UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims (GS1) Mock Test- 10 Free Online

• Atal Tunnel: Atal Tunnel (also known as Rohtang Tunnel) is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh, India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Jawahar Tunnel: It is also called Banihal Tunnel. The length of the tunnel is 2.85 km. The tunnel facilitates round-the-year road connectivity between Srinagar and Jammu. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Recently, an under-construction Silkyara-Barkot tunnel along the Yamunotri National Highway in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand, collapsed, trapping a significant number of workers inside. The Silkyara-Barkot tunnel is part of the ambitious Char Dham all-weather road project of the Central Government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• About Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs): NTDs are a group of infections that are most common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa, Asia and the Americas. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• NTDs are especially common in tropical areas where people do not have access to clean water or safe ways to dispose of human waste. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. These diseases generally receive less funding for research and treatment than malaises like tuberculosis , HIV-AIDS and malaria .
• Examples of NTDs are: snakebite envenomation , scabies, yaws, trachoma, Leishmaniasis and Chagas disease etc.Hence, statement 3 is not correct

Soils tend to become acidic as a result of:

1. The rainwater leaching away basic ions (calcium, magnesium, potassium and sodium).

2. Carbon dioxide from decomposing organic matter and root respiration dissolving in soil water to form a weak organic acid.

3. Formation of strong organic and inorganic acids, such as nitric and sulphuric acid, from decaying organic matter and oxidation of ammonium and sulphur fertilizers. Strongly acid soils are usually the result of the action of these strong organic and inorganic acids. Lime is usually added to the acid soils to increase the soil pH. The addition of lime not only replaces hydrogen ions and raises soil pH, thereby eliminating most major problems associated with acid soils, but it also provides two nutrients, calcium and magnesium, to the soil. Lime also makes phosphorus that is added to the soil, more available for plant growth and increases the availability of nitrogen by hastening the decomposition of organic matter. Liming materials are relatively inexpensive, comparatively mild to handle and leave no objectionable residues in the soil.

• International Solar Alliance (ISA): Recently, the Sixth Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) was convened at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi. The assembly announced an increase in Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for projects, raising it from 10% to a range of 10% to 35% to foster greater investments, particularly in African countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Four projects supported by the ISA were inaugurated during the assembly. These initiatives spanned across different countries: Solarization of the Malawi Parliament. Solarization of rural healthcare centres in Fiji. International Solar Alliance (ISA): Initially conceived as a joint effort by India and France, ISA was conceptualized during the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) in 2015. Currently, 116 countries are signatories, with 94 having completed the necessary ratification to become full members. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The ISA is guided by its ‘Towards 1000’ strategy which aims to mobilize USD 1,000 billion of investments in solar energy solutions by 2030, while delivering energy access to 1,000 million people using clean energy solutions and resulting in installation of 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. This would help mitigate global solar emissions to the tune of 1,000 million tonnes of CO₂ every year. 

• CBDCs are a digital form of paper currency and unlike cryptocurrencies that operate in a regulatory vacuum, these are legal tenders issued and backed by a central bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency. A fiat currency is a national currency that is not pegged to the price of a commodity such as gold or silver. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Bahamas has been the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC — Sand Dollar in 2020. Hence, statement 3 is not correct 

The Wide-Bandgap Semiconductors: They are semiconductors materials which have a larger bandgap than the conventional semiconductors. The conventional semiconductors, like silicon, have a bandgap in the range of 1-1.5 EV (silicon and gallium arsenide), whereas the wide bandgap materials have bandgaps in the range of above 2 EV. Examples of the wide-bandgap semiconductors:
1. Boron nitride
2. Diamond
3. Zinc
4. Gallium nitride
5. Zinc oxide
6. Tin dioxide
7. Aluminium phosphide
8. Cadmium sulphide
9. Silicon carbide Benefits of the wide-bandgap semiconductors:
1. Permit the devices to operate at much higher voltages and frequencies.
2. The devices can operate at higher temperatures of the order of 300o C.
3. Higher temperature tolerance allows these devices to operate at much higher power levels.
4. Applications: They are the key components to make green and blue LEDs and lasers, certain radio frequency applications, notably military radars. 

