UPSC Monthly Mock - December 2025 with solutions Attempt Free MCQ Test

Statement-I correctly describes the focus of the 8th Economic Census in India, which aims to comprehensively count all establishments involved in the production and distribution of goods and services within the country's boundaries. This aligns with the purpose of the Economic Census as outlined in the provided text.

Statement-II accurately portrays the significance of the term "Seva Teerth" in describing the new Prime Minister's Office in the Central Vista complex. It emphasizes the fusion of spiritual and administrative values and the shift towards citizen-centric governance, as highlighted by the Union Home Minister. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to the context of Statement-I, which pertains specifically to the Economic Census.

Therefore, both statements are individually correct in their respective contexts, but they do not have a direct explanatory relationship, making option (b) the correct choice.

The main goal of the 8th Economic Census in 2027 in India is to create the Statistical Business Register (SBR), which will serve as a unified database mapping all enterprises across different states. This initiative aims to enhance the tracking of active and closed enterprises, thereby improving the accuracy of national economic statistics. By compiling this comprehensive database, policymakers and analysts can better understand the economic landscape and make informed decisions to support economic growth and development.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. India's recent initiatives, such as the ₹7,280-crore rare-earth magnet scheme, are not focused solely on extraction. These initiatives emphasize the importance of refining, processing, and manufacturing, highlighting the need to move beyond merely extracting minerals to create true economic value.

- Statement 2 is correct. China indeed controls over 90% of the refining market for rare-earth minerals and graphite. This dominance presents significant risks for global supply chains and has been a point of concern for India, especially given geopolitical tensions and past export restrictions by China.

- Statement 3 is correct. One of the suggested pathways for improving India's processing capabilities is to transform Centres of Excellence into applied innovation hubs. This approach is aimed at enhancing commercial readiness and supporting the development of advanced processing techniques for critical minerals.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Statement-I correctly describes the situation faced by IndiGo, highlighting the flight disruptions caused by a crew shortage due to new FDTL norms. Statement-II accurately depicts the importance of urban soils in climate change mitigation by regulating temperatures and absorbing carbon. While both statements are factually correct, they address different topics and do not directly explain each other. Therefore, option (b) is the most appropriate choice as it acknowledges the correctness of both statements without indicating a direct explanatory relationship between them.

1. The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) - Supplements the 1925 Geneva Protocol: Correct. The BWC does supplement the 1925 Geneva Protocol, which prohibited the use of biological and chemical weapons in war. The BWC extends this by prohibiting the development, production, and stockpiling of biological weapons.

2. Article I of the BWC - Allows the peaceful and protective use of biological agents: Correct. Article I of the BWC bans any biological agents, toxins, or related materials that do not have legitimate peaceful, protective, or prophylactic uses. Thus, it does allow for peaceful and protective uses.

3. Implementation Support Unit - Has formal verification authority: Incorrect. The Implementation Support Unit of the BWC does not have verification authority. The BWC lacks a formal compliance and verification mechanism, which is one of its significant gaps.

4. INTERPOL's definition of Bioterrorism - Includes the release of chemical agents: Incorrect. INTERPOL's definition of bioterrorism involves the intentional release of harmful biological agents or toxins, not chemical agents. Chemical agents are addressed separately, often under the Chemical Weapons Convention.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights the significance of the Census 2027 in India, emphasizing its role in the Lok Sabha delimitation process. This is crucial for ensuring accurate representation in the parliament. Statement-II accurately describes the purpose of the Health and National Security Cess Bill, 2025, which aims to generate revenue for health and national security initiatives through taxes on demerit goods. The two statements are independent but both correct, with Statement-II providing additional information that aligns with the theme of generating funds for specific purposes through taxation on certain goods.

1. Justice Nisha Banu - Member of Madras High Court Collegium: Incorrect. Justice Nisha Banu was excluded from the Collegium, raising constitutional concerns about the legitimacy of the recommendations. Although she is the second most senior judge, her exclusion from the Collegium discussions was questioned.

2. Maharashtra - State with high demand for kidney and liver transplants: Correct. Maharashtra faces high demands for organ transplants, particularly for kidneys and livers, contributing to increased mortality due to waiting lists.

