UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 1 Free Online

• Soil contamination can happen due to a variety of reasons, including manufacturing, mineral extraction, accidental spills, illegal dumping, leaking underground storage tanks, pesticide and fertiliser use etc.
  • Scientists have developed sustainable and eco-friendly technologies like methods of “Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds.
  • One particular way of Phytoremediation method to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants that absorb these substances from the soil.
• What are hyperaccumulator plants?
  • Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the soil and accumulate in their living tissue.
  • Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances, hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these substances than is normal for most plants.
• How can phytoremediation with hyperaccumulators be used to remove toxic metals from the soil?
  • Suitable plant species can be used to ‘pick up’ the pollutants from the soil through their roots and transport them to their stem, leaves and other parts.
  • After this, these plants can be harvested and either disposed or even used to extract these toxic metals from the plant.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

1. Madrasatul Uloom - Established in 1875
This is correctly matched. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded Madrasatul Uloom, which later evolved into the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College - Founded in 1877
This is correctly matched. The college was indeed founded in 1877 and later became the Aligarh Muslim University.

3. Aligarh Muslim University - Became a university in 1920
This is correctly matched. The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was elevated to university status in 1920, becoming Aligarh Muslim University.

4. Viceregal Council - Served as a member in 1883
This is incorrectly matched. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan joined the British judicial service in 1876 but was not a member of the Viceregal Council in 1883. He was, however, involved in various educational reforms and commissions.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

• The All India Survey on Higher Education is a report released by the Department of Higher Education, Union Ministry of Education. The survey is conducted on an annual basis. It was initiated in 2011, during which data for the year 2010-11 was collected. Pratham NGO releases the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER). It has been biennially published (released once in 2 years) since 2005. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The survey is intended to cover all the institutions in the country engaged in imparting Higher Education and not all levels of education in the country. Data is being collected on several parameters such as teachers, student enrolment, programs, examination results, education finance, infrastructure, etc. Indicators of educational development, such as Institution Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil-Teacher Ratio, Gender Parity Index, etc., are calculated from the data collected through AISHE. These are useful in making informed policy decisions and research for the development of the education sector. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

It provides a platform for countries in the region to collaborate on advancing resilient, sustainable, and inclusive economic growth, and aims to contribute to cooperation, stability and prosperity in the region. The IPEF comprises four pillars of cooperation namely: Trade, Supply Chain, Clean Economy and Fair Economy.

• Mhadei, also known as the Mandovi river in Goa and Mahadayi in Karnataka, is considered a lifeline in the northern parts of Goa. Mahadayi river rises in the Western Ghats, from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka’s Belagavi district. Flowing westward, it enters Goa from the Sattari taluk of North Goa districts. A number of streams join the flow of the river to form the Mandovi which is one of two major rivers that flow through Goa. It joins the Arabian Sea at Panaji. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the states of Goa and Karnataka are in a dispute due to the decision of the state of Karnataka to route water from the Mhadei River to the Malaprabha basin. The dispute is lingering since the 1980s. Karnataka claims that the surplus from Mahadayi drains into the sea and that it should be diverted into the deficit basin in Malaprabha to meet the state’s drinking, irrigation, agriculture and power generation needs.
• Goa has, meanwhile, denied Karnataka’s claims saying it is a water-deficient state and limiting the water supply would adversely impact its agriculture production. The Mhadei River drains into the Arabian Sea and is not a tributary of the Malaprabha River. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats in the Belgaum district of Karnataka.
• Dudhsagar waterfall is a four-tiered waterfall located on the Mandovi River(Mhadei) in Goa. It lies at a distance of 60 km from Panaji and 10 km from Kulem. The falls are located in the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park among the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Sri Lankan President recently defended the International Monetary Fund bailout in his re-election campaign.