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Born: 31st October 1875 in Nadiad, Gujarat. First Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of India. He always requested the people of India to live together by uniting (Ek Bharat) in order to create a foremost India (Shresth Bharat). This ideology still reflects in the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative which seeks to make India Self-Reliant. Headed various Committees of the Constituent Assembly of India, namely: Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas. Provincial Constitution Committee. Reforms: He worked extensively against alcohol consumption, untouchability, caste discrimination and for women emancipation in Gujarat and outside. Integrated the farmer’s cause in Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) with the national freedom movement. Women of Bardoli bestowed the title ‘Sardar’ on Vallabhbhai Patel, which means ‘a Chief or a Leader’. Remembered as the ‘Patron Saint of India’s Civil Servants’ as he established the modern all-India services system. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Many local winds, some hot, others cold are common around the Mediterranean Sea. The causes are many and varied. The topography of the region with the high Alps in the north, the Sahara desert in the south, continental interiors in the east and the open Atlantic on the west give rise to great differences in temperature, pressure and precipitation.
• The passing cyclones from the Atlantic, the anticyclones from the north, and the cold air masses from the continental interiors are often interrupted or channelled by relief features, resulting in the birth of local winds around the Mediterranean. These winds varying in strength, direction and duration affect the lives, crops and activities of the people there.
• Sirocco.
  • This is a hot dry dusty wind which originates in the Sahara Desert . Though it may occur at any time of the year, it is most frequent in spring and normally lasts for only a few days. The Sirocco blows outwards in a southerly direction from the desert interiors into the cooler Mediterranean Sea. It is usually associated with depressions from the Atlantic passing from the coast eastwards inland. • Mistral.
  • Mistral is a cold wind from the north of Mediterranean sea , rushing down the Rhone valley in violent gusts between 40 and 80 miles per hour. The velocity of the Mistral is intensified by the funnelling effect in the valley between the Alps and the Central Massif, and in extreme cases trains may be derailed and trees uprooted.
• A similar type of cold north-easterly wind experienced along the Adriatic coast is called the Bora. Like the Mistral, it is caused by a difference in pressure between continental Europe and the Mediterranean. This usually occurs in winter, when the atmospheric pressure over continental Europe is higher than that of the Mediterranean Sea.
• In West Africa, the North- East Trades blow offshore from the Sahara Desert and reach the Guinea coast as a dry, dust -laden wind, called locally the Harmattan meaning The doctor’.
  • It is so dry that its relative humidity seldom exceeds 30 per cent. The doctor’ provides a welcome relief from the damp air of the Guinea lands by increasing the rate of evaporation with resultant cooling effects, but it is such a dry dusty wind that , besides ruining the crops, it also stirs up a thick dusty haze and impedes inland river navigation.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

PM e-Vidya:

• About: A comprehensive initiative called PM e-VIDYA was initiated as part of Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan in 2020. It unifies all efforts related to digital/online/on-air education to enable multi mode access to education. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The PM eVidya initiative is available to all the students across all the states free of cost. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Key Components of PM eVidya: Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA): DIKSHA is the nation’s digital infrastructure for providing quality e-content for school education in States/Union Territories and QR coded Energized Textbooks for all grades. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• DIKSHA Portal and Mobile App: It has been created by the Ministry of Education as a storehouse of a large number of eBooks and e-Contents created by States/UTs and National level organizations

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’s Framework on Green Deposits:

The Framework defines “Green Deposit” as an interest-bearing deposit, received by the ‘Regulated Entity’ (RE) for a fixed period and the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance. The provisions of these instructions shall be applicable to the following entities, collectively referred to as the ‘Regulated Entities’ (REs):

• Scheduled Commercial Banks, including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks); and
• All deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), registered with the Reserve Bank of India, under The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, including the Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), registered under Section 29A of The National Housing Bank Act, 1987. Proceeds raised through the Green Deposits cannot be allocated for the following:
• Projects involving new or existing extraction, production and distribution of fossil fuels, including improvements and upgrades; or where the core energy source is fossil-fuel based.
• Nuclear power generation.
• Direct waste incineration.
• Alcohol, weapons, tobacco, gaming or palm oil industries.
• Renewable energy projects that generate energy from biomass using feedstock originating from the protected areas.
• Landfill projects.
• Hydropower plants larger than 25 MW

Quality Council of India (QCI) The Quality Council of India (QCI), an autonomous organization of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry hosted the 3rd International Convention on Sustainable Trade and Standards (ICSTS) in New Delhi. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The ICSTS aims to raise awareness and foster dialogue on the challenges and opportunities of voluntary sustainability standards (VSS), which are tools to improve the environmental and social aspects of global value chains.

