UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 8 Free Online

The Concept of National Monetization Pipeline (NMP): Asset Monetisation is defined as the transfer of core assets owned by the Government to the private sector for a limited period of time. The core infrastructure assets include roads, ports, airports, telecom, railways, warehousing, energy pipelines, power generation, power transmission, hospitality and sports stadiums. The NMP does not include monetization of non-core assets (such as land, buildings etc.). The NMP has been prepared by NITI Aayog.

Advantages of Sprinkler Irrigation:
1. This method is used for a large range of topographic conditions, soils and crops.
2. It is possible to give equal water to all crops, through the sprinkler irrigation method.
3. Borders, field channels, etc., are not required, so a lot of land area is available for cropping.
4. Erosion of soil can be controlled (as surface runoff is eliminated) by using sprinkler irrigation.
. There is no need for land preparation, so labour costs are much lower.
6. This type of irrigation method is beneficial for seedlings and plants, which are very young.
7. In the sprinkler irrigation method, the time and amount of use of fertilizer can be better controlled.
8. This irrigation system is especially adaptable to more humid regions.
9. In this method, no cultivation area is wasted for making ditches.

Disadvantages of Sprinkler Irrigation:
1. Under the windy conditions, the efficiency of water distribution and water application is less.
2. Sometimes saline water can burn the leaves of the crops.
3. This irrigation system is costly to install.
4. The system is costly to operate and maintain.
5. Continuous supply of power is needed to operate such a system.
6. In this method, under high temperature, more evaporation losses of water may take place.

• The Thirunelli Temple: There is documentary evidence that Thirunelli was an important town and pilgrim centre in South India during the reign of the Chera monarch Bhaskara Ravi Varma I (962 CE -1019 CE). Historian V. R. Parameswaran Pillai states in his book, 'Thirunelli Documents', that this temple was formerly an important component of Kerala's early recorded history. The 3,000-year-old temple is a fine example of the Kerala temple architecture.
• The temple is an architectural marvel with around 30 granite columns and a granite paved floor. A cloister of cubical granite pillars runs along the temple's outer wall. An open courtyard surrounds the Sanctorum, which is encircled by a tile-roofed building. The holy temple pond is called Panchatheertham.
• The temple lacks a temple well, which is a notable characteristic. The 600-year-old Vilakkumadom structure, made of exquisite granite, is located at the Sree Mahavishnu temple in Thirunelli. This temple is the only temple in the world where the worshippers can complete all of life's rituals, from birth to death, and life after death. The ceremonies are carried out on the banks of the Papanasini stream, which flows down from Mount Brahmagiri.
• Lord Brahma is said to have performed Lord Vishnu's Prathishta here. The cave temple Gunnika, dedicated to Lord Shiva, is located on the temple's western side. As a result, Thirunelli is blessed by the presence of all three parts of the Trinity. It is also known as ‘Sahyamala Kshetram’ and ‘Southern Kashi’.

Primary deficit is calculated as Fiscal deficit – Interest payments. Hence, Zero Primary Deficit means that the entire borrowings of the Government are used to make interest payments. 

• The Po River, the longest in Italy, is facing a water crisis, and its effects are visible as drought covers a big part of the country. The river is the biggest freshwater reservoir, and farmers use a significant portion of it for agricultural purposes. The Po River spans the entire Po Valley from west to east and is 652 kilometres long. It spreads over 71,000 square kilometres and is the largest river basin in Italy. The valley, which provides around 40 percent of Italy's food, including wheat, rice, and tomatoes, is the most significant agricultural region in the nation. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
• Batken region is located in the southwest of Kyrgyzstan. It borders Tajikistan in the south, Uzbekistan in the north and Osh region in the east. Batken region is located in the southern foothill part of the Fergana Valley. The lowest point of the Kyrgyz Republic (401 m above sea level) is located here (for comparison, the highest point is Peak Pobeda 7439m). Recently, there has been a violent border clash between Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan. The Batken region of Kyrgyzstan is seeing families being moved out and getting relocated. Nearly 150,000 people of the Batken region have either fled the area or have been relocated by the state. Ferghana valley in Central Asia lies mainly in eastern Uzbekistan but extends into southern Kyrgyzstan and northern Tajikistan. It continues to be a site of struggle and frequent violent outbursts, with the location consisting primarily of Tajiks, Kyrgyz, and Uzbeks, who have historically shared common sociological specificities, economic activities, and religious practices. So, Pair (2) is correct.
• The Tigray Region, officially the Tigray National Regional State, is the northernmost regional state in Ethiopia. The Tigray Region is the homeland of the Tigrayan, Irob, and Kunama people. Its capital and largest city are Mekelle. The conflict in Ethiopia started back in November 2020 and left nearly half of Tigray's population without enough food as aid groups struggled to reach rural areas owing to inadequate fuel supplies World Health Organization (WHO) described the humanitarian crisis in Ethiopia's Tigray region as the "worst disaster on earth." So, Pair (3) is correct.