3. Madras High Court Collegium - Includes the Chief Justice and two senior judges: Correct. The Collegium traditionally comprises the Chief Justice and the two seniormost judges, as specified in the Memorandum of Procedure.

4. Spain - Organ donation rate below 1 donor per million population: Incorrect. Spain has one of the highest organ donation rates in the world, approximately 48 donors per million population, significantly higher than India's rate.

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Statement-I is correct because as per the Memorandum of Procedure, the Collegium must consist of the Chief Justice and the two seniormost judges. Statement-II is also correct as the exclusion of a senior judge like Justice Nisha Banu from the Collegium's discussions could indeed raise concerns regarding constitutional validity and institutional integrity. This exclusion might jeopardize the legitimacy of the Collegium's recommendations, indicating a potential constitutional crisis. Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of Statement-I.

The Madras High Court Collegium primarily plays a crucial role in recommending judge appointments. This process involves the Chief Justice and two senior judges making recommendations for the appointment of judges to higher courts. The Collegium system is a significant aspect of the judicial appointment process in India, ensuring transparency and credibility in the selection of judges.

The core objective of BRICS as an intergovernmental organization of major emerging economies is to reform global governance institutions like the UN and IMF. This aims to establish alternative financial systems, reduce dependency on the US dollar, and counterbalance Western influence, advocating for a more multipolar world order.

1. Operation Hawkeye Strike - US operation targeting Islamic State in Syria. This pair is correctly matched. The operation aims at Islamic State infrastructure and weapons sites in Syria.

2. Islamic State (IS) - A Shia extremist group primarily operating in northern Iraq and Syria. This pair is incorrectly matched. The Islamic State is a Sunni extremist group, not Shia, and operates primarily in northern Iraq and Syria.

3. BRICS Founding Members - Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. This pair is incorrectly matched. The original founding members of BRICS were Brazil, Russia, India, and China. South Africa joined later in 2010.

4. New Development Bank (NDB) - Established by the G20 for development projects in emerging markets. This pair is incorrectly matched. The NDB was established by the BRICS countries, not the G20, to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects.

Only the first pair is correctly matched, making Option A the correct answer.

1. Precautionary Principle - Correctly matched. This principle advocates for preventive action in environmental management, especially when there's scientific uncertainty about potential harm. It is a key component of environmental policy in India.

2. Public Trust Doctrine - Incorrectly matched. The Public Trust Doctrine asserts that the state holds natural resources in trust for public use and cannot allow their exploitation for private gain. It does not support private ownership and exploitation as described in the pair.

3. Polluter Pays Principle - Correctly matched. This principle mandates that those responsible for pollution bear the costs associated with it, promoting accountability and environmental responsibility.

4. Right to Disconnect - Correctly matched. This concept, gaining traction in modern labor law discussions, allows employees to not engage in work-related communications beyond working hours, addressing work-life balance issues.

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software (SUVAS) is designed to translate judicial documents between English and various vernacular languages, not exclusively from English to Hindi. Its purpose is to enhance access to justice for individuals who do not speak English.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court Efficiency (SUPACE) is indeed used to assist judges by processing facts and managing substantial volumes of case data. However, it acts as a force multiplier and does not make decisions itself, aligning with the judiciary's cautious approach to AI.

- Statement 3 is correct. The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) is a tool that utilizes analytics to monitor case pendency and disposal rates across various courts in India, providing a crucial resource for addressing the backlog of cases and improving judicial efficiency.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

The primary focus of a circular economy model in India's dairy sector is to enhance farmers' income and ensure sustainability. This model aims to transition from a linear "take-make-dispose" approach to one that emphasizes resource longevity through reuse, repair, and recycling. By boosting income streams through innovative initiatives like converting cattle dung to biogas and diversifying dairy products, India aims to position itself as a global leader in dairy while promoting environmental sustainability.

Mahaparinirvan Diwas is observed annually on December 6th to mark the death anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who played a pivotal role in drafting the Indian Constitution and was a prominent advocate for social justice and equality in India. This day is dedicated to honoring his contributions and legacy in promoting equality and fighting against caste-based discrimination.

- Statement-I is correct: India indeed aims to achieve 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047 to reduce reliance on fossil fuels and meet its climate commitments. This information is highlighted in the Strategic Rationale Behind the Reform section.

