Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - November 2025 with solutions Attempt Free MCQ

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Gram Sabha is indeed a constitutional body established under Article 243A of the 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution. It plays a crucial role in empowering citizens to participate directly in governance and community development, making it a central feature of the Panchayati Raj system.

2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) initiative was launched in 2025 with the goal of simulating Gram Sabha activities in schools. The initiative aims to enhance civic engagement and awareness of grassroots democracy among students, fostering a sense of responsibility and participation in governance from a young age.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Bhavani Island is located on the Krishna River, not the Godavari River, near Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. It is one of India's largest river islands and is known for its eco-tourism attractions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B, as only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 contains an inaccuracy regarding the location of Bhavani Island, which affects its correctness.

- Statement 1 is correct. KK Park in Myawaddy township, Myanmar, is indeed managed by the Border Guard Force (BGF) under Saw Chit Thu and is involved in cybercrime and human trafficking activities. It operates as a "scam city" employing trafficked workers for online fraud, including crypto scams and romance-investment schemes.

- Statement 2 is correct. The cyber-scam economy, which includes operations like those at KK Park, earns over USD 10 billion annually and affects victims in over 110 countries. This highlights the global scale and economic impact of such cybercrime activities.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The United Nations has not recognized KK Park as a legitimate economic zone contributing positively to Myanmar’s economy. Instead, it has been identified as part of a network of cyber-scam compounds that are of global concern due to their involvement in trafficking and transnational crime.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

The KK Park cybercrime compound in Myawaddy township, Myanmar, is primarily involved in cybercrime and human trafficking activities. It functions as a "scam city," employing trafficked workers for various online fraud schemes, including crypto scams and romance-investment frauds. Victims are lured through fake job offers, imprisoned, tortured, and coerced into engaging in cybercrimes. The compound, managed by the Border Guard Force under Saw Chit Thu, has been a significant hub for illegal activities, impacting victims from various countries.

Statement-I correctly states that the Piprahwa Relics were discovered in 1898 at the Piprahwa Stupa in Uttar Pradesh, India. Statement-II accurately mentions that the relics include bone fragments believed to be those of Lord Buddha, along with various artifacts. Statement-II explains Statement-I as it provides additional detail about the nature of the relics discovered at the site, making both statements correct and logically connected.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The National Framework for Community-Centered Conservation and Relocation indeed mandates that verifiable consent from both Gram Sabhas and individual households be obtained before declaring any area as a tiger reserve. This requirement ensures that the rights of the communities are respected and that they are involved in the decision-making process regarding their relocation.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The framework emphasizes voluntary relocation and the protection of community rights in alignment with the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This Act recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities and ensures that any relocation respects these rights, which is a critical component of the new policy framework.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: While the relocation packages offer ₹15 lakh per family, there have been reports of dissatisfaction among the relocated families. Many tribes feel pressured to move, and some lack basic services despite the compensation. This indicates that the financial package does not necessarily ensure satisfaction or address all concerns of the relocated families.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only. Statements 1 and 2 accurately reflect the provisions of the framework, while statement 3 does not accurately capture the complexities and challenges involved in the relocation process.

1. BIMReN Conference - First proposed at the 2022 Colombo BIMSTEC Summit: Correct. The BIMReN initiative was indeed first proposed by the Prime Minister of India during the 2022 Colombo BIMSTEC Summit.

2. Piprahwa Relics - Discovered at Piprahwa Stupa, Uttar Pradesh in 1898: Correct. The Piprahwa Relics were discovered in 1898 at the Piprahwa Stupa in Uttar Pradesh, India.

3. Kuki-Zo Groups' Demand - Union Territory status for areas in Assam: Incorrect. The Kuki-Zo groups are demanding a Union Territory status for areas in Manipur, not Assam.

4. Suspension of Operations Pact - Signed in 2008 with Kuki-Zo insurgents: Correct. The Suspension of Operations pact was signed in 2008 with Kuki-Zo insurgents.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched as it incorrectly mentions Assam instead of Manipur.

To determine the correct statements, we need to analyze each one:

Statement 1: "Viscose Staple Fibre is a synthetic fiber produced entirely from petrochemical derivatives."
This statement is incorrect. Viscose Staple Fibre is not a synthetic fiber made from petrochemical derivatives; instead, it is a natural and biodegradable fiber. It is produced by regenerating natural materials, such as cotton linter or wood pulp, through a chemical process involving cellulose xanthate.

