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UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Test  >   Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Mock Test Series  >  UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 Free Online


Full Mock Test & Solutions: UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 (100 Questions)

You can boost your UPSC 2026 exam preparation with this UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of UPSC 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 1
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Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission 

  1. It recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the states
  2. It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees

Choose the incorrect statements:

Detailed Solution: Question 1

  1. "It recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the states."
    This statement is correct. The Finance Commission is responsible for recommending the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States as per Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.

  2. "It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees."
    This statement is incorrect. The Finance Commission does not deal with the salary of government employees. Salary recommendations are generally made by the Pay Commission, not the Finance Commission.

The incorrect statement is statement 2, so the correct option is Option C

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 2
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With reference to the Smuggling and Counterfeiting Activities, consider the following statements:

1. The Golden Crescent region of the world consists of countries - Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Iraq.

2. The Golden Triangle part of the world includes the countries; Myanmar, Laos, Thailand.

3. FICCI CASCADE is an initiative by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI).

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

  • Golden Crescent and Golden Triangle : India’s location near major drug-producing regions, including the Golden Triangle (Myanmar, Laos, and Thailand) and the Golden Crescent (Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Iran) has been associated with activities that may involve the transportation and distribution of controlled substances. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
  • FICCI CASCADE (Committee Against Smuggling and Counterfeiting Activities Destroying Economy), is an initiative by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI).Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • It was established on 18th January, 2011 in order to address the pressing issue of illicit trade in counterfeits, pass-offs, and smuggled goods in India and globally.

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UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 3
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Which of the following are examples of capital expenditures by businesses?

1. Purchase of machines

2. Repair work on buildings

3. Acquiring a license for new technology

4. Investing in valuables like gold

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Capital expenditures (CapEx) are funds used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment.

CapEx is often used to undertake new projects or investments by a company. Making capital expenditures on fixed assets can include purchasing a piece of equipment or building a new factory.

Companies make capital expenditure type of financial outlay to increase the scope of their operations or add some future economic benefit to the operation.

The cost of obtaining a license for new technology is a capital expenditure because it is a long-term investment. Capital expenditure or CapEx means cash a business spends to purchase or invest in new assets crucial to the company's operations or creation of assets.

Gold is a very useful investment during periods of instability and high inflation. Thus, it is considered a part of capital expenditures. Repairing work in buildings is not necessarily a part of capital expenditures.

So, Option (b) is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 4
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Consider the following statements regarding Namami Gange Programme:

1. One of the long-term visions of Namami Gange is to restore viable populations of all endemic and endangered biodiversity of the river.

2. It is supported by the World Bank and Ramsar Convention.

3. It is one of the World Restoration Flagships programmes recognized by the UN aimed at reviving the natural world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

  • The National Mission for Clean Ganga initiative, also called as Namami Gange initiative has been recognised by the United Nations (UN) as one of the Top 10 World Restoration Flagships programmes aimed at reviving the natural world. The recognition of Namami Gange as one of the top-10 ecosystem restoration initiatives in the world bears testimony to the concerted efforts being made by the National Mission for Clean Ganga, Government of India for the restoration of the riverine ecosystem. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • ‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 with a budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga. It is coordinated by the Government of India and supported by the World Bank, the Japan International Cooperation Agency and the German Development Agency. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • One of NMCG’s long-term visions for Ganga rejuvenation is to restore viable populations of all endemic and endangered biodiversity of the river so that they occupy their full historical range and fulfil their role in maintaining the integrity of the Ganga river ecosystems. To address this, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute (CIFRI), Kolkata & Uttar Pradesh State Forest Department has been awarded projects to develop science-based aquatic species restoration plan for the Ganga River by involving multiple stakeholders along with conservation & restoration of aquatic biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 5
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Consider the following statements about the Contempt of Court

  1. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, defines and outlines procedures for dealing with contempt of court.
  2. Contempt of Court can be only in criminal matters.

Choose the incorrect statements:

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Statement 1: Correct
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 is an important law in India that defines and sets the procedures for handling contempt of court cases. It specifies what actions can be considered contempt, such as:

  • Civil Contempt: Disobeying a court order or judgment.
  • Criminal Contempt: Scandalizing the court, lowering its authority, or interfering with the administration of justice.

