UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 2 Free Online

Scientists from Mizoram University and Max Planck Institute recently identified a new snake species named Smithophis mizoramensis in the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. 

About Smithophis mizoramensis:

• It is a new species of snake identified from Mizoram.
• It is named Smithophis mizoramensis after its place of discovery.
• The new species is also given a Mizo name “Tuithiangrul” or “Mizo Brook Snake.”
• This discovery brings the total number of known Smithophis species worldwide to five.
• Two other species from this genus, Smithophis atemporalis and Smithophis bicolor, were previously recorded in Mizoram.
• The newly identified snake has been under study for 15 years due to its close resemblance to related species. 
• Genetic analysis reveals a 10-14% DNA difference from its nearest relatives. 
• The snake also exhibits unique colouration and scale patterns.
• It inhabits both lowland and highland areas of Mizoram, particularly near rivers and their surroundings.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

• In the 1950s, Simon Kuznets hypothesized that an inverted U-shaped relationship exists between inequality and development, or inequality and per capita income. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Simon Kuznets’ work on economic growth and income distribution led him to hypothesize that industrializing nations experience a rise and subsequent decline in economic inequality, characterized as an inverted "U"—the “Kuznets curve."
• It is used to demonstrate the hypothesis that economic growth initially leads to greater inequality, followed later by the reduction of inequality. 

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) refers to a fee that a merchant is charged by its issuing bank for accepting payments from its customers via credit and debit cards. It is also known as the Transaction Discount Rate (TDR). While the card-issuing bank gets a share of it, the remaining amount is distributed between the payment network and the Point-of-Sale terminal providers.

• Buddhist sculpture has a rich and diverse tradition that spans different regions and historical periods. Various skilled artists and sculptors have contributed to the creation of Buddhist sculptures, each leaving a unique mark on the artistic heritage of Buddhism.
• According to hagiographies, the Buddha attained enlightenment while meditating under a tree. Many early sculptors did not show the Buddha in human form – instead, they showed his presence through symbols. The empty seat was meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha.
• The stupa was meant to represent the Mahaparinibbana. Another frequently used symbol was the wheel. This stood for the first sermon of the Buddha, delivered at Sarnath.
• Prince Gautama decides to renounce all worldly pleasures including his wife Yasodhara and son Rahula in quest of Supreme Knowledge, and this event is known as Mahabhinishkramana (the great Departure or Renunciation), represented by the symbol of the Horse.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Pressmud, also known as filter cake or press cake, is a residual byproduct in the sugar industry that has gained recognition as a valuable resource for green energy production. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• This byproduct offers Indian sugar mills an opportunity to generate additional revenue by utilizing it as a feedstock for biogas production through anaerobic digestion, leading to the creation of Compressed Biogas (CBG). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Anaerobic digestion is a process through which bacteria break down organic matter—such as animal manure, wastewater biosolids, and food wastes—in the absence of oxygen. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Typically, the yield of pressmud ranges from 3-4 % by weight with the input sugarcane processed in a unit.

Greenhouse Gas Bulletin:

• Published annually since 2004 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
• It provides globally averaged surface mole fractions for carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and nitrous oxide (N₂O), comparing them with the previous year’s levels and preindustrial levels.
• The bulletin also offers insights into the changes in radiative forcing caused by long-lived greenhouse gases (LLGHGs) and the contributions of individual gases to these changes.
• It is one of WMO’s flagship publications, released to inform the UN Climate Change conference (COP).

Highlights of the Bulletin:

• In 2023, the globally averaged surface concentrations were: 420 parts per million (ppm) for carbon dioxide, 1934 parts per billion (ppb) for methane, and 336.9 ppb for nitrous oxide.
• Carbon dioxide is the leading greenhouse gas linked to human activities, responsible for around 64% of the climate warming effect, primarily due to fossil fuel combustion and cement production.
• The long-term rise in carbon dioxide levels is driven by fossil fuel burning, but annual variations are influenced by factors like the El Niño–Southern Oscillation, which affects carbon dioxide uptake, release, and fires.
• Methane, a potent greenhouse gas, stays in the atmosphere for about a decade and accounts for approximately 16% of the warming effect of long-lived greenhouse gases.
• Nitrous oxide, which depletes the ozone layer, contributes about 6% to the radiative forcing from long-lived greenhouse gases.
• From 1990 to 2023, radiative forcing from long-lived greenhouse gases increased by 51.5%, with CO₂ accounting for about 81% of this increase.

• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, is the administrative Ministry of FSSAI. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Headquarters: Delhi. Heart Attack Rewind – It is the first mass media campaign of FSSAI. It is aimed to support FSSAI’s target of eliminating trans fat in India by the year 2022.

Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

The e-Courts Project was conceptualized based on the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by the e-Committee, Supreme Court of India, with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. The e-Courts Mission Mode Project is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India for the District Courts across the country. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The e-Courts Project will be housed within the Home Ministry under the Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System for the District Courts across the country. Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) is a national platform for enabling integration of the main IT system used for the delivery of Criminal Justice in the country by five pillars, namely:-

• Police (Crime and Criminal Tracking and Network Systems),
• e-Forensics for Forensic Labs,
• e-Courts for Courts, 3
• e-Prosecution for Public Prosecutors
• e-Prisons for Prisons. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The e-Courts Project is one of the National e-Governance projects being implemented in District and Subordinate Courts of the Country since 2007. Its ambit does not include the constitutional courts (which are the supreme court & high court) but rather only the district and subordinate courts of states. However, as a special case for North East region, funds to the tune of Rs.13.67 Crores have been released to the Gauhati High Court (Principal bench) for digitization of records of the High Court and District Courts of Assam under e-Court Project Phase II. As the e-Courts project covers only District and Subordinate Courts, the Supreme Court is not part of e-Courts project Phase II. The project is aimed at providing the necessary hardware and software application to enable courts to deliver e-services and the judiciary to be able to monitor and manage the functioning of courts. The objective of the e-Courts project is to provide designated services to litigants, lawyers and the judiciary by universal computerization of district and subordinate courts in the country and enhancement of ICT enablement of the justice system. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

The e-Committee, of the supreme court, is the governing body overseeing the e-Courts Project conceptualized under the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary-2005”. E-committee is a body constituted by the Government of India in pursuance of a proposal from the Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India to constitute an e-Committee to assist him in formulating a National Policy on the computerization of Indian Judiciary and advice on technological communication and management-related changes. So, Statement 4 is correct.

About Baltic Sea:

• It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean.
• It extends northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe. 
• It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
• It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km.
• Surrounding Countries: Denmark, Germany, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Finland, and Sweden.
• It covers an area of approximately 377,000 sq.km. The sea is approximately 1,600 km long and 193 km wide.
• It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal.
• The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
• It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body.
• Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness.
• More than 250 rivers and streams empty their waters into the Baltic Sea. Neva is the largest river that drains into the Baltic Sea.
• It is home to over 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, located off the coast of Sweden, is the largest island in the Baltic Sea.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

• Hot water springs, also known as thermal springs or hot springs, are natural occurrences where groundwater is heated by geothermal energy and emerges at the Earth's surface. These springs are found in various geological settings, typically in regions with volcanic activity, tectonic plate boundaries, or areas with deep fault lines.
• Manikaran is a renowned pilgrimage site among the Hindu and Sikh community, Manikaran Sahib shrine stands on top of multiple hot water springs on the banks of Parvati River in Himachal Pradesh. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Yumthang hot springs are one of the most famous hot springs in Sikkim. It is located at an elevation of more than 11,800 feet above sea level. These hot water springs are located in the Lachung river’s course. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Panamik is a wonderful village surrounded by high mountain peaks in Ladakh. Ladakh is a Union Territory of India and Panamik village is situated on the Indo Tibetan Border in Ladakh. Panamik is also near the Siachen Glacier camp area. Panamik village is well known for its panamik hot springs. The sulphur rich hot water springs are the main reason for making this village famous and the springs have come to be known as the ‘Panamik Hot Water Springs. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Other important hot springs are

• Chumathang, Ladakh o Kheerganga, Himachal Pradesh
• Kasol, Himachal Pradesh
• Vashisht, Himachal Pradesh
• Gaurikund, Uttarakhand
• Rishikund, Uttarakhand
• Suryakund, Uttarakhand
• Dhuni Pani, Madhya Pradesh
• Atri, Orissa
• Akoli, Maharashtra

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The Constitution of India defines the powers, privileges and immunities of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

• This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament. Instead, it leaves them to be defined by Parliament itself. Article 105 of the Constitution states that the powers, privileges, and immunities shall be those of the House of Commons of the United Kingdom as they existed on January 26, 1950, until defined by Parliament.