About International Monetary Fund (IMF):

• It is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency, founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944.
• It was established in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
• The main objectives of the IMF include supporting global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, facilitating international trade, promoting high employment and sustainable economic growth and reducing poverty.
• Through its economic surveillance, the IMF keeps track of the economic health of its member countries, alerting them to risks on the horizon and providing policy advice.
• It also lends to countries with balance-of-payments difficulties and provides technical assistance and training to help countries improve economic management. 
• IMF funds are often conditional on recipients making reforms to increase their growth potential and financial stability.
• It is currently composed of 190 member countries.
• The IMF is headquartered in Washington, DC.
• Structure:
• At the top of its organizational structure is the Board of Governors, consisting of one governor (usually the minister of finance or the governor of the central bank) and one alternate governor from each member country. 
• All powers of the IMF are vested in the Board of Governors. 
• The day-to-day work of the IMF is overseen by its 24-member Executive Board, which represents the entire membership and is supported by IMF staff. 
• The Managing Director is the head of the IMF staff and Chair of the Executive Board and is assisted by four Deputy Managing Directors. The managing director is usually a European.
• The IMF has 18 departments that carry out its country, policy, analytical, and technical work.
• Each member contributes a sum of money called a quota subscription.
• Quotas are reviewed every five years and are based on each country’s wealth and economic performance—the richer the country, the larger its quota, making the U.S., with the world's largest economy, the largest contributor.
• The quotas form a pool of loanable funds and determine how much money each member can borrow and how much voting power it will have.
• Voting Powers:
• Quotas of member countries are a key determinant of the voting power in IMF decisions.
• Votes comprise one vote per 100,000 Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of quota plus basic votes.
• SDRs are an international type of monetary reserve currency created by the IMF as a supplement to the existing money reserves of member countries.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

• Monsoon Trough is an elongated low- pressure area, which extends from heat low over Pakistan to Head Bay of Bengal. This is one of the semi-permanent features of monsoon circulation. Monsoon Trough may be a characteristic of the east-west orientation of the Himalayan ranges, and the north-south orientation of the Khasi- Jaintia hills.
• Generally, the eastern side of Monsoon Trough oscillates, sometimes southwards and sometimes northwards. The southward migration results in active/vigorous monsoon over major parts of India.
• In contrast, the northward migration of this Trough leads to break monsoon condition over major parts of India, and heavy rains along the foothills of the Himalayas, and sometimes floods in the Brahmaputra River.

Statement-I correctly highlights the recent concerns regarding the need for public disclosure of judges' assets, triggered by the discovery of cash at Delhi High Court judges' residences. Statement-II accurately mentions the 2019 ruling that made judges' personal assets and liabilities public under the RTI Act. However, while both statements are factually correct, Statement-II does not directly explain or elaborate on the context provided in Statement-I. Hence, option (b) is the most appropriate choice as it acknowledges the accuracy of both statements without implying a direct explanatory relationship between them.

Only three of the listed items are direct applications of artificial intelligence.

1,Convert spoken language into text. is an AI application because speech recognition and conversion of spoken language to text use natural language processing and statistical or learning-based models to recognise phonemes and map them to text.

2. Generate personalized treatment plans is an AI application because generation of personalized treatment plans involves analysing medical records, patterns in data and predictions using machine learning or decision-support algorithms to recommend individualized care.

5. Manoeuvring a driverless car  is an AI application because driverless cars rely on computer vision, sensor fusion and planning algorithms (learned or rule-based) to perceive the environment and make driving decisions.

3. Virtual reality simulations is not inherently an AI application. Virtual reality (VR) primarily refers to rendering immersive environments and display/interface technologies. AI can be used inside VR (for agent behaviour or adaptive content), but VR itself is a simulation/rendering technology rather than a core AI application.

4. Searching a keyword in a document is not necessarily an AI application. A simple keyword search in a document is often implemented by text indexing and string-matching or basic information-retrieval techniques. While advanced search can use AI/NLP to improve relevance, a plain keyword search does not require AI.

Therefore, only items 1, 2 and 5 are direct applications of artificial intelligence; the correct choice is Only three (Option C).