"Poison pill" is a colloquial term for a defense strategy used by the directors of a public company to prevent activist investors, competitors, or other would-be acquirers from taking control of the company by buying up large amounts of its stock. Poison pills were formally called "shareholder rights plans." A poison pill is a defense tactic that listed companies use to deter activist investors or acquirers from building large stakes or staging a takeover without the board's consent and without paying a premium to all shareholders. Poison pills specify the maximum stake a shareholder may amass and dilute the holdings of all shareholders in an attempt to discourage acquirers from gaining a controlling interest. Because poison pills can entrench company managers and boards, companies must be able to show they are a proportional response to a credible threat. Investors unable to convince a company to drop its poison pill retain the option of persuading shareholders to replace the board. So, Option (d) is correct. 85) Consider the following statements about Plastiglomerate : 1. It is a rock composed of sand, fragments, and shells discovered on a beach on Aves Island in the Lakshadweep Islands. 2. The unique feature of this rock is a green cover encloses it and is devoid of any plastic traces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its final guidelines for microfinance institutions (MFIs) that will be applicable to all entities (banks, small finance banks and NBFCs) engaged in this sector last year.
• Unlike the earlier definition that distinguished between rural and urban, RBI has now set a common household limit of Rs 300,000 for loans to qualify as microfinance. For entities to qualify for an NBFC- MFI license, they should have at least 75% of assets in microfinance and the cap on NBFCs was increased to 25% of assets as against 10% earlier. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The guidelines are positive for NBFC-MFIs, especially because it levels the playing field for them (hitherto the 10% spread cap was applicable only to NBFC-MFIs) and it allows the board to create a policy that prices the credit risk adequately. Increasing the household income threshold to Rs 300,000 will also expand the addressable market for MFI players.
• The NBFC-MFIs (non banking finance company-micro finance institutions) group dominated the microfinance market with portfolio share of 35.1% as of September last year, credit information services company Crif High Mark said in a report. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It said that NBFC-MFIs surpassed banks by a thin margin. Banks as a group controls 34.8% of the market, in which lenders provide micro loans without collateral to joint liability group members. Loans given by banks to self help group members are not included here.
• Microfinance is a financial service provided to low-income individuals or groups who otherwise would have no other access to financial services. Microfinance allows people to take small business loans in a manner that is consistent with ethical lending practices. There are basically two distinct approaches for extending micro finance services in India viz. the Bank led approach called Self Help Group–Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP), and the Micro Finance Institution (MFI) led approach. Microfinance industry in India is diverse with several types of players delivering financial services viz. credit, insurance and pension to the low income households.
• The various microfinance industry players are broadly categorized into five types: Banks, NBFC- MFIs, Small Finance Banks, NBFCs and Non-profit MFIs. All of these, except the Non-profit MFIs, are regulated by RBI. The Non-profit MFIs are mostly registered as Societies or Trusts and are regulated by the respective Acts. Voluntary agencies /NGOs were also active in the sector as financial intermediaries and were mostly registered as trusts or societies. Many of them have helped in the growth of the sector by helping SHGs to organize themselves into federations that performed many non-financial but crucial functions like social and capacity building functions, SHG promotion training, undertaking internal audit and serving as backward and forward linkages. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Hate Speech:

• Hate speech in India refers to any form of expression that is intended to promote hatred, enmity, or disharmony among the individuals.
• The Constitution of India prohibits hate speech on various grounds, including religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth, among others. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court of India has directed all states to Suo motu register FIRs on hate speech incidents and initiate legal proceedings against the offenders without waiting for a complaint to be filed.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 

Federal Features of the Indian Constitution

A unitary government is one in which all the powers are vested in the national government and the regional governments. A federal government, on the other hand, is one in which powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently.