The Act gives the Supreme Court and High Courts the authority to punish those found guilty of contempt to protect the dignity and authority of the judiciary and maintain the justice system's smooth functioning.

Statement 2: Incorrect
The 1971 Act indeed outlines the types of contempt, including:

  • Civil Contempt: Disobeying a court order or judgment.
  • Criminal Contempt: Scandalizing or lowering the authority of the court or obstructing the administration of justice.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is incorrect; Option B is the correct choice.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 6
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Business Ready (B-Ready) Project which is recently seen in news is an initiative of

Detailed Solution: Question 6

  • Recent Context: The World Bank Group is implementing a new corporate flagship, B-READY, to measure the business and investment climates in 180 economies worldwide annually.
  • Business Ready (B-Ready) Project
    • Objective: It assess the business and investment climate in up to 180 economies in a transparent and fair way 
    • Criteria: Business Entry, Business Location, Utility Services, Labor, Financial Services, International Trade, Taxation, Dispute Resolution, Market Competition, and Business Insolvency
    • Approach: Reflects a more balanced and transparent approach towards evaluating a country’s business and investment climate than earlier approach.
    • Initially it Covers 54 economies in Asia, Latin America, Europe, the Middle East and Sub-Saharan Africa, in the first year and expected to scale up to 180 economies by 2025-26.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 7
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With reference to Aquamation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It refers to an alternative method of cremation.
2. It leaves no traces of DNA after the process.
3. It has an overall lower carbon footprint.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 7

  • Statement 1 is correct: Aquamation, or alkaline hydrolysis, is a process in which the body of the deceased is immersed for a few hours in a mixture of water and a strong alkali in a pressurized metal cylinder and heated to around 150 degree centigrade. The process leaves behind bone fragments and a neutral liquid called effluent. The CANA website states, “The decomposition that occurs in alkaline hydrolysis is the same as that which occurs during burial, just sped up dramatically by the chemicals. The effluent is sterile, and contains salts, sugars, amino acids and peptides.
  • Statement 2 is correct: There is no tissue and no DNA left after the process completes. This effluent is discharged with all other wastewater, and is a welcome addition to the water systems.” Statement 3 is correct: The process is a greener alternative as it uses significantly less fuel and has an overall lower carbon footprint than cremation.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 8
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Which of the following states was most affected by Cyclone Fengal?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

  • Cyclone Fengal was a powerful cyclonic storm that struck the Tamil Nadu coast in December 2024.
  • It caused intense rainfall across various coastal districts of Tamil Nadu and Puducherry, resulting in significant flooding and widespread disruption.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 9
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Consider the following statements:

1. Humayun invited Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad to establish a studio in his court and carry out royal paintings.

2. The first major project undertaken during Humayun’s regime was that of illustrating the Hamza Nama.

3. Paintings under Akbar’s reign were a fusion of Persian and Indian styles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

  • Babur, the founder of Mughal rule in India (1526), ruled for only four years. He was not able to contribute anything to the growth of painting. His successor, Humayun, was mostly engaged in containing his rivals until he was forced out of India by Sher Shah in 1540. It was, however, during his refuge at the court of Shah Tahmasp of Persia that Humayun acquired a love for the art of painting.
  • Humayun was so influenced by the art practiced there that he commissioned Mir Sayyid Ali and Khwaja Abdus Samad, two Persian masters, to illustrate manuscripts for him. These two painters joined Humayun’s entourage on his triumphant return to India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Akbar gave liberal patronage to the growth of fine arts during his rule. The first major project undertaken during Akbar’s regime was that of illustrating the Hamza Nama. It began in 1562 for which several artists were employed at the court. The place where the painters worked was known as Tasvir Khana. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Painting under Akbar’s reign distinguishes itself as a tradition from Persian painting as well as from Indian styles, particularly by the presence of historical subject matter. It became recognizable within a span of fifteen years since the setting up of royal atelier under Akbar. By about 1590, it had acquired a distinctive form, marked by:
    • naturalism and rhythm,
    • clothing objects of daily use assuming Indian forms,
    • picture space having subsidiary scenes set in the background,
    • extraordinary vigor of action and violent movement, and
    • luxuriant depiction of foliage and brilliant blossoms.
    • It should be emphasized here that the identity of the Mughal paintings under Akbar was as much made of an original style as a fusion of the Persian and Indian traditions. The depiction of action and movement is not to be found in either the pre-Mughal art of India or the art of Persia. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The two most commonly used themes were: daily events of the court, and portraits of leading personalities.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 10
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Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana?

1. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers to ensure old-age protection.

2. It guarantees a minimum assured pension of Rs 5,000 per month to the subscriber after attaining the age of 60 years.

3. The spouse is entitled to the same amount of pension as a family pension after the subscriber's death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

  • Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme meant for the old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW) who are mostly engaged as rickshaw pullers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washermen, home-based workers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio-visual workers, or in similar other occupations and whose monthly income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less and belong to the entry age group of 18–40 years are eligible for the scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • They should not be covered under the New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme, or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). Further, he/she should not be an income tax payer. There are an estimated 42 crore such unorganised workers in the country. Following are the salient features of PM-SYM:
  • Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the PM-SYM shall receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Family Pension: During the receipt of the pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as a family pension. Family pension is applicable only to the spouse. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and died due to any cause (before the age of 60), his/her spouse will be entitled to join and continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or exit the scheme as per provisions of exit and withdrawal.
  • Contribution by the Subscriber: The subscriber’s contributions to PM-SYM shall be made through an 'auto-debit' facility from his/her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account. The subscriber is required to contribute the prescribed contribution amount from the age of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years.
  • Matching contribution by the Central Government: The subscriber needs to contribute in the range of Rs. 55 - Rs. 200, depending on the entry age-specific monthly contribution. An equal amount would then be contributed by the Central Government.
  • Fund Management: PM-SYM will be a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and and Community Service Centers (CSCs). LIC will be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for pension pay out. The amount collected under the PM-SYM pension scheme shall be invested as per the investment pattern specified by the Government of India.
  • Default of Contributions: If a subscriber has not paid the contribution continuously, he/she will be allowed to regularise his contribution by paying the entire outstanding dues, along with penalty charges, if any, decided by the Government.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 11
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With reference to the Government of India Act 1919, consider the following statements:
1. It introduced bicameralism and direct elections for the first time in the country.
2. It granted the franchise to the people of India on the basis of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

  1. Statement 1: Correct
    i) The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced bicameralism at the central level with the establishment of two houses: the Council of State and the Legislative Assembly.
    ii) It also introduced direct elections in India for the first time, though the electorate was limited based on property, education, and tax qualifications.

  2. Statement 2: Incorrect
    i)     The Act did not grant the franchise (right to vote) based on age. Instead, voting rights were restricted based on property ownership, tax payment, and education qualifications. This meant only a small fraction of the population was eligible to vote.

Since Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 12
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Consider the following statements regarding the ASEAN Regional Plan of Action on Adaptation to Drought (ARPA-AD) 2021- 2025:

1. It was adopted at the 26 th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) at Glasgow.

2. It was developed with the support of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

  • The ASEAN Regional Plan of Action on Adaptation to Drought (ARPA-AD) 2021-2025 is guided by the ASEAN Declaration on the Strengthening of Adaptation to Drought, which was adopted at the 37th ASEAN Summit on 12 November 2020, and informed by the assessment on the drought situation and its implications in each ASEAN Member State in the 1st and 2nd edition of the study on Ready for the Dry Years: Building Resilience to Drought in South-East Asia. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The ARPA-AD provides a comprehensive regional plan of action to achieve the sustainable management of drought through comprehensively preventing and mitigating its impact on the livelihood of people, natural resources, ecosystem, agriculture, energy, and socio-economic development. It consists of nine actions and 26 sub-actions which are structured based on the drought management cycle, coordination, communication, partnership and capacity building at the regional and national level. The document was developed with the support of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP). Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 13
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With regard to which of the following functions of the government, can the writ of mandamus be issued?

1. Judicial

2. Legislative

3. Administrative

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

  • Mandamus: Writ of Mandamus means ―We Command‖ in Latin. This writ is issued for the correct performance of mandatory and purely ministerial duties and is issued by a superior court to a lower court or government officer. Mandamus can be issued when the Government denies to itself a jurisdiction which it undoubtedly has under the law, or where an authority vested with a power improperly refuses to exercise it. Mandamus can be issued to any kind of authority in respect of any type of function – administrative, legislative, quasi-judicial, and judicial. Mandamus is used to enforce the performance of public duties by public authorities. Mandamus is not issued when the Government is under no duty under the law. When an authority fails in its legal duty to implement an order of a tribunal, a mandamus can be issued directing the authority to do so.
  • Hence all the options are correct. Thus, when the appellate transport tribunal accepted the applications of the petitioner for grant of permits, mandamus was issued to the concerned authority to issue the permits to the petitioner in terms of the tribunal order. Mandamus is issued to enforce a mandatory duty which may not necessarily be a statutory duty.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 14
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The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) recognizes which of the following rights?