- Statement-II is correct: The SHANTI Bill does aim to open up certain core areas of the nuclear value chain to private and global companies while keeping government control over reactor operation and weapons-related activities. This aligns with the provisions of the SHANTI Bill as described in the text.

While both statements are individually correct, they do not directly explain or relate to each other, hence Option B is the accurate choice.

1. Ku Band - High demand spectrum used for satellite communications:
Correctly matched. The Ku band is indeed in high demand for satellite communications, including TV broadcasting and Internet services.

2. Ka Band - Frequency band primarily for satellite radio broadcasting:
Incorrectly matched. The Ka band is used for high-frequency satellite communications, particularly in broadband and high-speed data services, not primarily for satellite radio broadcasting.

3. L Band - Used for GPS and mobile satellite services:
Correctly matched. The L band is used for a variety of applications, including GPS and mobile satellite services, due to its ability to penetrate weather conditions like rain.

4. V Band - Commonly used for weather satellites:
Incorrectly matched. The V band is not commonly used for weather satellites. Instead, it is being explored for future high-frequency satellite communications, but not typically for weather satellites.

Two pairs are correctly matched: Ku Band and L Band.

1. Atomic Energy Act, 1962 - Correctly matched. This Act does indeed provide the framework for the development and regulation of nuclear energy in India.

2. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 - Incorrectly matched. This Act does not establish private sector ownership of nuclear plants; rather, it ensures compensation mechanisms for nuclear incidents.

3. Nuclear Safety Authority - Correctly matched. The proposed authority is indeed intended to separate safety regulation from promotional roles to enhance credibility and transparency in the sector.

4. India-Oman Free Trade Agreement - Correctly matched. Under the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), India will gain access to 98% of its products in Oman.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched, which aligns with Option B: Only two pairs.

Statement-I correctly highlights the objective of the One Nation-One Port Process (ONOP) to reduce documentation at ports by 33% for improved efficiency and cost savings. Statement-II complements Statement-I by explaining that the National Logistics Portal - Marine (NLP-Marine) is being upgraded as part of the ONOP initiative to enable paperless workflows, faster clearances, and real-time data sharing. Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II provides additional information that aligns with and supports Statement-I.

1. Statement 1 is correct. Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution permits the government to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on specific grounds, including the security of the state, public order, decency, or morality, among others. These grounds are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, and no additional restrictions can be imposed beyond these.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Information Technology Act, 2000, and its amendments indeed address issues such as cyber terrorism and obscenity. This act provides a legal framework for electronic governance and also includes provisions to combat various cybercrimes, including those related to online content regulation.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India does not have the power to create laws. It can interpret the Constitution and existing laws, and its role is to ensure that laws are applied correctly and constitutionally. The creation of laws is the prerogative of the legislative branch, and the Supreme Court can only interpret and enforce laws within the boundaries set by the Constitution and existing statutes.

Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

The primary objective of the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 is to empower universities in areas such as teaching, learning, and research. This bill aims to enhance academic standards through improved coordination between regulatory bodies, clearly defined academic standards, and a unified governance mechanism for higher education. By focusing on empowering universities, the bill seeks to streamline regulatory processes and elevate India's competitiveness in the global higher education landscape.

The stability or slight growth of glaciers in the Karakoram and parts of the Pamir mountain ranges can be attributed to the protective debris cover present on the surface of the glaciers. This layer of debris acts as insulation for the ice below, slowing down the melting process. This phenomenon helps counteract the effects of global warming that lead to glacier shrinkage in other regions without such protective covers.

Statement-I talks about the recent surge in student migration from India, which indeed highlights a significant transformation in global educational mobility, as mentioned in the provided text related to India's student migration trends. This statement aligns accurately with the content discussed.
On the other hand, Statement-II discusses the SHANTI Bill, 2025, which overhauls India's nuclear power sector, permitting private sector participation. While this statement is true based on the information provided, it does not correspond to the content of the first statement regarding student migration. Thus, Statement-II is not relevant to Statement-I, making option (c) the correct choice.

1. Financial Burden: Correctly matched. Many Indian families do indeed incur significant debts, often ranging from ₹40-50 lakh, for overseas education as noted in the context of student migration.