Key Terms India Good Agricultural Practices (IndG.AP.):

• GLOBAL Good Agricultural Practices (GLOBALG.A.P.):
  • National Technical Working Group (NTWG): Quality Council of India (QCI) IndG.AP, is a certification scheme developed by the QCI to promote the production of safe and quality agricultural products in India. IndG.AP. covers various aspects of farming such as soil, water, crop health, environmental protection, worker welfare, and food safety. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It is an internationally recognized standard that ensures quality management, safety, and traceability in the field of growing plants, vegetables, tubers, fruits, poultry, cattle, and aquatic products. The NTWG is a group that bridges the gap between global and local issues. They identify adaptation and application challenges at a national level and develop national interpretation guidelines (NIGs). NIGs support cost-effective audit processes around the world. QCI is a non-profit organization registered under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. It was jointly established by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations, Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) in 1997. QCI was established to promote and enhance quality standards across various sectors in India. It is responsible for accreditation, certification, and quality promotion in India. The DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry was designated as the nodal point for all matters connected with quality and QCI to structure and help implement the Cabinet decision 

• "It is a long-range surface-to-surface laser-guided missile."
  The Hellfire missile is typically an air-to-surface missile, primarily used from helicopters and UAVs. It is indeed laser-guided. This statement is incorrect because Hellfire is not generally categorized as a surface-to-surface missile.

• "It is a supersonic tactical missile."
  The Hellfire missile is subsonic, meaning it does not travel faster than the speed of sound. It has a lower velocity compared to supersonic missiles. So, this statement is incorrect.

• "It is propelled by a single-stage solid-propellant solid-fuel rocket motor."
  The Hellfire missile uses a solid-fuel rocket motor and is indeed single-stage. This statement is correct.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option A 

Kamet Peak is the highest point in Zaskar range. It lies in the Chamoli District of Uttarakhand. Shipki, Lipu Lekh and Mana are situated in this range. Kargil lies in the Zaskar Range of the Himalayas. 

• Majorana Fermions: In particle physics, fermions are a class of elementary particles that include electrons, protons, neutrons and quarks, all of which make up the building blocks of the matter. Dirac Fermions: For the most part, these particles are considered Dirac fermions, after the English physicist Paul Dirac, who first predicted that all fermionic fundamental particles should have a counterpart, somewhere in the universe, in the form of an anti-particle – essentially, an identical twin of the opposite charge.
• Majorana Fermions: In 1937, the Italian theoretical physicist, Ettore Majorana, extended Dirac’s theory, predicting that among fermions, there should be some particles, since named Majorana fermions that are indistinguishable from their anti- particles. Some scientists believe Neutrinos to be Majorana particles. If they could be harnessed, the Majorana fermions would be ideal as qubits, or individual computational units for quantum computers.
• The idea is that a qubit would be made of combinations of pairs of the Majorana fermions, each of which would be separated from its partner. If noise errors affect one member of the pair, the other should remain unaffected, thereby preserving the integrity of the qubit and enabling it to correctly carry out a computation. Note: Thus, not all particles have an anti- particle.

• The SARFAESI Act of 2002 The SARFAESI Act 2002 enables banks to reduce nonperforming assets through recovery methods and reconstruction as it allows banks and other financial institutions for auctioning residential or commercial properties to recover a bad loan when a borrower fails to repay the loan amount. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• The law is applicable throughout the country and covers all assets, movable or immovable, promised as security to the lender, except those excluded under Section 31 of the Act are covered under the SARFAESI Act 2002. So, Statement 2 is correct. The provisions of this Act apply to outstanding loans above Rs.1 lakh, which are classified as Nonperforming Assets (NPA). The SARFAESI Act isn't applicable for:
  • The NPA loan accounts amount to less than 20% of the principal and interest.
  • Money or security issued under the Indian Contract Act or the Sale of Goods Act 1930.
  • Any rights of the unpaid seller under Section 47 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
  • Any conditional hire-purchase, sale, lease or other contracts in which no security interest has been created.
  • Any properties that is not liable to attachment or sale under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Voice of the Global South Summit (VOGSS):

