance in regions like Saranda. Compliance with such orders is crucial for ensuring the preservation of biodiversity and mitigating the negative impacts of human activities on sensitive ecosystems.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations (UN):

1. The United Nations was founded in 1945 with the primary aim of ensuring collective security and upholding the sovereign equality of states.

2. The current composition of the UN Security Council reflects contemporary global power dynamics and effectively addresses modern geopolitical challenges.

3. India, as a significant contributor to UN peacekeeping efforts, advocates for reforms to enhance equitable representation in the UN Security Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The United Nations was indeed founded in 1945 with the primary aim of ensuring collective security and upholding the sovereign equality of states. This foundational purpose was crucial in the post-World War II era to prevent future conflicts and promote peace.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The current composition of the UN Security Council does not reflect contemporary global power dynamics. Instead, it is widely criticized for being outdated, as it largely represents the geopolitical realities of the post-World War II period. This has led to calls for reform, as the UNSC's structure is seen as ineffective in addressing modern challenges.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. India is a significant contributor to UN peacekeeping efforts and has been actively advocating for reforms in the UN Security Council to enhance equitable representation. India seeks a permanent seat on the UNSC to reflect its growing geopolitical influence and its role in maintaining international peace and security.

Thus, the statements that are correct are 1 and 3. The correct answer is Option B.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Developed nations are showing declining enthusiasm for climate leadership due to economic and energy challenges.

Statement-II:
India benefits from a cross-party consensus on climate goals, maintaining policy continuity without divisive politics.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are accurate. Developed nations indeed exhibit declining enthusiasm for climate leadership due to various challenges, including economic and energy-related issues. On the other hand, India benefits from a consensus across political parties regarding climate goals, ensuring policy continuity without divisive politics. Statement-II elaborates on how India's political unity contributes to its stability and progress in climate-related matters, thus explaining the context presented in Statement-I. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 28

What is the primary focus of Google's Willow quantum processor as demonstrated in recent studies published in Nature?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Google's Willow quantum processor, as showcased in recent studies, primarily aims at demonstrating verifiable quantum advantage. This advancement signifies a significant leap in practical quantum computing, showing that quantum systems can outperform classical supercomputers in specific computational tasks.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Google's Willow quantum processor:

1. The Willow quantum processor utilizes the principles of superposition and interference to enhance computational efficiency.

2. The demonstration of quantum advantage by Willow is fully verifiable, unlike Google's previous Sycamore processor experiment.

3. The studies involving the Willow processor primarily focus on improving classical computing techniques.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Statement 1: Correct. The Willow quantum processor, like other quantum computers, uses the principles of superposition and interference. Superposition allows qubits to exist in multiple states simultaneously, and interference is used to enhance correct answers while reducing incorrect ones. This leverages quantum mechanics to perform computations more efficiently than classical computers.

Statement 2: Correct. The recent studies with the Willow processor claim a verifiable demonstration of quantum advantage. This marks a significant improvement over Google's previous experiment with the Sycamore processor, which claimed quantum supremacy but lacked full verification of its scientific relevance.

Statement 3: Incorrect. The focus of the Willow processor studies is not on improving classical computing techniques but on showcasing the quantum advantage of their processor over classical systems in specific tasks, thereby demonstrating the potential of quantum computing to solve problems beyond the reach of classical computers.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - October 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Kamlang Tiger Reserve is situated in the southeastern part of Lohit District, Arunachal Pradesh, near the Myanmar border.
Statement-II:
The Kamlang Tiger Reserve is named after the Brahmaputra River.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Statement-I correctly describes the location of the Kamlang Tiger Reserve in the southeastern part of Lohit District, Arunachal Pradesh, near the Myanmar border. However, Statement-II is incorrect as the Kamlang Tiger Reserve is actually named after the Kamlang River, not the Brahmaputra River. The Brahmaputra River is a different prominent river in the region, but it is not specifically associated with this particular reserve. Thus, the correct answer is that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

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