2. Employment Outcomes: Correctly matched. The information provided states that only about one in four Indian postgraduates in the UK secure skilled visas, indicating a significant challenge in employment outcomes.

3. Role of Recruitment Agencies: Incorrectly matched. The text notes that recruitment agencies are often poorly regulated, which can lead to placements in inappropriate courses, not well-regulated placements.

4. SHANTI Bill: Incorrectly matched. The SHANTI Bill does not introduce foreign direct investment for the operation of nuclear power plants. It allows for private sector participation but does not explicitly permit foreign direct investment.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

1. Statement 1: Correct. Open Market Operations (OMOs) are indeed a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to buy and sell government securities in the open market. This action helps in regulating the liquidity and money supply in the economy. When the RBI buys government securities, it injects liquidity into the banking system, and when it sells securities, it absorbs liquidity.

2. Statement 2: Incorrect. A Rupee-Dollar swap operation is a tool used by the RBI that directly impacts rupee liquidity. In a buy/sell swap, the RBI injects rupee liquidity by buying dollars and agrees to sell them back later, while in a sell/buy swap, it absorbs rupee liquidity by selling dollars initially and buying them back later. Therefore, these operations do influence rupee liquidity contrary to what the statement suggests.

3. Statement 3: Correct. The RBI uses both OMOs and Rupee-Dollar swaps simultaneously because they address different but complementary aspects of liquidity management. OMOs assist in directly influencing domestic bond yields by altering the supply of securities, while Rupee-Dollar swaps provide durable liquidity management without directly impacting bond yields. This separation of objectives allows the RBI to manage liquidity and stabilize the exchange rate effectively.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. e-Governance promotes inclusivity by ensuring that government services reach rural and remote areas through Common Services Centres (CSCs). These centres act as access points for delivering essential public utility services, social welfare schemes, healthcare, financial, education, and agriculture services, thus enhancing inclusivity.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The Karmayogi Bharat initiative is primarily aimed at preparing a future-ready civil service by equipping officials with the necessary Attitude, Skills, and Knowledge (ASK) to deliver efficient and citizen-centric governance. It is not specifically aimed at providing citizens direct access to government activities for transparency and accountability.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. DigiLocker is a key initiative under e-Governance that reduces the need for physical documents by providing citizens access to authentic digital documents stored in a digital document wallet. This enhances convenience and promotes digital document usage.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

The Supreme Court of India's ruling aimed at enhancing the conservation efforts for the Great Indian Bustard primarily focused on mitigating bird fatalities resulting from collisions with power lines in conservation zones. This decision emphasized the importance of managing overhead power lines to protect the critically endangered GIB species, recognizing the need to balance renewable energy expansion with wildlife conservation.

Statement-I correctly defines bioremediation as the process of using microorganisms to break down hazardous pollutants, which is a fundamental concept in bioremediation. Statement-II provides additional details about the types of bioremediation techniques, distinguishing between In Situ and Ex Situ Bioremediation, which further elaborates on the application and methods of bioremediation. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the process described in Statement-I.

Statement-I correctly highlights the goal of the National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) in India to end the HIV epidemic by 2030. Statement-II accurately describes the objectives and initiatives under NACP IV, focusing on reducing new infections and introducing key measures like the HIV/AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017. While both statements are correct, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but provides additional context and specific actions undertaken under the NACP IV.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Bioremediation does not exclusively rely on genetically modified organisms (GMOs). It primarily utilizes naturally occurring microorganisms, such as bacteria, fungi, algae, or plants, to decompose harmful pollutants. While GMOs can be used to enhance the efficiency of bioremediation, they are not the sole agents employed in the process.

- Statement 2 is correct. In situ bioremediation involves treating the contaminated material at the site of contamination itself. This method is often used in cases like oil spills, where deploying microorganisms directly at the site can effectively degrade pollutants without the need to transport contaminated materials.

- Statement 3 is correct. India's rich biodiversity offers significant advantages for bioremediation initiatives. Indigenous microbes, which are naturally adapted to local conditions, can often be more effective in degrading pollutants than non-native strains. This is particularly beneficial for addressing the diverse range of pollutants found across different ecological zones in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.