The federal features of the Constitution of India are:

• Dual Polity
• Written Constitution
• Division of Powers
• Supremacy of the Constitution
• Rigid Constitution ·
• Independent Judiciary
• Bicameralism

Single Citizenship and Integrated Judiciary are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution.

(Hence features 1, 2 and 5 are the federal features of the Constitution of India; therefore option (b) is correct answer)

On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read: “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution”.

(Hence option (a) is correct answer)

The members of the Indian Liberal Party, such as Tej Bahadur Sapru, C.Y. Chintamani and Srinivasa Sastri, appealed to Gandhi to talk with the Viceroy. Gandhi and Irwin reached a compromise, which came to be called the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (The Delhi Pact). The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from September, 1931 to December, 1931. The Indian National Congress nominated Gandhi as its sole representative. A. Rangaswami Iyengar and Madan Mohan Malaviya were also there. There were a large number of Indian participants, besides the Congress. Gandhi pointed out that there was a need of a partnership between Britain and India on the basis of equality. He put forward the demand for the immediate establishment of a responsible government at the centre, as well as in the provinces. He also reiterated that the Congress alone represented political India. Saying that the untouchables were Hindus, and thus not to be treated as a minority, he discarded the idea of a separate electorate for them. He also said there was no need for separate electorates or special safeguards for the Muslims or other minorities. Many of the other delegates disagreed with Gandhi. The lack of agreement among the many delegate groups meant that no substantial results regarding India’s constitutional future would come out of the Conference. The Session ended with MacDonald’s announcement of:
(i) Two Mulsim majority provinces – North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) and Sindh.
(ii) The setting up of an Indian Consultative Committee.
(iii) The setting up of 3 expert committees – finance, franchise and states.
(iv) The prospect of a unilateral British Communal Award, if the Indians failed to agree. The government refused to concede the basic Indian demand of freedom.

• Statement-I: The Ramgarh Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) gave a new direction to India's freedom struggle: Correct.
  The session marked a crucial phase in the struggle by paving the way for the Quit India Movement and intensifying the demand for independence.

• Statement-II: The Congress finally declared at the Ramgarh Session that the people of India would accept nothing short of complete independence. Incorrect.

  • The demand for complete independence (Purna Swaraj) was already declared in the Lahore Session of 1929.
  • The Ramgarh Session focused on rejecting British attempts to involve India in World War II without independence rather than making a fresh declaration of complete independence.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option B

The Constitution of India:

• The Constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. 
• It draws a structure that defines fundamental political principles, forms the framework, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and lays out Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Duties of citizens
• It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the right s of the citizens are. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• It expresses the aspirations of the people creating a good society.
• It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
• The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

• Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are rea-sonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
• Statement 2 is correct: Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).

• Peer to peer (P2P) lending is a form of crowdfunding used to raise unsecured loans which are re- paid with interest. The borrower could be an individual or a legal person (such as a company). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The companies generally follow a reverse auction model in which the lender's bids for a borrower's loan proposal and the borrower has the freedom to either accept or reject the same. The minimum net worth requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 2 Cr. The borrower can either be an individual or a legal person (say a body of individuals, a HUF, a firm, a society or any artificial body, whether incorporated or not) requiring a loan. RBI vide a Notification on 24th August 2017, enabled P2P entities as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC). However, an existing NBFC will not be able to operate as an NBFC-P2P. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• As per this Notification, P2P lending platform shall mean the business of providing under a contract, the service of loan facilitation, via online medium or otherwise, to the participants who have entered into an arrangement with that platform to lend on it or to avail of loan facilitation services provided by it. As per RBI‘s Directions, these P2P platforms are to act as intermediaries providing an online platform to the participants. However, they are not allowed to raise deposits, provide loans, provide any credit enhancement or credit guarantee or facilitate or permit any secured lending. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Further, the platforms are also not permitted to hold, on their balance sheet, funds received from lenders for lending, or funds received from borrowers for servicing loans. In addition, the platforms are also prohibited from permitting any international flow of funds.
  The responsibilities of these platforms, as stated in RBI‟s Directions, include the following:-To undertake due diligence on the participants.-To undertake credit assessment and risk profiling of the borrowers and disclose the same to their prospective lenders.-To receive prior and explicit consent of the participant to access its credit information.-To undertake documentation of loan agreements and other documents.-To provide assistance in disbursement and repayment of the loan amount.-To facilitate recovery of loans originating on the platform (by using fair means).