• India recently concluded its second ‘Voice of the Global South Summit’ (VOGSS), held virtually. This summit follows the inaugural summit in January 2023, signaling India's commitment to fostering solidarity among nations and consolidating its leadership in the Global South. The inaugural session centered around ‘Together, for Everyone’s Growth, with Everyone’s Trust’, while the concluding session emphasized ‘Global South: Together for One Future.’ Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Global South Center of Excellence 'DAKSHIN': The Indian PM inaugurated this initiative, aimed at fostering collaboration among developing nations by serving as a knowledge repository and think tank. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) The CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs and later transferred to the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, currently functioning as an attached office. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. The CBI operates under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. It is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. Hence, both statement 2 and 3 are correct.
• It investigates cases related to bribery, governmental corruption, breaches of central laws, multi state organized crime, and multi-agency or international cases.

•  The 103rd Constitution Amendment Act provides for 10% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for the economically weaker section in the unreserved category. (This 10% ceiling is independent of ceilings on existing reservations). Hence Statement 1 is not correct. The Act amends Articles 15 and 16 to provide for reservation based on economic backwardness. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The new clause (6) to Article 15 allows the government to carve reservations for the economically weaker sections of society in higher educational institutions, including private ones, whether they are aided or not by the State. Minority educational institutions are exempted. Likewise, the new clause (6) to Article 16 provides for a quota for economically deprived sections in the initial appointment in government services.
• Indra Sawhney & Others vs Union of India, 1992: The Supreme Court while upholding the 27% quota for backward classes, struck down the government notification reserving 10% government jobs for economically backward classes among the higher castes. Hence Statement 3 is correct. SC in the same case also upheld the principle that the combined reservation beneficiaries should not exceed 50% of India’s population. 

• Most known volcanic activity and earthquakes occur along converging plate margins and mid-oceanic ridges. Nearly 70 percent of earthquakes occur in the Circum-Pacific belt. Another 20 percent of earthquakes take place in the Mediterranean-Himalayan belt including Asia Minor, the Himalayas, and parts of north-west China.
• Only 10 percent to 20 percent of all volcanic activity is above the sea, and terrestrial volcanic mountains are small when compared to their submarine counterparts. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The circum-Pacific region popularly termed the ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’, has the greatest concentration of active volcanoes. The volcanic belt and earthquake belt closely overlap along the ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’.
• Mount Cameroon
  • It is an active volcano that is also known by many other names, and it is located near the Gulf of Guinea, within the Republic of Cameroon.
  • Mt. Cameroon is the highest peak in sub-Saharan western and central Africa and the westernmost extension of a series of hills and mountains that form a natural boundary between northern Cameroon and Nigeria. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In Africa, some volcanoes are found along the East African Rift Valley, e.g. Mt. Kilimanjaro and Mt. Kenya. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Mount Kilimanjaro
  • Located in Tanzania, Mount Kilimanjaro is Africa’s tallest mountain at about 5,895 meters (19,340 feet). It is the largest free-standing mountain rise in the world, meaning it is not part of a mountain range.
  • Also called a stratovolcano (a term for a very large volcano made of ash, lava, and rock), Kilimanjaro is made up of three cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. Kibo is the summit of the mountain and the tallest of the three volcanic formations. While Mawenzi and Shira are extinct, Kibo is dormant and could possibly erupt again. Scientists estimate that the last time it erupted was 360,000 years ago.
• Mediterranean volcanism
  • Volcanoes of the Mediterranean region are mainly associated with the Alpine folds, e.g. Vesuvius, Stromboli (Light House of the Mediterranean) and those of the Aegean islands. A few continue into Asia Minor (Mt. Ararat, Mt. Elbruz).
  • Mt. Stromboli is a small island in the Tyrrhenian Sea, off the north coast of Sicily, containing one of the three active volcanoes in Italy. It is one of the eight Aeolian Islands, a volcanic arc north of Sicily.