1. It recognizes all human beings are born free and are equal in dignity and rights.

2. It ensures that everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.

3. It prohibits slavery in all forms, including slave trade.

4. It rejects the idea of arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.

5. Doing duties for the community ensures free and full development of one’s personality.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights:

  • Article 1 - All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.
  • Article 2 - Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty.
  • Article 3 - Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
  • Article 4 - No one shall be held in slavery or servitude; slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms.
  • Article 5 - No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
  • Article 6 - Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law.
  • Article 7 - All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination.
  • Article 8 - Everyone has the right to an effective remedy by the competent national tribunals for acts violating the Fundamental Rights granted to him by the Constitution or by law.
  • Article 9 - No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.
  • Article 10 - Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him.
  • Article 29 - Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 15
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Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Mt. Etna is known as the ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’.

2. Mt. Krakatau is a volcanic island in the Sunda Straits.

3. Mt. Pelee is located in the West Indies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 15

  • Mt. Stromboli (Italy) is known as the ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’.
  • Mt. Krakatau is a volcanic island in the Sunda Straits, midway between Java and Sumatra.
  • Mt. Etna is located in the Sicily Island. Mt. Pelee is located in the West Indies.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 16
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With reference to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a survey conducted by the National Statistical Organisation (NSO) under the NITI Aayog.

2. It was launched in April 2017 by NSO.

3. Its objective is to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Periodic Labour Force Survey(PLFS):

  • About: It is a survey conducted by the NSO under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to measure the employment and unemployment situation in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The NSO launched the PLFS in April 2017. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Objective of PLFS: To estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS). To estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually. Hence, statement 3 is correct

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 17
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With reference to the Removal of the President, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution lays down a detailed procedure for the impeachment of the President.
2. The resolution to impeach the President can be moved in either House of Parliament.
3. He can only be impeached ‘for  violation of the Constitution’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Option (d) is correct:

  • The President can only be removed from office through a process called impeachment. The Constitution lays down a detailed procedure for the impeachment of the President. He can only be impeached ‘for violation of the Constitution’. The following procedure is intentionally kept very difficult so that no President should be removed on flimsy ground. The resolution to impeach the President can be moved in either House of Parliament. Such a resolution can be moved only after a notice has been given by at least one-fourth of the total number of members of the House.
  • Such a resolution charging the President for violation of the Constitution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-third of the total membership of that House before it goes to the other House for investigation. The charges levelled against the President are investigated by the second House.
  • President has the right to be heard or defended when the charges against him are being investigated. The President may defend himself in person or through his counsel. If the charges are accepted by a two-third majority of the total membership of the second House, the impeachment succeeds.
  • The President thus stands removed from the office from the date on which the resolution is passed. This procedure of impeachment is even more difficult than the one adopted in America where only simple majority is required in the House of Representatives to initiate the proceedings.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 18
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With reference to the Khilafat and Non- Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

1. This Movement witnessed unprecedented participation of the peasants and the workers.

2. Temperance, or a drive against liquor consumption, formed a part of the formal Non-Cooperation Programme.

3. The Movement was called off due to the barbaric incident of Jallianwala Bagh.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