Chang’e-5 Probe is an unmanned spacecraft by China. The Probe is named after the mythical Chinese Moon goddess. It had landed on a part of the Moon (the ‘far side'), that had never been visited by the American or the Soviet missions over 50 years before. It made China only the third country to have retrieved lunar samples, after the United States and the Soviet Union. As a result, it was able to gather bits of the youngest lunar rocks ever brought back to the Earth for study in the labs. The rocks are also not the same as the ones that were returned decades ago. 90% of the elements gathered by Chang'e-5 are assumed to have come from the landing site and its immediate surrounds, which are composed of 'mare basalts.' These volcanic boulders may be seen as deeper grey regions that spilled across most of the Moon's nearside during previous lava outbursts. However, 10% of the pieces had chemical compositions that are markedly different and 'strange.'

• About 99% of the mass of the human body is made up of six elements: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus. Only about 0.85% is composed of another five elements: potassium, sulfur, sodium, chlorine, and magnesium. All 11 are necessary for life.
• The human body consists of the following elements; 65% oxygen (by mass) is in the blood and 18%- 18.5% carbon. It contains 9 to 10% hydrogen and nearly 3.3% nitrogen. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The composition of Earth's crust is shown below in the pie chart. The earth's crust contains a reasonable amount of silica (and 28 % silicon).
• In water (also mineral water), the weight percentage of Oxygen is 88.8%.
• By mass, the Sun is about 70.6% hydrogen and 27.4% helium.

• Shilabhattarika was a Chalukyan princess, who may have been Pulakeshin II's daughter. Pulakeshin II, who ruled from 610 CE to 642 CE, is known for having notably defeated Harshavardhan of Kanauj in a battle that took place near the Narmada River in 618 CE. The Varaha seal served as the royal seal of the Badami Chalukyas.
• Shilabhattarika has been lauded for her delicate compositions in Sanskrit by the poet-critic Rajashekhara, the court poet of the Gurjara-Pratiharas (9th century CE – 10th century CE). Rajashekhara claims that the Panchali style (one of the four primary literary styles; the other three are: Vaidharbhi, Gaudi and Lati) can be seen in the writings of Shilabhattarika, and perhaps in a few of the works of the poet Bana from the seventh century.
• Subjects in her poetry: It is known that she wrote at least 46 poems, some of which deal with ‘love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines.’ Poetesses like Shilabhattarika, Vijja, Marula and Morika are well-known for their poetic brilliance and erudition. These women were proficient in all academic fields, have engaged in disputes with other academics.

The RBI’s Guidelines on Microfinance Sector: In March, 2022, the RBI has introduced new guidelines for the microfinance sector. Applicability: All commercial banks (Including the RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Local Area Banks) + Cooperative Banks + NBFCs (NBFC-MFIs and Housing Finance Companies).

Definition of Microfinance Loan: Collateral-free loan given to a household, having an annual household income upto Rs. 3 lakhs. Given irrespective of end-use and mode of disbursal (either through physical or digital channels). Flexibility of repayment as per the borrowers’ requirement.

Limit on Loan Repayment Obligation: Loan repayment obligation should not be more than 50% of the monthly household income. Pricing of Loans: Earlier, the commercial banks were given a free hand to fix interest rates on microfinance loans. However, the RBI used to fix a ceiling on the interest rates on the loans given by the NBFC-MFIs. Now, the RBI has given free hand to all entities to fix their own interest rates on microfinance loans. However, at the same time, the RBI has highlighted that interest rates and other charges/fees on microfinance loans should not be usurious and shall be subjected to supervisory scrutiny.

Ministry of Textiles (MoT) has launched PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel Parks (MITRAs) Scheme to strengthen the Indian textile industry by way of enabling the scale of operations, reduce logistics costs by housing the entire value chain at one location, attract investment, generate employment and augment export potential. The PM MITRA scheme is Inspired by the 5F vision of the Hon'ble Prime Minister - Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign. It aspires to fulfil the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat and to position India strongly on the Global textiles map.