A Member of Parliament (MP) cannot be arrested in a civil case, 40 days before the commencement of the session.

• This statement is correct. According to the privileges of MPs, they enjoy freedom from arrest in civil cases during the continuance of the session and 40 days before its commencement and 40 days after its conclusion. This privilege does not extend to criminal cases.

Judiciary is the sole authority to ascertain if there has been a contempt of the House.

• This statement is incorrect. The House of Parliament itself is the sole authority to ascertain and adjudicate if there has been a contempt of the House. The judiciary does not have the power to interfere in matters of contempt of the House.

The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha possesses the authority to independently refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report.

• This statement is correct. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does have the authority to refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation, and report.

• Phytoplankton, also known as microalgae, are similar to terrestrial plants in that they contain chlorophyll and require sunlight in order to live and grow. Most phytoplankton are buoyant and float in the upper part of the ocean, where sunlight penetrates the water.
  • Phytoplankton also require inorganic nutrients such as nitrates, phosphates, and sulfur which they convert into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
• The two main classes of phytoplankton are dinoflagellates and diatoms. Dinoflagellates use a whip-like tail, or flagella, to move through the water and their bodies are covered with complex shells. Diatoms also have shells, but they are made of a different substance and their structure is rigid and made of interlocking parts.
  • Diatoms do not rely on flagella to move through the water and instead rely on ocean currents to travel through the water.
• Coccolithophores are also a group of phytoplankton that live in large numbers throughout the upper layers of the ocean. Coccolithophores surround themselves with a microscopic plating made of limestone (calcite).
• Crustaceans include all the animals of the phylum Arthropoda. Crustaceans are a very diverse group of invertebrate animals that includes active animals such as crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, copepods, amphipods, and more sessile creatures like barnacles. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of Animal Kingdom.
• Foraminifera represents an ancient species of zooplankton that live mostly in sediment but also in the water column. They belong to the kingdom Protista.
• Phytoplankton varies seasonally in amount, increasing in spring and fall with favourable light, temperature, and minerals.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Recently, chief of the Indian Army launched an online learning platform for the Indian Army nicknamed as “Eklavya”.

• It has been developed under the aegis of Headquarters Army Training Command with Army War College as the sponsor agency.
• The platform has been developed by the “Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics” (BISAG-N), Gandhinagar, along with support from Directorate General of Information Systems.
• This platform has been hosted on the Army Data Network and features a scalable architecture. This enables Headquarters Army Training Command to seamlessly integrate any number of training establishments of the Indian Army, each capable of hosting an extensive range of courses.
• This initiative aligns with the Indian Army propelling itself into the “Decade of Transformation” as envisioned by the COAS and also with Indian Army’s theme for 2024 as the “Year of Technology Absorption.”
• Student officers are permitted to register for multiple courses simultaneously.
• There are three categories of courses hosted
• ‘Pre-Course Preparatory Capsules’: It has study material for all offline physical courses being conducted at various Category ‘A’ training establishments. The aim is to shift the “basics” to the online courses so that physical courses have more and more contemporary content with a focus on the “application part”.
• Appointment or specific assignment-related courses: The courses in this category will also enable the army officers to get domain specialisation in the field of their choice, which will further aid their employment planning.
• Professonal Development Suite: To include courses on Strategy, Operational Art, Leadership, Organisational Behaviour, Finance, Art of Reading, Power Writing, Emerging Technology etc.
• The Eklavya also has the functionality of a searchable “Knowledge Highway”, wherein various journals, research papers and articles etc are uploaded under a single window.
• The platform will go a long way in encouraging continuous professional military education in the officers, decongest and enrich the existing physical course, preparing officers for specialist appointments and encouraging domain specialisation.

Hence all statements are correct.

• Article 74 of the Indian constitution provides for a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions: There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
• The Supreme Court has clarified the implications of Art. 74(2) in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India. No court is concerned with what advice was tendered by the Minister to the President. The court is only concerned with the order's validity and not with what happened in the inner councils of the President and the Minister.
• An order cannot be challenged on the ground that it is not in accordance with the advice tendered by the Minister or that it is based on no advice. Article 74 was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to the effect that the president shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with the advice rendered by the council of ministers.
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 further added a provision to this article to the effect that the president may require the council of ministers to reconsider such advice and the president shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. So, Option (a) is correct. 