  • There were other factors that aroused ‘popular’ Muslim sentiments and outraged the workers, the labourers and the peasants, the Hindus and the Muslims, in different parts of India. The groundswell of 1919–20 found expression in a series of strikes in Bombay, Kanpur, Jamalpur, Madras, Ahmedabad, Jamshedpur and Bengal, that involved the workers in the woollen mills, railways, navigation companies, iron and steel factories and jute mills, among others. The peasants in the Mewar region in Rajasthan, Darbhanga region in Bihar and Awadh region in the United Provinces engaged in constant frictions with the landlords and their Amlas (deputies), and in small acts of subterfuge, where the leaders were often influenced by Gandhi’s Satyagrahas.
  • In this context, Gandhi’s promise of Swaraj within a year proved to be cataclysmic. It fired a wide range of hopes and aspirations. The Non- Cooperation and Khilafat resolutions of the Congress spurred a movement on an unprecedented scale, a movement that went far beyond the Congress programme and initiative. For the first time, the Congress succeeded in drawing in the regions and the groups that had never formed part of earlier Congress initiatives.
  • The peasants were active participants, not only in Bihar, but also in Rajasthan, Sind, Gujarat, Assam and Maharashtra, and the Adivasis organized ‘Forest Satyagrahas’ in the Bengal and Andhra deltas, while Madras, Bengal and Assam also witnessed labour unrest. Indeed, an important aspect of Non- Cooperation was the way it got conflated with the movements for social reform associated with Gandhi. Temperance, or a drive against liquor consumption, never formed a part of the Non-Cooperation Programme, but it became a major rallying point for the ‘masses’ – Adivasi and low-caste peasants and agricultural labourers – in large parts of India.
  • Anti-liquor campaigns produced a significant fall in the revenue earned from liquor excise in Bihar, Orissa, south Gujarat, Madras and Punjab, where the targets were often Indian liquor dealers. The move to remove untouchability, on the other hand, never acquired great significance, even though it was a part of the formal programme. This clause was inserted in the 1920 resolution by Gandhi, who made an emotional appeal to ‘rid Hinduism of the reproach of untouchability’. Apart from the fact that the nationalist leaders did not take up the matter seriously, Gandhi’s own approach to and stance on the issue diverged widely from the Dalit leaders and caused serious disharmony with the Dalits in the 1930s.
  • The violent incident of Chauri Chaura, on 5th February, 1922, led to the calling off of the Non Cooperation Movement. Gandhi remained firm in his stance that the Movement had to be called off, because of the absence of an environment of non-violence and stressed the need for constructive programme prior to any further political action in the Bardoli resolution. He was perhaps being true to his ideal of patience that helped sediment values over time, the younger members of the Congress, however, were sorely disappointed. The Movement was suspended at its peak, without attaining any of its objectives. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 19
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Consider the following statements about taxation :

1. A proportional taxation system is meaningful when there is minimal income inequality among the tax base.

2. A progressive taxation system can be beneficial to the low-income segment when there is significant income inequality among the tax base.

3. Taxes that are applied to the value of transactions are considered proportional taxes, as high and low-income segments pay the same amount of tax.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

  • A proportional tax is an income tax system that levies the same percentage tax to everyone regardless of income. For example, if the tax rate is 10%, someone who earns $50,000 would pay $5,000 in taxes, while someone who earns $100,000 would pay $10,000 in taxes. However, if there is significant income inequality among the tax base, a proportional taxation system may be unfair. In this case, only a progressive taxation system may be more appropriate.
  • A progressive taxation system means that people with higher incomes pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes. For example, someone who earns $50,000 might pay a tax rate of 10%, while someone who earns $100,000 might pay a tax rate of 15%. So it can be considered that a proportional taxation system will be meaningful when there is minimal income inequality among the tax base. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • A progressive tax involves a tax rate that increases as taxable income increases. It imposes a lower tax rate on low-income earners and a higher tax rate on those with a higher income. This is usually achieved by creating tax brackets that group taxpayers by income range. It is an effective tool to reduce inequality as lower income groups are required to pay less tax and vice-versa.
  • Thus the progressive taxation system can be beneficial to the low-income segment when there is significant income inequality among the tax base. Taxes that are applied on the value of transactions are considered as progressive tax, not proportional tax.
  • So, Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is not correct. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 20
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With reference to the Hoysala dynasty, consider the following statements :

1. Belur, situated on the banks of river Yagachi, was the capital of this kingdom during the early stage.

2. During Alauddin Khalji’s conquest of the south, Vira Ballala III was the ruler of the Hoysala kingdom.

3. They are contemporaries of the Bahmani Sultanate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra emerged in the Kannadiga region and occupied prominence during the 11th-14th centuries in South India, with Belur as the center of activities. Belur was the first capital city of the Hoysalas. The Chennakeshava temple complex, was at the center of the old walled town located on the banks of the Yagachi River. The complex itself was walled in a rectangular campus with four rectilinear streets around it for ritual circumambulation of the deity. So, Statement 1 is correct.