• PM MITRA Parks will offer an opportunity to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing at one location. So, Statement 1 is correct. PM MITRA Parks will be set up on the basis of proposals received from State Governments having ready availability of contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcels of a minimum of 1000 acres. The State Government will transfer land to the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) at a notional price. The land asset will be used to leverage/attract investment in the PM MITRA parks for the development and maintenance of the parks with high-standard specifications.
• State governments will provide contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcels of at least 1000 acres of land and will also facilitate the provision of all utilities, Reliable Power Supply and Water availability and Waste Water Disposal system, an effective single window clearance as well as a conducive and stable industrial/textile policy. So, Statement 2 is correct. PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large-scale investment, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector. The creation of parks will lead to the creation of 20 lakh (2 million) job opportunities both directly and indirectly. Additionally, it is expected that these parks will attract a total investment of Rs 70,000 crore (approximately USD 9.5 billion) from both domestic and foreign sources. This investment will be used to build modern infrastructure for the parks. So, Statement 3 is not correct. 

The Helicopter Money is a hypothetical concept put forward by the economist, Milton Friedman. This involves the Central Bank of the country printing currency notes and distributing it to the people free of cost. The idea here is to promote demand in the economy during recession. It is different from the Zero Interest Rate Policy (ZIRP) and the Negative Interest Rate Policy (NIRP), as under these two, the people get loans at cheaper rate, which increases the debt liability. But, in the Helicopter Money, since the people receive money free of cost, it does not lead to increase in the debt liability.

• Edge computing enables data to be analysed, processed and transferred at the edge of a network.
• Meaning, the data is analysed locally, closer to where it is stored, in real-time without latency.
• The basic difference between edge computing and cloud computing lies in where the data processing takes place. In simple terms, cloud computing means storing and accessing data and programs over the Internet instead of your computer's hard drive.
• Edge computing, on the other hand, manages the massive amounts of data generated by IoT devices by storing and processing data locally.

Benefits of edge computing:

• It offers high speed, reduced latency & better reliability which allows for quicker data processing and content delivery. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It offers better security by distributing processing, storage, and applications across a wide range of devices and data centers, which makes it difficult for any single disruption to take down the network.
• Besides latency, edge computing is preferred over cloud computing in remote locations, where there is limited or no connectivity to a centralized location. These locations require local storage, similar to a mini data center, with edge computing providing the perfect solution for it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Edge computing, on the other hand, essentially manages the massive amounts of data generated by IoT devices by storing and processing data locally. That data doesn‘t need to be sent over a network as soon as it processed; only important data is sent — therefore, an edge computing network reduces the amount of data that travels over the network. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the Mauryas.
• He assassinated the last Mauryan ruler Brihadratha and usurped the throne. Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Brahmanism. He performed two asvamedha sacrifices. In the cultural sphere, the Sungas revived Brahmanism and horse sacrifice. They also promoted the growth of Vaishnavism and the Sanskrit language. In short, the Sunga rule was brilliant anticipation of the golden age of the Guptas. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
• Malavikagnimitra is a five-act drama written by Kalidasa in the 5th century CE. The story is a light tale set in a harem, and, unlike Kalidasa‘s other works, it sustains a playful and comical mood throughout. It concerns the machinations of King Agnimitra of the Sunga dynasty to win Malavika, a female dance student with whom he is in love. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Unitary Features of the Indian Constitution

Unitary Features of constitution make a centralized government. It is a government in which all powers held by the government belong to a single, central agency. A unitary system is governed constitutionally as one single unit. All power is top down. A unitary state is a sovereign state governed as one single unit in which the central government is supreme.

Following are the unitary or Non-federal features:

• Strong Centre
• States Not Indestructible
• Single Constitution
• Flexibility of the Constitution
• No Equality of State Representation
• Emergency Provisions
• Single Citizenship
• Integrated Judiciary
• All-India Services
• Integrated Audit Machinery
• Parliament’s Authority over State List
• Appointment of Governor
• Integrated Election Machinery
• Veto Over State Bills

(Hence features 2, 3, 4 and 5 are the unitary or Non-federal features of the Constitution of India; therefore option (c) is correct answer)