Fort William College was established by the Governor General of Bengal, Lord Wellesley in 1800. Its object was to effect moral and intellectual development in newly recruited European civil servants. Wellesley envisioned ruling India and British India efficiently with the help of an enlightened and trained bureaucracy. Here, the civil servant of the company was trained in the local languages and cultures of India. During its short history, the institution had some major achievements: The college staff became well known in the East and the West as interpreters of the Oriental civilization. Their works and ideas attracted the attention of European Orientalists. The most outstanding students from this institution became well-renowned orientalists within the first decade of the establishment of the college. The teachers and alumni of the college have been instrumental in reforming and modernizing almost all the languages of India, including Bengali. It was with the encouragement and cooperation of the college that the technology of printing and publishing vernacular books began. The Court of Directors disapproved of this college as it negatively influenced their patronage in the recruitment of civil servants to the company. The East India College at Haileybury in England was established in 1806 to train civil servants of the company in Britain. So, Statement 1 is correct.

In the colonial administrative structure, the Indians were accommodated, if at all, only in subordinate positions, known as the Uncovenanted Civil Service. After 1813, under Lord Hastings, a gradual process of Indianization of the subordinate services began, mainly in the Judiciary. But it was Lord William Bentinck who advocated the inclusion of Indians by removing the humiliating distinction between Europeans and Indians public service and for orienting administration to local needs. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Section 87 of the Charter Act of 1833 declared that “No Indian subject of the Company in India shall by reason only of his religion, place of birth, color or any of them, be disabled from holding any place, office or employment under the Company.” This provision became very important as it was a bold step to remove disqualifications. The importance of this provision lies in the fact that it became the sheet anchor of political agitation in India towards the end of the 19th century. Almost all the political activities in the earlier years of the national awakening turned on this clause, which came in very handy when demands were being made for giving equal opportunities in administration. So, Statement 3 is correct.

The Charter Act of 1833 introduced competition for the recruitment of civil servants, but it was limited competition among the candidates nominated by the directors. It was the Charter Act of 1853 that introduced the principle of open competition. Civil servants after the passage of this Act were to be recruited through an examination open to all “natural born subjects of Her Majesty.” This dissolved the company’s patronage over civil servants as the Hailey bury College was abolished in 1858, and the Civil Service Commission recruited civil servants through an examination held annually in England. So, Statement 4 is correct. 

Statement 1: It is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the seas.
This is correct. Swell waves are long, smooth waves that have traveled away from their area of origin.

Statement 2: They occur due to the local winds.
This is incorrect. Swell waves are not generated by local winds; they are formed by distant winds and travel long distances.

Statement 3: These waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind.
This is correct. Since they originate far away, they may move independently of the local wind direction.

Statement 4: Their wavelengths always exceed more than 150 m.
This is incorrect. While swell waves have long wavelengths, they do not always exceed 150 m.

Final answer: Only two statements are correct.

• Expert group constituted by the Planning Commission and, chaired by Suresh Tendulkar, was constituted to review methodology for poverty estimation and to address the following shortcomings of the previous methods:
  • Obsolete Consumption Pattern: Consumption patterns were linked to the 1973-74 poverty line baskets (PLBs) of goods and services, whereas there were significant changes in the consumption patterns of the poor since that time, which were not reflected in the poverty estimates.
  • Inflation Adjustment: There were issues with the adjustment of prices for inflation, both spatially (across regions) and temporally (across time).
  • Health and Education Expenditure: Earlier poverty lines assumed that health and education would be provided by the state and formulated poverty lines accordingly.
• Recommendations:
  • Shift from Calorie Consumption based Poverty Estimation: It based its calculations on the consumption of the items like cereal, pulses, milk, edible oil, non-vegetarian items, vegetables, fresh fruits, dry fruits, sugar, salt & spices, other food, intoxicants, fuel, clothing, footwear, education, medical (non-institutional and institutional), entertainment, personal & toilet goods. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Uniform Poverty line Basket: Unlike Alagh committee (which relied on separate PLB for rural and urban areas), Tendulkar Committee computed new poverty lines for rural and urban areas of each state based on the uniform poverty line basket and found that all India poverty line (2004-05) was:
    • 446.68 per capita per month in rural areas
    • ₹578.80 per capita per month in urban areas. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Private Expenditure: Incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Price Adjustment Procedure: The Committee also recommended a new method of updating poverty lines, adjusting for changes in prices and patterns of consumption (to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment), using the consumption basket of people close to the poverty line. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Mixed Reference Period: The Committee recommended using Mixed Reference Period based estimates, as opposed to Uniform Reference Period based estimates that were used in earlier methods for estimating poverty.
• Tendulkar committee computed poverty lines for 2004-05 at a level that was equivalent, in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms to Rs 33 per day.
  • Purchasing Power Parity: The PPP model refers to a method used to work out the money that would be needed to purchase the same goods and services in two countries.