After the spectacular success at Warangal, in late 1310, the Delhi Sultanate ruler Alauddin Khalji sent his general Malik Kafur on an expedition to the southernmost regions of India. In February 1311, Malik Kafur besieged the Hoysala capital Dwarasamudra, and the defending ruler Veera Ballala III surrendered without much resistance. Ballala agreed to pay the Delhi Sultanate an annual tribute, and surrendered a great amount of wealth, elephants and horses. So, Statement 2 is correct.

By 1336, the Sultan had conquered the Pandyas of Madurai, the Kakatiyas of Warangal and the tiny kingdom of Kampili. The Hoysalas were the only remaining empire who resisted the invading armies of the Sultan. However, the ultimate signs of disintegration crept up in the time of Ballal III’s reign when Alauddin’s forces under the leadership of Malik Kafur overran the territories in 1310-1311 CE, and Ballala III had to shift his base to Tiruvannamalai. Veera Ballala III stationed himself at Tiruvannamalai and offered stiff resistance to invasions from the north and the Madurai Sultanate to the south. Then, after nearly three decades of resistance, Veera Ballala III was killed at the Battle of Kannanur in 1343, the battle that was fought between the forces of the great Hoysala monarch Veera Ballala III and the Sultan of Madurai, Ghiyas-ud-Din. The Bahmani Sultanate was a Persianate Sunni Muslim empire of the Deccan in South India. The Sultanate was founded in 1347 by Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah. It later split into five successor states that were collectively known as the Deccan sultanates. It was the first independent Muslim kingdom of the Deccan, and was known for its perpetual wars with its rival Vijayanagara, which would outlast the Sultanate. Hence the Hoysalas are not the contemporaries of the Bahmani Sultanate.

So, Statement 3 is not correct. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 21
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Consider the following statements regarding the Inner Line Permit (ILP) System:
1. It is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
2. An ILP is issued by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect:

  • Simply put, an Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
  • The system is in force today in three Northeastern states — Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram — and no Indian citizen can visit any of these states unless he or she belongs to that state, nor can he or she overstay beyond the period specified in the ILP. An ILP is issued by the state government concerned.
  • It can be obtained after applying either online or physically. It states the dates of travel and also specifies the particular areas in the state which the ILP holder can travel to. The concept comes from the colonial area.
  • Under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act, 1873, the British framed regulations restricting the entry and regulating the stay of outsiders in designated areas.
  • This was to protect the Crown’s own commercial interests by preventing “British subjects” (Indians) from trading within these regions. In 1950, the Indian government replaced “British subjects” with “Citizen of India”.
  • This was to address loval concerns about protecting the interests of the indigenous people from outsiders belonging to other Indian states.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 22
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Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES):
1. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
2. The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) was conceptualized nby IPBES.
3. India is a member of IPBES.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

  • The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
  • It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The governing body of IPBES is made up of the representatives of IPBES member states and usually meets once per year.
  • IPBES currently has close to 140 member States. A large number of NGOs, organizations, conventions and civil society groupings also participate in the formal IPBES process as observers.
  • The work of IPBES can be broadly grouped into four complementary areas:
    • Assessments: On specific themes (e.g. “Pollinators, Pollination and Food Production”); methodological issues (e.g. “Scenarios and Modelling); and at both the regional and global levels (e.g. “Global Assessment of Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services”).
    • Policy Support: Identifying policy-relevant tools and methodologies, facilitating their use, and catalyzing their further development.
    • Building Capacity & Knowledge: Identifying and meeting the priority capacity, knowledge and data needs of our member States, experts and stakeholders.
    • Communications & Outreach: Ensuring the widest reach and impact of our work.
  • IPBES is funded through generous voluntary contributions from its member States to the IPBES Trust Fund.
  • India is a member of this organization. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) was a study led by Pavan Sukhdev from 2007 to 2011. It is an international initiative to draw attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity. Its objective is to highlight the growing cost of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to draw together expertise from the fields of science, economics and policy to enable practical actions.
    • In 2011, UNEP hosted the TEEB office at the United Nations Environment Programme in Geneva, Switzerland and set up an office to manage day-to-day operations and communications activities.
    • Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 23
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Which of the following statements is/are correct about the states having Bicameral Legislature?