• Seven countries have led the world in the production of gem-quality diamonds for over a decade. Russia, Botswana, Canada, Angola, South Africa, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Namibia have all been consistently producing over one million carats per year. Aikhal (means  ̳fame‘) is the biggest diamond mine in the world. It is located in Yakutia, in the far east of Russia. Diamonds have been found in Russia as far back as the 18th century.
• The first significant production occurred in 1957 from the Mir kimberlite pipe and its adjacent placers. Some of the important diamond mines in Russia are Aikhal, Udachny and Nyurba. Nyurba is again located in Yakutia. Jwaneng (means  ̳a place of small stones‘) is the richest diamond mine in terms of value. It is located in the South of Botswana, in the Kalahari Desert. De Beers Group owns the diamond mine through a partnership with the government of Botswana. Botswana was one of the first areas where bulk sampling and indicator mineral mapping were used to characterize and identify diamond pipes across a large and difficult geographic area.
• Some of the main diamond mines in Botswana are Jwaneng and Orapa diamond mines. The Catoca diamond mine is located in the Northeast of Angola. The African diamond mine is the sixth largest diamond mine in the world. It is estimated to contain up to 130Mct of mineable diamonds. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• What is an Election Symbol? o An electoral or election symbol is a standardized symbol allocated to a political party. They are used by the parties during their campaigning and are shown on Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), where the voter chooses the symbol and votes for the associated party.
• What are the EC’s powers in such Disputes?
  • The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognize political parties and allot symbols. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognised political party staking claim to its name and symbol.
  • On deputes among rival groups, the Symbols Order, states that the EC is empowered to take decision after considering all the available facts and circumstances of the case that one rival section or group or none of such rival sections or groups is that recognized political party. The decision of the Commission shall be binding on all such rival sections/groups. This applies to disputes between recognized national and state parties. For splits in registered but unrecognized parties, the EC usually advises the warring factions to resolve their differences internally or to approach the court. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain, popularly known as the ‘emergency case’ or ‘election case’ is a landmark judgement in Indian Judicial history for numerous reasons. India witnessed the first case in its history when a Prime minister’s election was invalidated. It is a case when the parliamentary powers were tried to be misused by questioning the judiciary of its powers. The judiciary was expected to kneel before the parliament by establishing parliamentary supremacy. This was the case that led to one of the most infamous incidents, the imposition of a national emergency from 1975-1977 throughout the nation. This was the time when fundamental rights were curtailed. The constitutional validity of 39th constitutional amendment was called in question. It all started in 1971 when Indira Gandhi contested the general elections from Raebareilly seat and won against her opposition candidate Raj Narain. Allahabad High court nullified the election of Indira Gandhi on grounds of various election malpractices which went against the election laws. Mrs. Indira Gandhi appealed against the verdict to the Supreme court. But, the Indian judiciary subsequently witnessed a dramatic chain of events by which election rules were amended to validate the nullified election of Mrs. Gandhi. This case questioned so many integral aspects of the Constitution such as its Basic structure, power of jurisdiction of courts, separation of three organs of the state that are: Legislative, executive and judiciary, functions of Legislature, right to free and fair elections, rule of law and judicial review and lastly, political justice. So, Option 1 is correct.

S.R Bommai case give one of the landmark judgements of the supreme court regarding the basic structure doctrine as well as recording the balant misuse of article 356. S.R. Bommai was the Chief Minister of the Janata Dal government in Karnataka. His government was dismissed on April 21, 1989 under Article 356 of the Constitution and President’s Rule was imposed. The dismissal was on grounds that the Bommai government had lost majority following large-scale defections engineered. The then Governor refused to give Bommai an opportunity to test his majority in the Assembly despite the latter presenting him with a copy of the resolution passed by the Janata Dal Legislature Party. Bommai party went to Supreme Court against the Governor’s decision to recommend President’s Rule. Supreme Court issued the historic order, which in a way put an end to the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under Article 356 by spelling out restrictions. The verdict concluded that the power of the President to dismiss a State government is not absolute. So, Option 2 is correct.

A large group of people accommodating freelance lands in various urban accumulations in the country had registered writ petitions in this Judiciary, questioning the validity of some of the key rules of the Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act of 1976. The Court decreed out that the property in metropolitan agglomeration cannot be appropriated for giving any variety of benefit to the public, and it has nowhere been stated in that Act. part from the property part, many people have also looked at this discriminatory side of the impugned Act in the Case as it violates Article 14 and declares in unconstitutional. The Court upheld the constitutional validity of Article 31(1)(a). In Bhim Singhji v. Union of India, Krishna Iyer and Sen, JJ., affirmed that the notion of the cultural and financial decision – to establish a progress state forms a part of the Basic Structure. So, Option 3 is correct.