• The Kisan Sabha movement gained momentum in central Andhra districts under the leadership of the Congress Socialist Party activist N.G. Ranga. He organized a number of peasant marches in 1933-34, and under his stewardship, at the Ellore Zamindari Ryots Conference in 1933, the demand was raised for the abolition of zamindari.
• In 1935 Ranga and E.M.S. Namboodripad in order to spread the peasant movement to other linguistic regions of the Madras Presidency, organized a South Indian Federation of Peasants and Agricultural Labour and initiated the discussion for an all-India peasant body.
• E.M.S. Namboodiripad was one of the foremost leaders of the Communist movement in India and one of the founding leaders of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). o He left college in 1931 to join the freedom struggle and was jailed in the satyagraha movement. From then onwards, he played an important role in the Congress movement and was one of the founders of the Congress Socialist Party in Kerala. In 1934 he became the all-India joint secretary of the Congress Socialist Party.
• Gogineni Ranga Nayukulu, better known as N. G. Ranga was an Indian freedom fighter, parliamentarian, and Kisan (farmer) leader. He was an exponent of the peasant philosophy and was considered the father of the Indian Peasant Movement after Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
  • Ranga joined the freedom movement inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's clarion call in 1930. He led the ryot agitation in 1933. Three years later, he launched the Kisan Congress party. He held historic discussions with Gandhiji on the demand for a rythu‐coolie state. He wrote a book, ‘Bapu Blesses’ regarding his discussions with Gandhi.
  • Ranga was one of the founders of the Congress Socialist Party and was a member of its National Executive and drafting Committee in 1934.
  • Ranga was the first General secretary of All India Kisan Sabha formed in 1936. x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• As tension between Moscow and Washington mounts, Russia on Wednesday passed the second and third readings of a Bill to revoke its ratification of the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
• Russian President Vladimir Putin had on October 5 urged the Duma, the Lower House of the country’s Parliament, to make the change to “mirror” the position of the U.S., Reuters reported.
• The CTBT seeks to ban all nuclear explosions, for both military and peaceful purposes. So far, 187 countries have signed the treaty and 178 have ratified it. The treaty, however, has not legally come into force; it can only do so when it has been signed and ratified by the 44 countries that are part of the treaty’s Annex 2 and had formally participated in the 1996 session of the Conference on Disarmament. These countries possessed nuclear power or research reactors at the time.
• Of the 44 States included in Annex 2 required for entry into force of the CTBT, all have signed with the exceptions of the Democratic People's Republic of Korea (North Korea) , India, and Pakistan. Five of the 44 Annex 2 States have signed but not ratified the CTBT; they are China, Egypt, Iran, Israel, and the United States.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, directing them to stop proceedings in a case that falls outside their jurisdiction.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, directing them to send the records of a case for review.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Quo Warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of a person holding a public office, corporation, or position of power.

Writs and their uses

Prohibition:

• Prohibition writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, directing them to stop proceedings in a case that falls outside their jurisdiction or where there is an error of law.
• It prevents inferior courts from exceeding their authority or acting beyond the scope of their powers.
• Certiorari: Certiorari means "to be certified" in Latin. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, directing them to send the records of a case for review. It is used to correct errors of law, jurisdictional issues, or to ensure fair proceedings. The writ of certiorari is employed to bring a case from a lower court to a higher court for examination.
• Quo Warrant: Quo warranto means "by what authority" in Latin. This writ is issued to inquire into the legality of a person holding a public office. corporation, or position of power. It challenges the authority or legitimacy of the person in that position and seeks to prevent the usurpation of public offices.

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a Low Earth Orbit observatory, jointly developed by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which make it a dual- frequency imaging radar satellite.
• NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days and provide spatially and temporally consistent data for understanding changes in the Earth's ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, groundwater and natural hazards, including carthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and landslides.

Recently, a 19-year-old student cracked the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) and is set to become the first member of the Bonda tribal community.

