UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 9 Free Online

• Ghulam Husain Ali Khan (1748 – 1801) aka Umdat ul-Umra, was the Nawab of the Carnatic state in the Mughal Empire from 1795 to 1801. He was an incompetent ruler noted for his extravagance and misrule. He died in the middle of 1801 and his son, Ali Hussain became the Nawab. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Serfoji II was the ruler of the Maratha state of Tanjore. He ascended the throne in 1798 A.D. Serfoji constructed ten water tanks and a number of wells for civic use. He implemented an underground drainage system for the whole of Tanjore city. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Kingdom of Coorg (or Kingdom of Kodagu) was an independent kingdom that existed in India from the 16th century until 1834. Vira Raja was the ruler of the Coorg state. Lord William Bentinck sent Colonel Lindsay to capture Mercara, the capital of the Coorg state. The Raja was deposed in 1834 and the state was annexed. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 

Santali Language

• Santhali language is a Munda language spoken primarily in the east-central Indian states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Orissa. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In 2003, the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act added Santhali to Schedule VIII to the Constitution of India, which lists the official languages of India, along with the Bodo, Dogri and Maithili languages.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct

• India-US Relation: The 2 + 2 meetings have been held annually with the US leaders since 2018. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 2 + 2 meetings signify the participation of two high-level representatives, Ministers holding Foreign and Defence portfolios, from each of the two countries who aim to enhance the scope of dialogue between them. Over the years, the strategic bilateral relationship with its partners, including the dialogues held in the 2 + 2 format, has produced tangible and far-reaching results for India. India and the US have four foundational defense agreements: Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geospatial Intelligence (BECA). General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA). Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA). Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA). Hence, statement 2 Is Correct.

World Happiness Report uses global survey data to report how people evaluate their own lives in more than 150 countries worldwide. The World Happiness Report is a publication of UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network publication powered by the Gallup World Poll data. The World Happiness Report 2022 reveals a bright light in dark times. The pandemic brought not only pain and suffering but also an increase in social support and benevolence. India ranks 136th in the World Happiness Report 2022 (139th in 2021), while Finland becomes the happiest country for the fifth consecutive year. So, Option (a) is correct.

The Gross Ecosystem Product (GEP) aims to specific indicators to measure the total economic value of all ecosystem products and services. The GEP is the total value of final ecosystem goods and services supplied to human well-being in a region annually and can be measured in terms of biophysical value and monetary value. Ecosystems that can be measured include natural ecosystems, such as forests, grasslands, wetlands, deserts, freshwater and oceans, and artificial systems that are based on natural processes, like farmlands, pastures, aquaculture farms and urban green lands, etc. The IUCN is currently carrying out pilot research projects on the GEP with partners.

The Himalayan Serow has now been categorized as 'vulnerable' in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides absolute protection.

• The Economic and Social Council is at the heart of the United Nations system to advance the three dimensions of sustainable development – economic, social and environmental. It is the central platform for fostering debate and innovative thinking, forging consensus on ways forward, and coordinating efforts to achieve internationally agreed goals. It is also responsible for the follow-up to major UN conferences and summits. The UN Charter established ECOSOC in 1945 as one of the six main organs of the United Nations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• ECOSOC has 54 member Governments which are elected for three-year terms by the General Assembly. Seats on the Council are allotted based on geographical representation with fourteen allocated to African States, eleven to Asian States, six to Eastern European States, ten to Latin American and Caribbean States, and thirteen to Western European and other States. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The establishment of the United Nations High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development (HLPF) was mandated in 2012 by the outcome document of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), "The Future We Want". The Forum meets annually under the auspices of the Economic and Social Council for eight days, including a three-day ministerial segment and every four years at the level of Heads of State and Government under the auspices of the General Assembly for two days.

The Mediterranean type of climate is also known as the subtropical dry summer climate because most areas falling under this climate are situated around the Mediterranean Sea.

The Mediterranean climate has three distinct characteristics A dry, warm summer with offshore trade winds. Bright, sunny weather with hot, dry summers and wet, mild winters. A concentration of rainfall in winter with onshore Westerlies. The prominence of local winds around the Mediterranean Sea.