a. Structural unemployment comes through a technological change in the structure of the economy in which labour markets operate. 

b. Frictional unemployment occurs as a result of people voluntarily changing jobs within an economy. 

c. Cyclical unemployment exists when individuals lose their jobs as a result of a downturn in aggregate demand. 

Hence correct option is a-3, b-2, c-1.

The Union Finance Minister introduced the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 which proposes to enable the transfer of unclaimed dividends, shares, and interest or redemption of bonds to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF).

• It has been established under Section 205C of the Companies Act, 1956 by way of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 1999.
• The following amounts that remained unpaid and unclaimed for a period of seven years from the date they became due for payment are credited to the Fund:
• Amounts in the unpaid dividend accounts of the companies
• The application money received by companies for allotment of any securities and due for refund
• Matured deposits with companies
• Matured debentures with companies
• Grants and donations are given to the fund by the Central Government, State Governments, companies or any other institutions for the purposes of the Fund
• The interest or other income received out of the investments made from the fund
• This fund is managed by the Investor Education Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)
• IEPFA was established in 2016 under the Companies Act, of 2013.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution deals with the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and the Scheduled Tribes in all states, OTHER THAN THE STATES OF Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

The Tribes Advisory Council: According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TACs) shall be established in each state having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any state having Scheduled Tribes, but not Scheduled Areas therein. The TAC shall consist of not more than 20 members of whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the State Legislative Assembly, provided that if the number of the representatives of the STs in the State Assembly is less than the number of the seats in the TAC to be filled by such representatives, the remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes. The Powers of the Governor under the Fifth Schedule: The Fifth Schedule finds reference in Article 244 of the Constitution, which deals with the administration of the Scheduled Areas and the Tribal Areas.

Article 244: The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The purpose of Para 5 of Schedule V is to establish an egalitarian society and to ensure socio-economic empowerment of the Scheduled Tribes. Para 5 of Schedule V - The Governor, by public notification, can direct the following: That any particular Act of the Parliament or of the State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part of the Scheduled Area in the State; or That any particular Act of the Parliament or of the State Legislature shall apply to a Scheduled Area or any part of the Scheduled Area in the State and the Governor can specify any modification or exception regarding implementation of any law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Governor is empowered to issue notification giving it retrospective effect. 