1. A Bill originating in the Legislative Council, if rejected by the Legislative Assembly, is dead.

2. The members of the Legislative Council do not participate in the election of the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 23

  • When a Bill, which has originated in the Legislative Council and was sent to the Legislative Assembly, is rejected by the Legislative Assembly, the Bill ends and becomes dead.
  • The Legislative Council does not participate in the election of the President of India and the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.

Both statements are correct. Therefore, Correct  Answer - Option C

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 24
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Consider the following statements with reference to the measures of money supply in India:

1. Among all the measures of money supply, M4 is the most liquid.

2. M1 is the most commonly used measure of money supply and is known as aggregate monetary resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

  • Money supply, like money demand, is a stock variable. The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called the money supply.
  • RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are defined as followsM1 = CU + DDM2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banksM4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates) where CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
  • The word ‘net’ implies that only deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in the money supply. The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be regarded as part of the money supply. M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money. These measures are in decreasing order of liquidity. M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is the least liquid of all. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 25
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Regarding the United National Liberation Front (UNLF), consider the following statements:

1.The UNLF is one of the seven “Meitei Extremist Organisations” banned by the Union government under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967.

2.The UNLF has been operating both within and outside Indian Territory.

3.Recently, the Government of India and Government of Manipur signed a Peace Agreement with UNLF.

How many of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

United National Liberation Front (UNLF):

  • The UNLF was formed in 1964, and is distinct from the insurgent groups active in the state’s Naga-dominated and Kuki-Zomi dominated hills. The UNLF is one of the seven “Meitei Extremist Organisations” banned by the Union government under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The UNLF has been operating both within and outside Indian Territory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It is believed that the UNLF initially received training from the NSCN (IM), the largest insurgent group among the Naga factions. It operates in all the valley areas of Manipur and some villages in the Kuki-Zomi hill districts. It is a banned group It mostly operates from camps and training bases in Myanmar's Sagaing Region, Chin State, and Rakhine State, with support from the Myanmar military. Recently, the Government of India and Government of Manipur signed a Peace Agreement with United National Liberation Front (UNLF) , which is the oldest valley-based insurgent group of Manipur. Hence, statement 3 is correct

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 26
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He was sent by the Persian ruler as an emissary to Vijayanagar. He wrote his travels in the Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-
Bahrain, or The Rise of Two Auspicious Constellations and the Confluence of Two Oceans.
Q. Which of the following travellers has been described by the passage given above?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

  • Abdur Razzak, like Nicolo di Conti, visited the city during the reign of Deva Raya II, but about twenty years later than Conti. He was entrusted with an embassy from Persia, and set out on his mission on January 13, A.D. 1442.
    • Abdur Razzaq was a reluctant traveller, who left Herat only at the order of his monarch, and who swore in his travelogue that he would never make a voyage again.
    • In 1441, Shah Rukh of Persia sent Kamal-ud-din Abdur Razzaq as an emissary to Vijayanagar. Abdur Razzaq wrote his travels in the Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain, or The Rise of Two Auspicious Constellations and the Confluence of Two Oceans, which was translated into French— and then, in 1855, the translation was translated into English by R.H. Major. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
    • His views about the Vijaynagar Empire are given below:
      • Abdur Razzaq who had travelled widely in and outside India, and was an ambassador at the court of Deva Raya II (1423-46), says: “This latter prince has in his dominions three hundred ports, each of which is equal to Calicut, and his territories comprise a space of three months journey.”
      • “The country is for the most part well cultivated, very fertile. The troops amount in number to eleven lakhs.”
      • He mentioned about the fortification of the city. He wrote that ''the city of Bijanagar is such that eye has not seen nor ear heard of any place resembling it upon the whole earth. It is so built that it has seven fortified walls, one within the other.”
  • The wealth of the Vijayanagar city and its kings are attested by another Persian historian, Ferishta, the author of Tarikh-i Ferishta, “The princes of the Bahmani maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them.” Ferishta had joined the service of King Ibrahim Adil II of Bijapur in 1589.
  • Al-Biruni was born in 973 AD, in Khwarizm in present-day Uzbekistan. In 1017, when Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm, he took several scholars and poets back to his capital, Ghazni; Al-Biruni was one of them. He arrived in Ghazni as a hostage, but gradually developed a liking for the city, where he spent the rest of his life until his death at the age of 70.
    • Al-Biruni spent years in the company of Brahmana priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit, and studying religious and philosophical texts. While his itinerary is not clear, it is likely that he travelled widely in the Punjab and parts of northern India.
    • Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is a voluminous text, divided into 80 chapters on subjects such as religion and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology. Generally (though not always), Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures.
    • He was familiar with translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit texts into Arabic – these ranged from fables to works on astronomy and medicine. By the time Ibn Battuta arrived in Delhi in the fourteenth century, the subcontinent was part of a global network of communication that stretched from China in the east to north-west Africa and Europe in the west.
    • Travelling overland through Central Asia, Ibn Battuta reached Sind in 1333. He had heard about Muhammad bin Tughlaq, the Sultan of Delhi, and lured by his reputation as a generous patron of arts and letters, set off for Delhi, passing through Multan and Uch. The Sultan was impressed by his scholarship, and appointed him the qazi or judge of Delhi.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 27
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Which of the following best describes the concept of “Shrinkflation”?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Inflation leads to an increase in the prices of the goods, which could discourage the consumers from buying them. The reduced demand for the goods would cause loss to the companies.