The Mediterranean climate has developed between 30 to 40-degree latitudes in both the hemispheres in the western parts of the continents. Various kinds of vegetation are found in the Mediterranean regions, like, Mediterranean evergreen forests – open woodland with evergreen oaks, Eucalyptus forests (Australia).

Evergreen coniferous trees – Pines, firs, cedars and cypresses Mediterranean bushes and shrubs. Conditions in the Mediterranean do not suit grass because most rain comes in the cool season when growth is slow.

Economic development in these regions is Orchard farming, Crop cultivation and Wine production (85% of grapes are produced in this region).

So, Option (b) is correct. 

Jerdon’s Courser: It is a nocturnal bird endemic to India. It is found in small geography in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Its principal habitat is the Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary, in the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh. IUCN Status: Critically Endangered.

Essential features of the Indian Ocean:

1. It is not an open ocean, because its northern boundaries are closed with the landmass of Asia. Unlike the other two oceans, which communicate to both North and South Poles, it communicates only to the South Pole.

2. It has two other seas at its northern end - the Gulf and the Red Sea, both these are also closed seas.

3. The Arabian Sea - one of the components of the Indian Ocean - is influenced by the waters of the Gulf and the Red Sea. Oil traffic, originating from the Gulf, largely follows the Arabian Sea route, resulting in the highest concentrations of both floating and dissolved hydrocarbons, as compared to any other sea in the world.

4. Reversal of wind direction and the sea currents, leading to the phenomenon of the annual cycle of monsoon over the Indian sub-continent, is another unique feature in the Indian Ocean.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs, and it is not a statutory body. It derives its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 and functions as an attached office of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Under section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment shall not conduct any inquiry or investigation into any offence alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, unless the consent of the Government of that State. In other words, it requires that the CBI obtain general or specific consent from a state government to register and investigate any case in the State. Under section 6A of the Delhi Special Police Establishment shall not conduct any inquiry or investigation into any offence alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, except with the previous approval of the Central Government where such allegation relates to: 

• The employees of the Central Government at the level of Joint Secretary and above.
• The Central Government appoints such officers in corporations established by or under any Central Act, Government companies, societies and local authorities owned or controlled by that Government. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Constitutional courts (Supreme Court and High Court) can also entrust any case or class of cases for investigation in the exercise of inherent jurisdiction, even without the consent of the respective State government. Once general or specific consent is granted under Section 6 of the DSPE Act by the State government where the case is registered; or when the Constitutional courts entrust the case, the powers and jurisdiction of members of the DSPE (CBI) may extend for investigation as stipulated under Section 5 of DSPE Act, 1946. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• The organization is based in Vienna, Austria, and was established to enforce the Comprehensive Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which aims to prohibit all nuclear explosions globally.
• The CTBT is a multilateral treaty that was opened for signature in 1996, in which nations agree to ban all nuclear explosions, regardless of whether they are for military or civilian purposes.
• The treaty includes mechanisms to enforce this prohibition, such as remote monitoring and data collection.
• It has been signed by 183 countries and ratified by 164, but it has not yet come into force because eight specific states (the so-called Annex-2 states, including the US, China, Iran, Egypt, Israel, India, Pakistan, and North Korea) have not ratified it.
• To verify adherence to the treaty, a global network of monitoring stations is established, and the treaty also allows for on-site inspections of suspected violations.

The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. The Court is participating in a global fight to end impunity. Through international criminal justice, the Court aims to hold those responsible accountable for their crimes and help prevent them from happening again. The International Criminal Court is not a substitute for national courts. According to the Rome Statute, every State has to exercise its criminal jurisdiction over those responsible for international crimes. So, Option (a) is correct.

As a judicial institution, the ICC has no police force or enforcement body. Thus, it relies on cooperation with countries worldwide for support, particularly for making arrests, transferring arrested persons to the ICC detention center in The Hague, freezing suspects’ assets, and enforcing sentences. While not a United Nations organization, the Court has a cooperation agreement with the United Nations. When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the United Nations Security Council can refer it to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction. So, Option (b) is not correct.