Statement 2: "The production process of Viscose Staple Fibre involves the regeneration of cellulose xanthate from plant fibers."
This statement is correct. The production of Viscose Staple Fibre involves processing cellulose xanthate, which is derived from plant fibers like wood pulp, into a viscous liquid. This liquid is then treated through a series of chemical processes to form the final fiber.

Statement 3: "Viscose Staple Fibre is known for its high moisture absorbency and breathability."
This statement is correct. Viscose Staple Fibre is appreciated for its favorable properties such as good breathability and high moisture absorbency, making it a versatile substitute for other fibers like cotton and polyester.

Based on the analysis, Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

1. Ex Post Facto Environmental Clearances - Legal under all circumstances: This pair is incorrectly matched. Ex post facto environmental clearances are not legal under all circumstances. The Supreme Court initially ruled them illegal, but a later decision recalled this ruling to prevent economic repercussions, highlighting that they might be allowed in exceptional cases.

2. UDAN Scheme - Launched under the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016: This pair is correctly matched. The UDAN scheme was indeed launched in 2016 under the National Civil Aviation Policy to enhance regional air connectivity.

3. Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers’ Rights Act - Enacted in 2005: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers’ Rights Act was enacted in 2001, not 2005.

4. Supreme Court Decision on Environmental Clearances - Aimed at balancing economic and environmental needs: This pair is correctly matched. The Supreme Court's decision to recall the earlier ruling on environmental clearances was indeed aimed at balancing economic needs with environmental protection to avoid halting significant infrastructure projects.

Thus, only two pairs (Pair 2 and Pair 4) are correctly matched.

1. Statement 1 is correct. Agentic AI systems are designed to autonomously execute complex multistep tasks without requiring constant user input. This characteristic allows them to perform actions independently, a significant feature that distinguishes them from more basic AI systems that rely heavily on user commands.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Agentic AI systems exhibit human-like behavior in terms of interaction and communication, they do not possess true understanding. Their decision-making processes are based on algorithms and data processing rather than genuine comprehension or consciousness.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The transition of AI from reactive systems, which require specific prompts to respond, to Agentic AI, which can plan and act independently, represents a major advancement in artificial intelligence technology. This evolution enables AI systems to be more proactive and efficient in executing tasks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The introduction of the GST has been a significant shift in India's taxation system, which has indeed raised concerns among various states about diminishing revenue autonomy. States have lost some of their independent taxation powers and now rely on shared revenues and compensation from the central government.

2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The decline of coalition politics and the dominance of a single party have reduced the negotiations and influence of regional parties. This has led to a more centralized approach in policymaking, reducing the accommodation of diverse regional interests that was more prevalent in earlier coalition governments.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950, was indeed enacted to manage migration issues following the Partition, but it was not intended to exclude all immigrants from expulsion. The Act provided a mechanism to manage undesirable immigrants, while also taking into account the complexities of post-Partition migrations and the need to protect certain groups, especially those displaced due to civil disturbances in Pakistan.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct answer.

1. India - World's largest aquaculture producer: This pair is incorrectly matched. India is not the world's largest aquaculture producer; it is the second-largest. China holds the position of the world's largest aquaculture producer.

2. FAO - Supports sustainable fisheries management in India: This pair is correctly matched. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) provides support for sustainable fisheries management in India, including promoting environmentally responsible aquaculture through various initiatives.

3. ICAR - Involved in fisheries research and development: This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) plays a significant role in fisheries research and development in India, contributing to advancements in aquaculture through its fisheries institutes.

4. Andhra Pradesh - Participates in the Global Environment Facility project: This pair is correctly matched. Andhra Pradesh is involved in initiatives like the Global Environment Facility project, which focuses on sustainable aquaculture practices.

In summary, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Statement-I correctly identifies India as the world's third-largest methane emitter, providing an accurate statistic from the given information. Statement-II accurately highlights the significance of reducing methane emissions as an effective climate change mitigation strategy, linking it to benefits such as decreased crop losses and improved food security. Therefore, both statements are correct, with Statement-II further explaining the importance and implications of India's methane emissions ranking.

1. Low-Pressure Area Formation - Malacca Strait: Correct. The low-pressure area mentioned in the context formed near the Malacca Strait in the South Andaman Sea. This is a key geographical point related to the formation of the weather system.

2. Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) - Eliminates Nitrogen Oxides: Incorrect. FGD systems are primarily used to remove sulphur dioxide (SO2) from the exhaust gases of power plants. They are not specifically designed to eliminate nitrogen oxides.