Hence, to counter inflation and to ensure that the demand for the goods does not decrease, the companies resort to ‘Shrinkflation’. As part of shrinkflation, the companies do not increase the prices of the goods; rather they shrink the size of the products.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 28
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Consider the following statements regarding rocks :

1. Usually, the intrusive rocks formed below the Earth's surface have coarse grains, while extrusive rocks contain fine grains of minerals.

2. Silica and aluminum-containing rocks are basic rocks, while iron and magnesium-rich soils are acidic rocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Intrusive (plutonic) rocks form when magma solidifies within the crust below the surface. It usually cools slowly and produces large crystals. Slow cooling means the individual mineral grains have a very long time to grow, so they grow to a relatively large size. Intrusive rocks have a coarse-grained texture. 

  • Extrusive (volcanic) rocks form when magma erupts onto the surface of the Earth as lava flows, and usually cools quickly producing small crystals.
  • Intrusive igneous rocks cool and crystallize slowly within the earth and so have coarse grains.
  • Extrusive (volcanic) igneous rocks cool and crystallize rapidly on the earth's surface and so have fine grains. Extrusive rocks frequently contain some larger, well-shaped, crystals surrounding by the fine- grained material. So, Statement 1 is correct. Acidic rocks are characterized by a high content of silica (quartz and feldspar) — up to 80 percent. The rest is divided among aluminium, alkalis, magnesium, iron oxide, lime etc.
  • These rocks have a lesser content of heavier minerals like iron and magnesium. Hence, they are less dense and lighter in colour than basic rocks.
  • These rocks constitute the sial portion of the crust. Silica and aluminum-rich rocks, such as granite, are generally classified as acidic rocks. While iron and magnesium-rich rocks are generally classified as basic rocks, such as Basalt, gabbro and dolerite are the examples.
  • These rocks are poor in silica (about 40 percent); magnesia content is up to 40 percent, and the remaining is spread over iron oxide, lime, aluminium, alkalis, potassium etc. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 29
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Which of the following come(s) under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Writ jurisdiction 
2. Dispute between centre and a state
3. Dispute related to election of the President 
4. A dispute arising out of any pre- Constitution treaty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Option (b) is correct:
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or
(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
(c) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.

  • The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive.
  • The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
  • It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice- president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 4 - Question 30
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Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers. In this context, consider the following statements :

1. It is published on a monthly basis, and the index of the previous month is released on the last day of the ongoing month.

2. The base year for the index is currently 2016.

3. The index is utilized for the regulation of wages and dearness allowances for millions of workers in the country.

Which of the statements about the index are correct ?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), which measure the rate of change in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by the working-class population, are compiled and maintained by the Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labor and Employment, since 1946. CPI-IW has been released every month on the basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially important centers in the country. The index is compiled for 88 centers and All-India and is released on the last working day of the succeeding month. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Labour and Employment Ministry revised the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) base year to 2016 to reflect the changing consumption pattern, giving more weightage to spending on health, education, recreation and other miscellaneous spending expenses while reducing the weight of food and beverages. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Apart from measuring inflation in retail prices, the CPI-IW was The CPI (IW) indices are mainly used for regulation of Dearness allowance and Wages of millions of Workers and Employees belonging to Central Government, State Governments, and Public and Private sector Establishments in the country. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

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