• The Bondas are exclusively found in the Malkangiri district of Odisha and are mostly concentrated in the Khairaput block of the district.
• It is a particularly vulnerable tribal group and one of the oldest tribes in India.
• They are also known as Bondo, Bondas, Bonda Paraja, and Bhonda.
• They belong to the Austro-Asiatic racial stock and speak Remo-an Austro-Asiatic dialect.
• The Bondas are divided into two groups because of their distinct cultural practices:
• The Lower Bondas, who live in the Malkangiri district in south Odisha and border Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and
• The Upper Bondas, who live in the remote villages of the district’s hilly terrain.
• They have an interesting dressing style – ladies are semiclad and wear different sorts of rings and pieces of jewellery around their bodies, while the men convey deadly retires.
• Occupation: They are primarily farmers, but they also hunt, gather forest products, and perform labor.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

• Lord Wellesley, as Governor General in 1798, expressed concern over the poor conditions in the Indian part of Calcutta. He identified issues like crowding, excessive vegetation, dirty tanks, and poor drainage, which were believed to contribute to diseases. Wellesley advocated for town planning to create open spaces for public health.
• In 1803, Lord Wellesley issued a Minute emphasizing the need for town planning. He established committees to address the urban challenges, leading to the clearance of bazaars, ghats, burial grounds, and tanneries. This marked the beginning of town clearance and planning projects to improve public health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• After Wellesley's departure, the Lottery Committee was established in 1817 which took charge of town planning in Calcutta. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It was created with the objective of raising funds for the development of towns in India. The establishment of this committee was a part of the British colonial government's efforts to modernise and develop urban areas in India.
• The lottery committee, funded through public lotteries, commissioned a new map of the city. Its major activities included road building in the Indian part and clearing the riverbank of encroachments.

• Servants of India Society was formed in 1905, by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, to unite and train Indians of different ethnicities and religions in welfare work. It was the first secular organization in that country to devote itself to the underprivileged, rural and tribal people, emergency relief work, the increase of literacy, and other social causes. During the Swadeshi movement emphasis was given on self-reliance or  ̳Atmasakti‘ as a necessary part of the struggle against the British rule.
• In the pursuit of the same many institutions for education sprang up all over the country within a short period of time. In August 1906, the National Council of Education was established. It consisted of distinguished persons of the country with a definite objective of organising education on national lines with chief medium of instruction as vernaculars. In 1907, Congress session was held in Surat at the banks of river Tapi. The President of this session was Rash Behari Bose.
• At this session the gradual widening of the differences between the extremists and the moderates which was rising during the Swadeshi Movement culminated into a split of congress between the two. In 1908, in Muzaffarpur, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage which they presumed was carrying and anti-Indian judge, Kingsford. The conspiracy at Muzaffarpur resulted into the death of two innocent English woman instead. He shot himself dead while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Recently, the Union Minister of Port Shipping and Waterways officially launched the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for Green Tug Transition Program (GTTP).

About Green Tug Transition Program

• GTTP was launched on May 22, 2023, is a key initiative under the ‘Panch Karma Sankalp’.
• It is designed to phase out conventional fuel-based harbour tugs operating in Indian Major Ports and replace them with green tugs powered by cleaner and more sustainable alternate fuels.
• Implementation phases
• Phase 1 of the GTTP will begin on October 1, 2024, and continue until December 31, 2027.
• During this phase, four major ports—Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority, Deendayal Port Authority, Paradip Port Authority, and V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority will procure or charter at least two green tugs each, based on standardized designs and specifications issued by the Standing Specification Committee (SSC). 
• National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) will act as the nodal entity for this programme.
• India aims at becoming a ‘Global Hub for Green Ship’ building by 2030 with the launch of the Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP).
• ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’ will be powered by Green Hybrid Propulsion systems. These Green hybrid tugs will subsequently adopt non-fossil fuel solutions like (Methanol, Ammonia, and Hydrogen).