On 17 July 1998, a conference of 160 States established the first treaty-based permanent international criminal Court. The treaty adopted during that conference is the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court. Among other things, it sets out the crimes falling within the jurisdiction of the ICC, the rules of procedure and the mechanisms for States to cooperate with the ICC. The countries which have accepted these rules are known as States Parties and are represented in the Assembly of States Parties. The Assembly of States Parties, which meets at least once a year, sets the general policies for the administration of the Court and reviews its activities. So, Option (c) is correct.

The Court has no power to arrest sitting heads of State or bring them to trial and instead must rely on other leaders and governments to act as its sheriffs around the world. A suspect who manages to evade capture may never have a hearing to confirm the charges. So, Option (d) is correct.

• The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, is aimed to create a single, comprehensive framework that would provide a time-bound and cost-effective process for resolving insolvency and bankruptcy.
• If either the Resolution Plan is rejected by the Committee of Creditors (CoC), or fails to be approved by it within 330 days, the process of liquidation kicks in automatically.
• The proceeds of liquidation are distributed among secured creditors, unsecured creditors, government dues, preferential shareholders, etc., in the respective order of priority.

• Statement 1: Incorrect. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, not the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The Act was notified on August 9, 2019, and came into force on July 20, 2020, replacing the 1986 Act. The CCPA was set up in July 2020.
• Statement 2: Correct. The CCPA has the authority to issue orders for the discontinuation of unfair and prejudicial practices affecting consumers’ interests. It can also impose penalties for false or misleading advertisements.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. The CCPA is headed by a Chief Commissioner and has only two additional commissioners—one responsible for matters related to goods and the other for services.

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal: The NCLAT was constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 to hear appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Hence, statement 1 is correct. NCLT is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues relating to companies. It is also the appellate tribunal for orders passed by the NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, and for orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211 of the IBC. Any person aggrieved by any order of the NCLAT may file an appeal to the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

What is MCC?

• The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the ECI to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
• It helps EC in keeping with the mandate it has been given under Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives it the power to supervise and conduct free and fair elections to the

Parliament and State Legislatures.

• The MCC is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of the result announcement. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

MCC for Political Parties and Candidates:
Polling Day:

• Only voters and those with a valid pass from the EC are allowed to enter polling booths.
• Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• All authorized party workers at polling booths should be given suitable badges or identity cards.
• Identity slips supplied by them to voters shall be on plain (white) paper and shall not contain any symbol, name of the candidate or the name of the party.

Party in Power:

• The MCC incorporated certain restrictions in 1979, regulating the conduct of the party in power. Ministers must not combine official visits with election work or use official machinery for the same.
• The party must avoid advertising at the cost of the public exchequer or using official mass media for publicity on achievements to improve chances of victory in the elections.
• From the time elections are announced by the Commission, the ministers and other authorities must not announce any financial grants, or promise any construction of roads, provision of drinking water, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In 2004, the Government of India (Union Cabinet) declared that languages that meet certain requirements would be accorded the status of a “Classical Language of India”. The Ministry of Culture provides guidelines regarding Classical languages. Hence options (c) and (d) are not correct.
• The following criteria were laid down to determine the eligibility of languages to be considered for classification as a “Classical Language”:
  • High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years;
  • A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
  • The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
  • The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• Classical languages in India: At present, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India. They are - Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Hence option (b) is not correct.
• All six languages which have been given the status of classical language come under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The eighth schedule consists of 1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Odia, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• The government has proposed to work in a mission mode to eliminate sickle cell anemia by 2047, announced Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman while presenting the Union Budget 2023-24 in Parliament. Sickle Cell Disease (SCD), a genetic condition, is widespread among the tribal population in India where about 1 in 86 births among STs have SCD.
• It is a severe hereditary form of anemia in which a mutated form of hemoglobin distorts the red blood cells into a crescent shape at low oxygen levels. It is commonest among those of African descent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Red blood cells are usually round and flexible, so they move easily through blood vessels. In sickle cell anemia, some red blood cells are shaped like sickles or crescent moons. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides effective protection of the rights of women guaranteed under the Constitution who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family and for matters connected therewith. Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines "domestic violence" to include actual abuse or the threat of abuse that is physical, sexual, verbal, emotional or economic. Harassment by unlawful dowry demands to the woman, or her relatives would also be covered. The Domestic Violence Act 2005 includes all women who may be mothers, sisters, wives, widows or partners living in a shared household. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Section 2 (b) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines a child as "any person below the age of eighteen years and includes any adopted, step or foster child." Under the Domestic Violence Act of 2005, a minor child is also entitled to protection. The mother of such a minor child may file a petition or application on behalf of her minor child (male or female). In cases where the mother makes an application to the Court for herself, the children can also be added as co-applicants for relief under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act. The Court can also, whenever appropriate, appoint a guardian or next of friend to represent the child. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• A live-in relationship is: "An arrangement of living under which the couples which are unmarried life together to conduct a long-going relationship similarly as in marriage. The Supreme Court and other courts have held that live-in relationships, which are in the nature of marriage, are protected under the provisions of the Protection of Women against Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA). In Navtej Singh Johar and Others Vs. Union of India and Ors (Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 76 of 2016) case, the Supreme Court held that consensual sexual acts of adults in private are constitutional," So, Statement 3 is correct.

Fair Price Shop (FPS): FPS is a government-run or government-regulated retail outlet or store in India.
The primary purpose of fair price shops is to distribute essential commodities like food grains, edible oils, sugar, and other basic necessities to the public at subsidized or fair prices.
These shops are typically part of government welfare programs aimed at ensuring food security and reducing the economic burden on low-income households.
This system has a robust mechanism for verification of beneficiaries through Aadhaar authentication and has features to monitor transactions online with the help of electronic Point of Sale (e-POS) machines.
The e-PoS devices have been integrated with electronic weighing machines to ensure the beneficiaries get the correct amount of ration.
These FPSs and ePOS machines have proved instrumental in the effectuation and seamless implementation of the One Nation

• The Five Eyes is an intelligence alliance consisting of the US, UK, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. The origins of the Five Eyes can be traced back to the informal meetings between the US and UK code-breakers during the Second World War. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • These meetings were later formalized through the signing of the UK-USA agreement in 1946. The agreement was expanded to include Canada in 1948, and Australia and New Zealand in 1956, thereby creating the Five Eyes alliance.
  •  The primary purpose of the Five Eyes alliance was to facilitate intelligence sharing and cooperation between the five countries to address common security challenges, including the Soviet Union during the Cold War. Covert intelligence operations were commonplace during the Cold War, and alliances needed to share sensitive information regarding their adversaries on all possible fronts available.
  • Following the end of the Cold War and the collapse of the Soviet Union, the strategic objectives of the Five Eyes changed, with the war on terror and later the perceived threats of China and Russia emerging as points of intelligence interest and concern. While countering China's growing influence and activities has become a significant area of focus for the alliance in recent years, it was not the primary purpose of its creation.
  • There have been discussions and proposals to expand the Five Eyes to include other countries such as Germany, India, Japan, and South Korea. 
    • For instance, US lawmakers in 2013 requested then-President Barack Obama to include Germany in the alliance.
    • In 2019, a US Congressional Committee pushed for the integration of India, Japan, and South Korea at par with ‘Five Eyes’ for intelligence sharing so as to maintain peace in the Indo-Pacific region.
    • In 2020, India and Japan joined the Five Eyes nations in a joint appeal to tech companies to permit "backdoor access" to encrypted applications on smartphones.

The Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016:

• Bio-medical waste has been classified into 4 categories, instead of 10, to improve the segregation of waste at source and these 4 categories have colour-codes. 
  • Red Bin for plastic waste, such as bottles, syringes, etc.
  • Yellow Bin for infectious wastes, such as cotton, bandage, placenta, etc.
  • Blue Bin for glass bottles, like discarded medicines.
  • Black Bin for needles without syringes, metal articles, etc.