This landmark judgment has come to be known as the ‘Fourth Judges Case’. It stemmed from a group of petitions challenging the validity of the Constitution (Ninety-Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 (99th Amendment) along with the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 (NJAC Act). These Acts sought to replace the prevailing collegium system used for making appointments to the higher judiciary with the National Judicial Appointments Committee (NJAC). The NJAC proposed a greater role for the executive in making judicial appointments. This was allegedly to introduce transparency and accountability in the selection process. However, the Court found the NJAC to be in violation of the principles of separation of power and independence of judiciary that formed part of the basic structure of the Constitution, and a five Judge Constitution Bench struck down the 99th Amendment and consequently the NJAC Act by a majority of 4:1, declaring the Acts unconstitutional. So, Option 4 is correct.

An OCI is a category introduced by the government in 2005. Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) of certain categories as specified in the Citizenship Act, 1955 are eligible for being OCI cardholders. Some of the benefits for PIO and OCI cardholders were different until 2015 when the government merged these two categories. Overseas Citizenship of India is a form of permanent residency available to people of Indian origin and their spouses which allows them to live and work in India indefinitely. Despite its name, OCI status is not citizenship and does not grant the right to vote in Indian elections or hold public office. An overseas citizen of India cardholder shall be entitled to such rights, as the Central Government may specify in this behalf. An overseas citizen of India cardholder shall not be entitled to the following rights (which are conferred on a citizen of India)

• He shall not be entitled to the right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.(Article 16)
• He shall not be eligible for election as President.
• He shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President.
• He shall not be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• He shall not be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the High Court. ➢ He shall not be entitled for registration as a voter. ➢ He shall not be eligible for being a member of the House of the People or of the Council of States.
• He shall not be eligible for being a member of the State Legislative Assembly or the State Legislative Council.
• He shall not be eligible for appointment to public services and posts in connection with affairs of the Union or of any State except for appointment in such services and posts as the Central Government may specify. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Home affairs defines an OCI as a person who was a citizen of India on or after January 26, 1950; or was eligible to become a citizen of India on that date; or who is a child or grandchild of such a person, among other eligibility criteria. The Indian Constitution makers made certain Fundamental Rights Universal and applicable to everyone irrespective of Nationality and Citizenship. These rights include:
• The right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (Article 14)
• The right to protected in case of a conviction for an offence (Article 20)
• The right to protection of personal life and liberty under Article 21. They also have the right to elementary education under Article 21-A.
• They also have the right to protection against arrest in certain cases under Article 22 of the Constitution.
• They are protected from trafficking and forced labour. (Article 23)
• Foreign nationals under the age of 14 cannot be employed in hazardous industries. (Article 24)
• They have the right under Article 25 to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of any religion. They have the freedom to manage their religious affairs. (Article 26)
• While promoting a religion they are given exemption from payment of taxes under Article 27. They are free to attend religious instructions and worship in certain educational institutions. Thus, the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are available only to citizens of India, not to OCI cardholders. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

• The Long Term Evolution (LTE) is developed to support data-only applications. LTE (Long-Term Evolution) is a fourth-generation (4G) wireless standard that provides increased network capacity and speed for cell phones and other cellular devices compared with third-generation (3G) technology.
• VoLTE stands for ‘Voice over Long Term Evolution. VoLTE is a much-standardized system to make high-definition voice calls. It allows the users to make voice calls while using the data services without changing the quality of the voice.
• Differences between Long Term Evolution (LTE) and Voice over Long Term Evolution (VoLTE):
  • Main application: LTE is developed to support data-only applications. VoLTE is developed to support both voice and data transmission. While the LTE turns off the data connection while making voice calls VoLTE does not turn off the data connection while making voice calls. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Quality of Voice transmission: Quality of voice reduces when a data connection is on in the case of LTE. In the case of VoLTE Voice quality remains excellent in the presence of a data connection.
  • External application software: While LTE requires an external app. such as Skype/Whatsapp for video calling in the case of VoLTE one can directly call anyone irrespective of the external app. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Free calling: Continuous internet data is needed to make free calls. The user can not switch it OFF in the case of LTE in the case of VoLTE a User can make free calls even if the internet connection is switched OFF.