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Future Circular Collider (FCC) indeed aims to achieve unprecedented particle collision energies and plans to generate Higgs bosons in large quantities by around 2040. This is one of the primary objectives of the FCC project as it seeks to push the boundaries of particle physics research.
- Statement 2 is correct. The project is estimated to cost $30 billion and will feature a 91 km circular tunnel located beneath the Swiss-French border. These details are part of the core specifications of the FCC as proposed by CERN.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Plasma wave technology is not a component of the FCC. Instead, it is mentioned as an alternative proposal to the FCC. Plasma wave technology is considered a potential future method for particle acceleration, offering a more compact design, but it is not part of the current FCC project plans.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Constitution.

• Statement 1 is correct: If different Scheduled Tribes inhabit an autonomous district, the Governor may divide it into autonomous regions by notification.
• Statement 2 is correct: Each District Council and each Regional Council is a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal, and can sue or be sued by that name.
• Statement 3 is correct: Each District Council and Regional Council may have up to 30 members, of whom up to 4 are nominated by the Governor and the rest are elected by adult suffrage.

Hence, the Correct Answer - Option A

• The Science Based Targets initiative (SBTi) mobilizes companies (Corporate sector) to set science- based greenhouse gas emissions reduction targets and boost their competitive advantage in the transition to the low-carbon economy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The initiative is a collaboration between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, the World Resources Institute (WRI), and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), and one of the We Mean Business Coalition commitments. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The initiative defines and promotes the best practices in science-based target setting, offers resources and guidance to reduce barriers to adoption, and independently assesses and approves companies’ targets.
• Targets adopted by companies to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions are considered “science- based” if they are in line with the latest climate science, which is necessary to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement – to limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C. SBTs provide companies a clearly defined pathway to future-proof growth by specifying how much and how quickly they need to reduce their GHG emissions. 

• Ship hulls are under continuous attack by shipworm and various marine weeds, all of which have some adverse effect on the ship, be it structurally, as in the case of the worm, or affecting speed and handling in the case of the weeds.
• Copper sheathing is the method for protecting the hull of a wooden vessel from attack by shipworm, barnacles and other marine growth through the use of copper plates affixed to the surface of the hull, below the waterline.
• Copper has anti-bacterial properties and prevents the growth of bacteria on the ship and prevents it decay. While other functions like providing strength etc. can be done by other metals too but preventing the growth of bacteria is the one that makes it unique for the use in boats.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect:

• The report of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) is submitted to the Governor of the state, not the Chief Minister.
• According to the Indian Constitution, the Governor then places the report before the state legislature along with any recommendations they may deem fit.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

• The tenure of the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission is 6 years or until the age of 62, whichever is earlier, as per Article 316 of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

• The recommendations made by the SPSC are advisory in nature, not binding on the state government.
• The government may choose to accept or reject these recommendations, although they are typically given due consideration.

• Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is small-lift launch vehicle configured with three propulsion stages and a solid liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage.
• It is capable of launching upto 500 kg satellite mass into 500 km Low Earth Orbit.
• The SSLV can cater to the emerging global small satellite launch service market and meet the "Launch on Demand requirements in a cost- effective manner.
• Manufacturing of SSLV through the Indian industry partners will be the responsibility of NewSpace India Limited (NSIL).
• Benefits: Reduced turn-around time, launch on demand, low-cost access to space, flexibility in accommodating multiple satellites and minimum launch infrastructure requirements.

• In order to refer to a particular location on the earth, it is divided with the help of imaginary horizontal and vertical lines known as latitudes and longitudes respectively.
• The latitude denotes a geographical coordinate of a place located on the surface of the earth. It is the angular distance of any point (north or south of the equator) measured in degrees with respect to the Centre of the Earth. Its value is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the poles. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of a degree of latitude at the pole is slightly longer than that at the equator. For example at the equator (0°) it is 68.704 miles, at 45° it is 69.054 miles and at the poles, it is 69.407 miles. The average distance between two latitudes is thus taken as 69 miles (111km). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Some significant latitudes include-
  • Equator (0°).
  • North pole (90°N) and the south pole (90° S).
  • Tropic of Cancer (231⁄2° N).
  • Tropic of Capricorn (231⁄2° S).
  • Arctic circle at 661⁄2° N.
  • Antarctic circle at 661⁄2° S.
• Longitude, on the other hand, is an angular distance measured in degrees along the equator east or west of the Prime Meridian.
• In 1884, the zero meridian was chosen as the one passing through the Royal Astronomical Observatory at Greenwich, near London. This is the Prime Meridian (0°) from which all other meridians radiate eastwards and westwards up to 180°.
• The meridians of longitude converge at the poles.
• Apart from describing the location, they have one more essential function, they determine local time in relation to G.M.T. or Greenwich Mean Time.