• Although Harappan sites share certain common features, there are also significant regional and inter-site differences. x For instance, the mud-brick platforms in the southern part of the citadel complex at Kalibangan, which have been interpreted as ‘fire altars’, do not occur at most other sites.
• Kalibangan (literally, ‘black bangles’) gets its name from the thick clusters of black bangles lying all over the surface of its mounds. This site lies on the banks of the dry bed of the Ghaggar river, in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan.
• The citadel complex at Kalibangan consists of a northern and southern unit, separated from each other by a wall. The southern unit had no houses but is noted for a series of mud-brick platforms with a row of seven clay-plastered pits. Steps or ramps led up to the platforms. Nearby were a well and bath pavements. The pits have been interpreted as fire altars.
  • ‘Fire altars’ have also been reported at Banawali, Lothal, Amri, Nageshwar, and Vagad in Gujarat, and at Rakhigarhi in Haryana.
  • But it is only at Kalibangan and Banawali that they may have signified sacrificial rituals of a congregational nature; in the other cases, they seem to have been associated with domestic rituals.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru led the protest against the Simon Commission in 1928. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• He presided over the INC meeting during Lahore Session (1929) and Lucknow Session (1936). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He was the second Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagraha. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• After meeting the risk provisions and other operational expenditures (salaries etc.) from the earnings of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the surplus is transferred to the Central Government in the form of dividends. Surplus transfer from the Reserve Bank of India is an important component of non-tax revenues to the Central Government.
• However, the quantum of dividends shared with the Central Government depends upon the amount of money provided for risk provisioning, especially for the contingency funds.
• There occurred a controversy regarding the excess capital reserves accumulated with the RBI and sharing of dividend with the Central Government in 2018. To sort out this controversy, a committee (Bimal Jalan Committee) was appointed to review the Economic Capital Framework. The Committee had prescribed a Contingency Risk Buffer in the range of 5.5% to 6.5% of its balance sheet.

• Recently. the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) has witnessed a significant increase in Monkeypox(Mpox) cases. Monkeypox is caused by the Monkeypox virus (MPXV). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is a viral zoonotic disease endemic in densely forested regions of west, central, and east Africa. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• There is no specific treatment or vaccine available for Monkeypox infection. In the past, the anti-smallpox vaccine, once 85% effective, is no longer widely accessible. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. The Animal Welfare Board of India, the first of its kind to be established by any government in the world, was set up in 1962 in accordance with Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairy (MoFAH&D). So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Act permits the welfare board to receive the funds, which shall consist of grants made to it from time to time by the government and contributions, donations, subscriptions, bequests, gifts and the like made to it by any local authority or any other person. So, Statement 2 is correct. The laws related to animal experimentation come under Chapter IV, Sections 14 to 20, of the PCA Act. It prohibits any person from inflicting, causing, or, if it is the owner, permitting unnecessary pain or suffering inflicted on any animal. The Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Section 22 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 provides restrictions on the exhibition and training of performing animals. No person shall exhibit or train— any performing animal unless he is registered in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter; as a performing animal, any animal which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify as an animal which shall not be exhibited or trained as a performing animal.

So, Statement 4 is correct. 

• The British introduced a codified system of law in India with English as the official language.
• Post-independence, Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• However, it mandated that the English language will continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution of India. It further provides that the President may, during the said period, by order to authorise the use of the Hindi language for any official purpose of the Union, other than the English language.
• Article 348(1)(a) states that unless Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• Article 348(2) provides further that notwithstanding the provisions of Article 348(1), the Governor of a state may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of Hindi or any other language used for any official purpose, in proceedings in the High Court. 

• The SDR is an accounting unit for IMF transactions with member countries – and a stable asset in countries’ international reserves. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are an asset, though not money in the classic sense because they cannot be used to buy things. The value of an SDR is based on a basket of the world’s five leading currencies – the US dollar, euro, yuan, yen and the UK pound.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.