3. State with FGD-equipped Power Plants - Haryana: Correct. Haryana is one of the states mentioned where power plants, such as Panipat TPS and Yamuna Nagar TPS, are located. According to the data, some units within these plants are equipped with FGD systems.

4. Packaged Foods - Unregulated Market: Incorrect. The packaged food industry in India operates under strict regulations ensuring hygiene and safety, which is why it is often seen as a more reliable option compared to the informal food sector.

Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems are crucial in thermal power plants and industrial facilities as they are designed to eliminate sulphur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere. This process helps reduce the harmful impact of SO2 emissions, which can lead to respiratory diseases, acid rain, reduced visibility (smog), and other environmental hazards. By implementing FGD technologies, these facilities can significantly mitigate air pollution and its adverse effects on both human health and the environment.

When a company advertises that its food products do not contain trans-fats, it signifies to customers that the oils used are not likely to harm their cardiovascular health. Trans-fats are known to have adverse effects on heart health, so this marketing claim aims to reassure consumers about the cardiovascular safety of the oils used in the products.

The main aim of the Mekedatu Dam project was to generate 400 megawatts (MW) of hydroelectric power. This project also intended to provide drinking water to Bengaluru and its surrounding regions. Generating hydroelectric power is a crucial aspect of such dam projects as it contributes to the region's energy needs and sustainability.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Traditional teaching methods often fail to integrate real-life applications of math into classroom learning, which is one of the reasons for weaker numeracy skills compared to literacy skills. The disconnection between theoretical math taught in schools and its practical application is a significant issue.

- Statement 2 is correct. The cumulative nature of mathematics indeed requires students to have a strong grasp of foundational concepts, such as place value, to handle more complex mathematical operations effectively. Without mastering these foundational ideas, students struggle as they progress through higher levels of math.

- Statement 3 is correct. Extending foundational numeracy interventions beyond Class 3 is crucial because many students in higher grades still lack fundamental numeracy skills. This extension is necessary to ensure that all students are prepared for future academic and economic opportunities.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

1. Statement 1 is correct. Melghat has indeed faced a chronic malnutrition crisis for over thirty years, primarily affecting infants and maternal health, exacerbated by inadequate healthcare access in the tribal-dominated area. This is a well-documented issue, emphasizing the need for improved healthcare infrastructure and initiatives to combat malnutrition in the region.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, did grant significant powers to Governors. However, the framers of the Indian Constitution sought to restrict these through the establishment of a parliamentary system, reducing the discretionary powers of Governors and aligning them more closely with the executive's guidance.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Article 200 of the Indian Constitution has been subject to judicial interpretation, which has expanded the discretion available to Governors. This has led to discussions about the balance of power and its implications for Centre-State relations, reflecting ongoing debates about the constitutional role and powers of the Governor.

Each statement accurately reflects the complexities and historical context of governance and constitutional interpretation in India, making the correct answer Option D: 1, 2 and 3.

The primary objective of the India-Nepal joint military exercise, SURYAKIRAN XIX - 2025, is to deepen military cooperation through joint training exercises. These exercises aim to enhance interoperability between the armed forces of both nations, foster understanding of each other's military tactics and strategies, and strengthen the overall defense relationship. Such collaborations are crucial for promoting regional stability and security.

Delhi's Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations (CAAQMS) are designed to measure air quality in a temperature-controlled environment. These stations help in monitoring eight key pollutants, ensuring accurate data collection essential for assessing and addressing air quality concerns in the city.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Beta Attenuation Monitors are specifically used for measuring particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), not for gaseous pollutants. Gaseous pollutants like NO₂, SO₂, and CO are measured using different methods, such as UV fluorescence and Non-dispersive infrared (NDIR) absorption.

- Statement 2 is correct. Calibration failures and extreme weather conditions, such as high humidity and power cuts, can disrupt and lead to inaccuracies in air-quality readings from Delhi's monitoring stations. These issues highlight the operational challenges faced by these systems.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The technical challenges, including those during high humidity or extreme pollution events, have led to the overestimation, not underestimation, of pollution levels. This occurs because the equipment may drift or give erroneous readings under such conditions.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option C the right answer.

Statement-I correctly highlights the aim of the Defence Partnership framework regarding military interoperability and strategic coordination in the Indo-Pacific region. Statement-II accurately mentions the goals of the 10-year Defence Framework, focusing on technology and industrial cooperation under the "Make in India, Make for the World" initiative. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or elaborate on Statement-I; they are related but independent aspects within the context of the India-U.S. Defence Partnership.