• Narouji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, S.S. Bengalee, and others began religious reforms among the Parsis in Mumbai in the middle of the 19th century. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• In 1851, they founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha, or Religious Reform Association. Hence statement 1 is not correct. x They played an important role in the spread of education, especially among girls. 
• They also campaigned against the orthodox practices of the Parsi religion. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• In course of time, the Parsis became one of the most progressive sections of Indian society. 
• The message of reform was spread by the newspaper Rast Goftar (Truth-Teller). 
• Parsi religious rituals and practices were reformed and the Parsi creed was redefined. 
• In the social sphere, attempts were made to uplift the status of Parsi women through the removal of the purdah system, and raising the age of marriage and education. Gradually, the Parsis emerged as the most westernized section of Indian society.

“The Objectives Resolution, 1946”, was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in the very first session of the Constitution Assembly. These Resolutions were moved on 13th December, 1946, by Jawaharlal Nehru and were adopted on 22nd January, 1947, by the Constituent Assembly. Important Highlights – The Objectives Resolution: India is an independent, sovereign, republic. India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.

• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people.
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice, equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action - subject to law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards. The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations. The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind. 

• Deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our body. Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases. Deficiency of different vitamins and minerals may also result in certain diseases or disorders.
• In its more severe forms, vitamin A deficiency contributes to blindness by making the cornea very dry, thus damaging the retina and cornea. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Scurvy is the most prominent disease linked to Vitamin C deficiency. It denotes a heavy lack of vitamin C in the diet. Scurvy is the most prominent disease linked to Vitamin C deficiency. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Vitamin D deficiency can lead to a loss of bone density, which can contribute to osteoporosis and fractures (broken bones). Severe vitamin D deficiency can also lead to other diseases. In children, it can cause rickets. Rickets is a rare disease that causes the bones to become soft and bend.
• Anaemia is a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues. Iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Goiter is a condition where your thyroid gland grows larger. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of goiter in the world. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

IUCN Green Status of Species

• The decline of many species towards extinction has largely focused conservation efforts on ensuring that species remain extant.
• However, conservationists have long recognised the need to complement this by aiming to recover depleted populations throughout a species range and to restore species to ecosystems from which they have been extirpated
• The main objectives of the IUCN Green Status of Species are: to provide a standardised framework for measuring species recovery; to recognise conservation achievements; to highlight species whose current conservation status is dependent on continued conservation actions; to forecast the expected conservation impact of planned conservation action; and to elevate levels of ambition for long-term species recovery.
• These objectives together encourage conservation towards species recovery. throughout a species' range.

• The Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs). It is a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/poor in the Industrial Sector as well as in the non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace. Hence statement 2 is correct and 4 is not correct.
• The beneficiaries for ARHCs will be urban migrants/poor from EWS/LIG categories including labor, urban poor (street vendors, rickshaw pullers, other service providers, etc.), industrial workers, migrants working with market/ trade associations, educational/ health institutions, hospitality sector, long term tourists/visitors, students or any other persons of such category. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Scheme was hence announced under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Package which compliments the "Housing for all" motto of the government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Commission for the Control of INTERPOL's Files (CCF): The CCF is an independent body that ensures that all personal data processed through INTERPOL’s channels conform to the rules of the organization.
• It is not under the control of the INTERPOL Secretariat. To perform its functions, the Commission directly consults the INTERPOL General Secretariat; the National Central Bureaus; and other relevant entities.
• The CCF comprises seven members, appointed for a five-year term, renewable once for an additional term of three years.