• The Mauryan Empire, which formed around 321 B.C.E. and ended in 185 B.C.E., was the first pan- Indian empire, an empire that covered most of the Indian region. The Maurya organized a very elaborate system of administration.
• Dhammamahatras: Dhammamahatras were a group of officials appointed by Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire to propagate his teachings on dharma and to ensure their implementation throughout the empire. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Rajukas: Rajukas was a group of officials in the Mauryan Empire who were responsible for ensuring the proper administration of justice and maintaining law and order in the empire. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Shulkadhyakshas: Shulkadhyakshas were officers in charge of Royal income. The Shulkadhyakshas were appointed by the Emperor and were responsible for supervising the collection of various taxes, such as land tax, customs duty, tolls, and other levies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Agra Fort, also called Red Fort, large 16th-century fortress of red sandstone located on the Yamuna River in the historic city of Agra, west-central Uttar Pradesh, north-central India. It was established by the Mughal emperor Akbar and, in its capacity as both a military base and a royal residence, served as the seat of government when the Mughal capital was in Agra. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The walls of the roughly crescent-shaped structure have a circumference of about 1.5 miles (2.5 km), rise 70 feet (21 meters) high, and are surrounded by a moat. There are two access points in the walls: the Amar Singh Gate facing south (now the only means in or out of the fort complex) and the Delhi Gate facing west, the original entrance, which is richly decorated with intricate marble inlays. Many structures within the walls were added later by subsequent Mughal emperors, notably Shah Jahān and Jahāngīr. The complex of buildings—reminiscent of Persian- and Timurid-style architectural features—forms a city within a city.
• The structure, a contemporary of Humāyūn’s Tomb in Delhi, reflects the architectural grandeur of the Mughal reign in India.
• The Agra fort complex was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Hoysala era (1026 CE – 1343 CE) was marked by illustrious achievements in art, architecture, and culture. The nucleus of this activity lay in the present-day Hassan district of Karnataka, India. The most remarkable accomplishment of this era lies, undoubtedly, in the field of architecture. The intention of surpassing the Western Chalukyan Empire (973 CE – 1189 CE) in its own sphere provided further impetus for excelling in the field of architecture.
• Depending on the number of shrines (and hence number of towers), the temples classify as ekakuta (one), dvikuta (two), trikuta (three), chatushkuta (four) and panchakuta (five). Most Hoysala temples belong to the ekakuta, dvikuta or trikuta classifications. Sometimes a trikuta may have less than three towers as only the central shrine has a tower. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to the Tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This Part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A, dealing with the Administrative Tribunals; and Article 323 B, dealing with the Tribunals for other matters. Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following 3 aspects:

1. While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of the Tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of the Tribunals for certain other matters.

2. While the Tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by the Parliament, the Tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by the Parliament and the State Legislatures, with respect to the matters falling within their legislative competence.

3. Under Article 323 A, only one Tribunal for the Centre and one for each state, or two or more states may be established. There is no question of hierarchy of the Tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of the Tribunals may be created.

• Jain Tirthankaras: In Jainism, Tirthankaras are called the Jina or the conquerors of all instincts. There are 24 Tirthankaras.
  • The term, ‘Tirthankara’ is a combination of ‘Teertha and ‘Samsara’. Teertha is a pilgrimage site and samsara is the worldly life. The one who has conquered the samsara and understood the true nature of the self to attain Kevala Jnana is a Tirthankara.
  • Definition of a Tirthankar: A Tirthankar is referred to as ‘teaching god’ or ‘Ford Maker’ in Jainism.
  • The names of 24 Tirthankaras are inspired by the dreams their respective mothers had before their birth or related circumstances surrounding their births.
  • Kalpasutra is a religious text of Jains that mentions the life histories of 24 Tirthankaras. (It is apparently compiled by Digambara sect Jain Muni Bhadrabahu 150 years after Mahavir’s Nirvana.)
    • Kalpasutra mentions the first Tirthankara to be Rishabhnath.
    • Jain Tirthankara Symbol
    • Adinatha/Rishabnatha Ox/Bull
    • Parshvanatha Snake/Serpent
    • Mahavira Lion
    • Neminath Conch
• Hence only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

• Currency Swap Agreement:
  • The currency swap agreement between the two countries is entered between the Central Banks of the two countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • One country exchanges its national currency for that of another or even a third one. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Examples: India and Japan signed a currency swap agreement in 2018 worth $ 75 billion. India can/will get Yen(or dollars) from Japan worth a max of $ 75 billion and Japan will get equivalent Indian Rupees as per the market exchange rate at the time of transaction.
  • In July 2020, India and Sri Lanka signed a currency swap agreement worth $ 400 million in which India will give dollars to SL and in return India will get a ‘Sri Lankan Rupee’.

• The constitution specifies the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the state and central governments. The Seventh Schedule is the most important part of the constitution in this regard. It specifies the role and responsibilities into three lists namely,
• nion List, State List and Concurrent List. The three lists have been changed since they first came into being; the Union list contained 97 subjects and now is at 100 subjects, the state list contained 66 subjects but is now at 61 subjects, and concurrent list contained 47 subjects but now has 52 subjects on the concurrent list.
• The Indian Constitution specifies subjects like, criminal law, criminal procedure, preventive detention, forests, Education, Marriage and divorce, protection of wild animals and birds, Bankruptcy and insolvency, trade unions, industrial and labour disputes, population control and family planning etc., to the Concurrent list. Census comes under union list, and Betting and gambling comes under State list.