• Adopt a Heritage Scheme: About: It is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Tourism, Ministry of Culture ASI, and State/UTs governments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was launched on 27 September 2017 (World Tourism Day) by the President of India. Aim: The Project aims to develop synergy among all partners to effectively promote ‘responsible tourism’. It aims to involve public sector companies, private sector companies, and corporate citizens/individuals to take up the responsibility for making our heritage and tourism more sustainable. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It is to be done through the development, operation, and maintenance of world-class tourist infrastructure and amenities at ASI/ State heritage sites and other important tourist sites in India. Monument Mitras: Agencies/Companies would become ‘Monument Mitras’ through the innovative concept of ‘Vision Bidding’, where the agency with the best vision for the heritage site will be given an opportunity to associate pride with their CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) activities.

Hence, satement 3 is correct.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:

• Birth:
  • Born on 19th February 1630, at Shivneri Fort in Pune District, Maharashtra, he was the son of Shahaji Bhonsle, a Maratha general with jagirs in Pune and Supe under the Bijapur Sultanate, and Jijabai, a deeply religious woman who greatly influenced him.
• Titles:
  • He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Administration under Shivaji:

• Central Administration:
  • He established a centralised administration with a council of eight ministers (Ashtapradhan) who were directly responsible to him and advised him on various matters of the state.
  • The Peshwa, also known as the Mukhya Pradhan, originally headed the advisory council of Raja Shivaji.
• Provincial administration:
  • Shivaji divided his kingdom into four provinces. Each province was further divided into districts and villages. The village was the basic unit of administration and was governed by a Deshpande or Patel with the help of a village panchayat.
  • Like the centre, there was a committee or council of eight ministers with Sar-i-‘Karkun’ or the ‘prantpati’ (Head of the province).
• Revenue Administration:
  • Shivaji abolished the Jagirdari System and replaced it with the Ryotwari System, and made changes in the position of hereditary revenue officials which were popularly known as Deshmukhs, Deshpande, Patils , and Kulkarnis. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Shivaji strictly supervised the Mirasdars who had hereditary rights in land.
  • The revenue system was patterned on the Kathi system of Malik Amber in which every piece of land was measured by Rod or Kathi.
  • Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were other sources of income.
• Military Administration:
  • Shivaji established an efficient army, paying ordinary soldiers in cash and highranking officials through jagir grants (Saranjam). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • His military included infantry (Mavali foot soldiers), cavalry (horse riders and equipment handlers), and a navy.
• Death:
  • Shivaji passed away in Raigad in 1680 and was cremated at the Raigad Fort. Shivaji Maharaj Jayanti is celebrated each year on 19th February to remember and praise his courage, warfare tactics and administrative skills.

India-Australia Relations:

• Australia and India concluded the Mutual Logistic Support Arrangement (MLSA) in 2020 during the virtual summit between Australia's former Prime Minister Scott Morrison and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The agreement facilitates sophisticated logistic cooperation, enabling increasingly complex military engagement, and greater combined responsiveness to regional humanitarian disasters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Engagement between the Royal Australian Navy and the Indian Navy has advanced significantly through the key bilateral exercise, AUSINDEX. In 2019, the third edition of the biennial exercise saw Australia send over 1000 Australian personnel to India, including five ships, Australian Army forces and RAAF aircraft. In the subsequent exercise held in Australia in 2021, India reciprocated sending two ships to participate in an activity, reduced in scope due to Australian COVID restrictions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In June 2020, Australia and India upgraded their Secretaries’ 2+2 dialogue (Defence and Foreign Affairs) to the Ministerial level. Ministers from the two countries meet regularly to engage on the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. Recently, the 2nd India-Australia 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue was held in New Delhi, India, where foreign Affairs Ministers and Defense Ministers of both countries attended the Meeting. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Weight of an object is the force with which the earth attracts it. We are conscious of our own weight when we stand on a surface since the surface exerts a force opposite to our weight to keep us at rest. When an object is in free fall, it is weightless and this phenomenon is usually called the phenomenon of weightlessness. In a satellite around the earth, every part and parcel of the satellite has an acceleration towards the center of the earth which is exactly the value of the earth’s acceleration due to gravity at that position. Thus in the satellite, everything inside it is in a state of free fall. This is just as if we were falling towards the earth from a height. Thus, in a manned satellite, people inside experience no gravity. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Earth's gravitational pull will become zero only at an infinite distance from Earth which is a hypothetical situation.