Statement-I is accurate in describing the objective of the National Marine Fisheries Census 2025, which indeed aims to collect detailed data on various aspects of India's marine fisheries sector. Statement-II correctly mentions the recent resumption of the MGNREGS in West Bengal after a prolonged suspension. However, the two statements are unrelated topics and do not explain each other. The National Marine Fisheries Census and the MGNREGS are distinct programs in different domains, making them independent of each other. Hence, both statements are correct but do not have a direct explanatory relationship.

1. *Hyderabad - Creative City of Gastronomy* Correct. Hyderabad was recognized as a Creative City of Gastronomy by UNESCO in 2019. This designation highlights the city's rich culinary practices and its influence on food culture.

2. *Jaipur - Creative City of Film* Incorrect. Jaipur is recognized as a Creative City of Crafts & Folk Arts, not Film. It was designated in 2015 for its rich tradition in crafts and folk arts, particularly its renowned block printing and blue pottery.

3. *Chennai - Creative City of Music* Correct. Chennai was designated as a Creative City of Music by UNESCO in 2017. This recognition acknowledges its long-standing contribution to the development and promotion of music, especially Carnatic music.

4. *Srinagar - Creative City of Crafts & Folk Arts* Correct. Srinagar was recognized as a Creative City of Crafts & Folk Arts in 2022. This highlights its significant contributions to crafts, particularly its famous Pashmina shawls and other intricate handicrafts.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement I is correct as Article 32 does indeed grant individuals the right to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcing Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution. Statement II is also correct as it highlights the recent legal issues faced by Adivasis in the context of forest governance and the challenges they encounter in upholding their rights. The ruling mentioned in Statement II reflects the broader theme of legal battles over indigenous rights, tying back to the fundamental rights protected under Article 32. Thus, both statements are correct, with Statement II providing a contextual example that aligns with the empowering nature of Article 32 for protecting rights.

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution holds immense significance as it grants individuals the right to directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision empowers citizens to seek justice and protection of their rights without intermediaries, reinforcing the principles of justice and democracy within the Indian legal framework. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar considered Article 32 as a fundamental provision essential for ensuring that citizens have a direct recourse to the highest judicial authority for the protection of their fundamental rights.

Statement 1 is correct. The Vrindavani Vastra was indeed commissioned by Cilarai, who was the brother of Koch king Naranarayana. This highlights the significant historical and cultural patronage behind the creation of this tapestry.

Statement 2 is correct. The Vrindavani Vastra is known for its intricate design featuring multicolored silk with loom-embroidered captions depicting various scenes from the life of Lord Krishna, including his birth, adventures, and the defeat of Kamsa. This aspect of the tapestry reflects the artistic and cultural richness of that period.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The original piece of the Vrindavani Vastra is not held in the Victoria & Albert Museum in its entirety. Rather, fragments of the tapestry are distributed among several museums, including the British Museum, Victoria & Albert Museum, and the Guimet Museum in Paris. The original complete piece is considered lost.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

The Kamalesan case underscores the tension between personal beliefs and military duties within the Indian Army. This conflict highlights the delicate balance that must be maintained between an individual's conscience and the requirements of institutional cohesion. Effective leadership in such scenarios should strive to create an environment where both personal beliefs and military obligations can coexist harmoniously.

- Statement 1 is correct. The implementation of the Four Labour Codes is intended to consolidate various existing labour laws into broader functional codes, which simplifies compliance mechanisms for businesses and reduces administrative burdens. This is a key part of the reforms aimed at modernizing India's labour governance framework.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Social Security Code, which is one of the Four Labour Codes, indeed extends social security benefits to gig and platform workers. This inclusion is crucial given the anticipated growth of this workforce segment, reflecting the Codes' aim to provide enhanced worker protections and support the future of work.

- Statement 3 is correct. The Labour Codes do mandate universal minimum wages and define a workweek of 48 hours, which aims to enhance work-life balance for workers. These measures are part of the Codes' broader objective to strengthen worker protections and align with the aspirations of Aatmanirbhar Bharat and inclusive growth.

Thus, all three statements are correct, and the correct answer is Option D.

The core objective of the Labour Codes implemented in India is to strengthen worker protections through various measures, such as universal minimum wages, mandatory appointment letters, and defining a workweek of 48 hours to enhance work-life balance. By ensuring these protections, the Codes aim to improve the overall well-being and rights of workers across different sectors.