So, Option (b) is correct.

• The Red Sanders, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species, with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.
• The species is naturally found in Andhra Pradesh and grows upto a height of 10 to 15 metres. Within Andhra Pradesh, the species is known from the Palakonda and the Seshachalam Hills.
• The species is cultivated within Sri Lanka, China, around its wild range states and also in Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and West Bengal within India.
• It is used to make furniture and handicrafts, while the red dye obtained from the wood is used as a colouring agent in textiles and medicines.
• Under the Foreign Trade Policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is not allowed.
• It is listed under Schedule IV of India's Wildlife (Protection) Act (1972).
• It is listed as Endangered as per the IUCN Red List.

During the 16th century, the Portuguese introduced the Gothic style of architecture in India. Pointed towers and arches are the unique features of this style. Examples are the St. Francis Church in Kochi and the Bom Jesus Church in Goa Another style that was extensively used was the neo-Gothic, characterized by high-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decoration. While the Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches, built in northern Europe during the medieval period, the neo-Gothic or new Gothic style was revived in the mid- 19th century in England. This was the time when the colonial government in Bombay was building its infrastructure and this style was adapted for Bombay. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Coffee was introduced in India during the late 17th century not by the Portuguese but by a Sufi saint called Baba Budan. The story goes that an Indian pilgrim to Mecca known as Baba Budan smuggled seven beans back to India from Yemen in 1670 and planted them in the Chandragiri hills of Karnataka. The Dutch, who had colonies in India during the 17th century helped spread the cultivation of coffee. But it was with the arrival of the British Raj in the mid-19th century that commercial coffee cultivation flourished. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The history of printing press in India dates back to the 16th century, when Portuguese traders brought the technology to Goa. The first printing press of India was set up in 1556 at St. Paul’s College, Goa. In a letter to St. Ignatius of Loyola, dated 30 April 1556, Father Gasper Caleza spoke of a ship carrying a printing press to sail from Portugal to Abyssinia (current-day Ethiopia) to promote missionary work in Abyssinia. Due to some circumstances, this printing press was prohibited from leaving India. As a result, printing operations began in Goa in 1556, through Joao De Bustamante. Joao Gonsalves is credited with preparing the first printing of the Indian Script-Tamil. He was another Spaniard who played an important role in the growth of printing in India. The first printed Indian language was Tamil: Doctrina Chrstam, Tampiran Vanakkam in 1558 with paper imported from China, a 1539 Portuguese Catechism translation (the first Tamil book in Romanized Tamil script was printed in Lisbon in 1554.) So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Between 1755 and 1845, Serampore was under Danish rule, when it was known as Frederiksnagore after King Frederik V of Denmark. According to some reports, the Danes had arrived in Bengal much earlier, sometime in 1698. But it was in 1755 that they carved out a settlement armed with a royal order from Nawab of Bengal, Alivardi Khan, who ruled from Murshidabad, granting them free trading rights. What began as a factory with a mud fence and a straw roof under the Danish East India Company gradually developed into a well-planned town under Governor Colonel Ole Bie, after Serampore came under the Danish Crown in 1777. Start with the Serampore College, which was set up by the English Baptist missionaries in 1818. These missionaries denied permission to settle down in Bengal ruled by the then British government were welcomed to Serampore by the Danish government. Missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward were keen to introduce Christianity among the masses but also believed in the spread of education and natural sciences. Even before the college was founded, Carey not only began translating the Bible but also wrote grammar books and dictionaries in several Indian languages. They published newspapers and periodicals. A printing press was also set up to facilitate publication. So, Statement 4 is correct. 

• The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was set up in 2016, under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, for administering the Investor Education and Protection Fund.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority was established under the provisions of section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The IEPFA Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the Investor Education Protection Fund (IEPF), making refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors, promoting awareness among investors, and protecting the interests of the investors.
• Investor Education and Protection Fund is utilized for
  • The refund in respect of unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, matured debentures, the application money due for refund and interest thereon
  • Promotion of investors’ education, awareness and protection
  • Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants for shares or debentures, shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who have suffered losses due to wrong actions by any person, in accordance with the orders made by the Court which had ordered disgorgement