• The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by Russia, capable of intercepting and destroying various aerial targets, such as aircraft, drones, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• THAAD is an acronym for Terminal High Altitude Area Defense, a transportable, ground-based anti ballistic missile defence system. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• This system has been designed and manufactured by the USA company Lockheed Martin. Iron Dome is a ground-to-air defence system that comprises radar and interceptor missiles that are capable of tracking and neutralising any rockets or missiles fired towards targets in Israel. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Dark patterns, also known as deceptive patterns, refer to strategies employed by websites and apps to make users perform actions they did not intend to or discourage behaviors that are not advantageous for the companies. The CCPA has outlined 13 types of dark patterns in its notification for prevention and regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023.. They are: False Urgency: Creating a false sense of urgency or scarcity to induce immediate purchases. Basket Sneaking: Inclusion of additional items at checkout without user consent, resulting in higher payments. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
• Confirm Shaming: Using fear or shame to nudge users into specific actions for commercial gains. Forced Action: Compelling users to take actions requiring additional purchases or sharing personal information. Subscription Trap: Making cancellation complex, hiding options, or forcing payment details for free subscriptions. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
• Interface Interference: Manipulating the user interface to misdirect users from intended actions. Bait and Switch: Deceptively serving an alternate outcome than advertised based on user actions. Drip Pricing: Concealing prices upfront, revealing them post-confirmation, or preventing service use unless additional items are purchased. Disguised Advertisement: Posing advertisements as other content to trick users into clicking. Nagging: Persistent interactions disrupting and annoying users for commercial gains. Trick Question: Deliberate use of confusing language to misguide users. Saas Billing: Generating recurring payments in a software as a service (SaaS) model. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
• Rogue Malwares: Using ransomware or scareware to mislead users into paying for fake malware removal tools.

• The Limits to Growth: Published by the Club of Rome in 1972 – The message of this book still holds today: The Earth’s interlocking resources – the global system of nature in which we all live – probably cannot support the present rates of economic and population growth, much beyond the year 2100, if that long, even with advanced technology. In the summer of 1970, an international team of researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) began a study of the implications of the continued worldwide growth. They examined the 5 basic factors that determine and, in their interactions, ultimately limit growth on this planet: population increase, agricultural production, non-renewable resource depletion, industrial output and pollution generation.
• The MIT team fed data on these 5 factors into a global computer model and then tested the behaviour of the model under several sets of assumptions, to determine alternative patterns for the mankind’s future. The Limits to Growth is the non-technical report of their findings. The book contains a message of hope, as well: Man can create a society in which he can live indefinitely on the Earth if he imposes limits on himself and his production of material goods to achieve a state of global equilibrium with population and production in carefully selected balance.

The Aravalli Hills are highly eroded hills that lie on the western and northwestern margins of the Peninsular plateau. They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest-northeast direction. It gives rise to several important rivers, including the Banas, Luni, Sakhi, and Sabarmati. The river Betwa is present in Central and Northern India, a tributary of the Yamuna. It has its origin in the Vindhyan range just north of Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh. So, Option (b) is correct.

• The Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Act, 2020 was enacted by the state government in March 2021. The law provided for 75% reservation for local candidates in private sector jobs with a monthly salary of less than Rs 30,000(originally Rs 50,000) for 10 years. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Act covered various entities, including companies, societies, trusts, partnership firms, and large individual employers. Employers with 10 or more employees were included, but central or state governments and their organizations were exempt. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The law required the employers to register their employees on a government portal and to obtain a certificate of domicile for the local candidates. A "local candidate" domiciled in the State of Haryana could avail the reservation by registering on a designated online portal. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The law was aimed at providing employment opportunities and skill development for the local youth, especially the unskilled and semi-skilled workers, and to reduce the influx of migrants from other states.

• During the southwest monsoon period after having rained for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as a break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common during the rainy season. These breaks in the different regions are due to different reasons:
  • In northern India, rains are likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are not very frequent along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ over this region.
  • Over the west coast, the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the coast.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Upon launch, a satellite or spacecraft is most often placed in one of several particular orbits around Earth – or it might be sent on an interplanetary journey, meaning that it does not orbit Earth anymore, but instead orbits the Sun until its arrival at its final destination, like Mars or Jupiter.
• There are many factors that decide which orbit would be best for a satellite to use, depending on what the satellite is designed to achieve.
  • Geostationary orbit (GEO)
  • Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
  • Medium Earth orbit (MEO)
  • Polar orbit and Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO)
  • Transfer orbits and geostationary transfer orbits (GTO)
• Geostationary orbit (GEO) Satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) circle Earth above the equator from west to east following Earth’s rotation – taking 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds – by travelling at exactly the same rate as Earth. This makes satellites in GEO appear to be ‘stationary’ over a fixed position. In order to perfectly match Earth’s rotation, the speed of GEO satellites should be about 3 km per second at an altitude of 35 786 km. This is much farther from Earth’s surface compared to many satellites.
• Low Earth orbit (LEO) A low Earth orbit (LEO) is, as the name suggests, an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth – which is low compared to other orbits, but still very far above Earth’s surface.
• By comparison, most commercial aeroplanes do not fly at altitudes much greater than approximately 14 km, so even the lowest LEO is more than ten times higher than that.
• Polar orbit and Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) Satellites in polar orbits usually travel past Earth from north to south rather than from west to east, passing roughly over Earth's poles.
• Satellites in a polar orbit do not have to pass the North and South Pole precisely; even a deviation within 20 to 30 degrees is still classed as a polar orbit. Polar orbits are a type of low Earth orbit, as they are at low altitudes between 200 to 1000 km.
• Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a particular kind of polar orbit. Satellites in SSO, travelling over the polar regions, are synchronous with the Sun. This means they are synchronised to always be in the same ‘fixed’ position relative to the Sun. This means that the satellite always visits the same spot at the same local time – for example, passing the city of Paris every day at noon exactly.
• This means that the satellite will always observe a point on the Earth as if constantly at the same time of the day, which serves a number of applications; for example, it means that scientists and those who use satellite images can compare how somewhere changes over time.
• This is because, if you want to monitor an area by taking a series of images of a certain place across many days, weeks, months, or even years, then it would not be very helpful to compare somewhere at midnight and then at midday – you need to take each picture as similarly as the previous picture as possible. Therefore, scientists use image series like these to investigate how weather patterns emerge, to help predict weather or storms; when monitoring emergencies like forest fires or flooding; or to accumulate data on long-term problems like deforestation or rising sea levels.
• Often, satellites in SSO are synchronised so that they are in constant dawn or dusk – this is because by constantly riding a sunset or sunrise, they will never have the Sun at an angle where the Earth shadows them. A satellite in a Sun-synchronous orbit would usually be at an altitude of between 600 to 800 km. At 800 km, it will be travelling at a speed of approximately 7.5 km per second.
• GSAT-31: India’s telecommunication satellite, it was successfully launched on February 06, 2019, from Kourou launch base, French Guiana by Ariane-5 VA-247. GSAT-31 is configured on ISRO’s enhanced I- 2K Bus, utilising the maximum bus capabilities of this type. This satellite will augment the Ku-band transponder capacity in Geostationary Orbit. Weighing about 2536 kg, GSAT-31 will provide continuity to operational services on some of the in-orbit satellites. The satellite derives its heritage from ISRO’s earlier INSAT/GSAT satellite series. The satellite provides Indian mainland and island coverage.
• RISAT-2BR1 is a radar imaging earth observation satellite. The satellite will provide services in the field of Agriculture, Forestry and Disaster Management. Launch Mass: 628 Kg, Launch Vehicle: PSLV- C48/RISAT-2BR1, Type of Satellite: Earth Observation, Manufacturer: ISRO, Application: Disaster Management System, Earth Observation, Orbit Type: LEO (Low Earth Orbit).
• EMISAT is a satellite built around ISRO’s Mini Satellite-2 bus weighing about 436 kg. The satellite was successfully placed in its intended sun-synchronous polar orbit of 748 km height by PSLV-C45 on April 01, 2019. The satellite is intended for electromagnetic spectrum measurement.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.