UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Test  >   Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Mock Test Series  >  UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 Free


Full Mock Test & Solutions: UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 (80 Questions)

You can boost your UPSC 2026 exam preparation with this UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of UPSC 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 80
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

Sign up on EduRev for free and get access to these mock tests, get your All India Rank, and identify your weak areas to improve your marks & rank in the actual exam.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 1

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

In effect, the Sustainable Development Goals Index celebrates rich countries while turning a blind eye to the damage they are causing. Ecological economists have long warned against this approach. It violates the principle of “strong sustainability,” which holds that good performance on development indicators cannot legitimately substitute for destructive levels of ecological impact. The SDG Index team is aware of this problem. It’s even mentioned in their methodological notes - but then it’s swept under the rug in favor of a final metric that has little grounding in ecological principles.
Q. Which one of the following is best reflects the crux of the passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Option (a) is correct as the passage mentions, “Sustainable Development Goals Index celebrates rich countries while turning a blind eye to the damage they are causing. It violates the principle of “strong sustainability,” which holds that good performance on development indicators cannot legitimately substitute for destructive levels of ecological impact.” Thus, even high scores don’t necessarily ensure high levels of sustainability.

Option (b) is incorrect as the passage only mentions the “rich countries”. So, to specifically assume them to be Nordic countries would be out of the scope of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect. The opening lines of the passage, “In effect, the Sustainable Development Goals Index celebrates rich countries while turning a blind eye to the damage they are causing” clearly highlights the issue with SDG indicators. It implies that a country can score well in SDG development indicators even when it causes environmental damage. However, this is not the crux of the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect as the passage merely talks about the issues with SDG indicators and stops short of suggesting measures to address the problem. This option could have been a good practical suggestion, but it is not the central message.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 2

Direction: Read the following  passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

While infrastructure is essential for creating safe and inclusive places, we cannot underplay the importance of changing mindsets. There is a need for the sensitization of students, teachers, and staff in all educational institutions, from primary schools to universities, on understanding and accepting queer and transgender folks. India has taken a step in the right direction by enacting the Transgender Persons Act, which speaks of a trans-inclusive education system wherein transgender students learn with other students without fear of discrimination, neglect, or harassment.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Presently every stakeholder in educational institutions is not adequately sensitized about transgender persons.
2.Before the enactment of the Transgender Persons Act, there was no any Act in the country to deal with transgender persons.
3.The said Act will empower the transgender while removing difficulties they face in every sector.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “There is a needfor the sensitization ofstudents, teachers, and staff in all educational institutions, from primary schools to universities, on understanding and accepting queer and transgender folks.” It clearly implies that every stakeholder i.e. students, teachers and staff is not adequately sensitized about transgender persons, which is why the author mentioned the need for sensitization of all stakeholders. So this is a correct statement.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage nowhere talks about any Act before the said Act. So we cannot assume whether there was any law before the said Act or not. The passage also nowhere compares the said Act with any other Act in force. So this is an incorrect statement.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “'India has taken a step in the right direction by enacting the Transgender Persons Act, which speaks of a trans-inclusive education system wherein transgender students learn with other students without fear of discrimination, neglect, or harassment.” It implies the removal of difficulties in the education sector. The passage is silent on other sectors like employment, reservation, marriage, etc. So here we cannot assume about other sectors. So, this is an incorrect statement.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 3

A number is multiplied by one-sixth, then divided by one-seventh, and then multiplied by seven-tenth. Result is what percent of the original number?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The best way to do this is to start with 100 and calculate the result.
The final number will be as follows: [(100 × 1/6) ÷ 1/7] × 7/10
= (100/1) × (1/6) × (7/1) × (7/10)
= 245 /3

So, the final number will be of the original number which is 245/3 %.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 4

A candidate who gets 20% marks, fails by 10 marks. Another candidate who gets 42% marks, gets 12% of the maximum marks more than the passing marks. Find the maximum marks.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Let the maximum marks be “x”.
Candidate who gets 42% marks, gets 12% of the maximum marks more than the passing marks.
So, Pass percentage = (42 - 12)% of x = 30% of x
Candidate who gets 20% marks, fails by 10 marks.
So, Pass percentage = 20% of x + 10
So, 30% of x = 20% of x + 10
Or 30% of x - 20% of x = 10
Or 10% of x = 10
Or x = (10/10) x 100 = 100
Therefore, maximum marks = 100
Hence, option (b) is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 5

If the difference between P and R is r% of R, and the sum of P and R is 210, then which of the following statements is always true?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

  1. P = 110, R = 100

    • Sum: 110 + 100 = 210 ✓

    • Difference: 110 − 100 = 10. Is 10 equal to “r percent of 100”? Well, 10 is 10 percent of 100, so r = 10 % works perfectly. ✓

  2. P = 30, R = 180

    • Sum: 30 + 180 = 210 ✓

    • Difference: 30 − 180 = −150. For that to be “r percent of 180,” you would need r = (−150 ÷ 180) × 100, which is about −83.33 %. In other words, r would be negative, which is not the usual interpretation of “r percent.” So this option forces r to be negative.

  3. P = 3000, R = 3200

    • Sum: 3000 + 3200 = 6200, which is not 210. ✗

Since only the first pair (P = 110, R = 100) satisfies both “P + R = 210” and “difference is r percent of R” with a nonnegative r, the answer is:

P = 110, R = 100.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 6

How much water must be added to a 100 cc of 80% solution of boric acid to reduce it to a 50% solution?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Quantity of boric acid in 100 cc solution = 80% of 100 cc = 80 cc
Quantity of water in 100 cc solution = 100 cc - 80 cc = 20 cc
Let x cc of water be added to get the concentration of 50%.
So, (80)/(100 + x) = 50/100
or (80)/(100 + x) = 1/2
or 80 × 2 = (100 + x)
or x = 160 - 100 = 60 cc
Thus, 60 cc of water must be added.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Alternate method:
Concentration of boric acid in 100 cc solution = 80% of 100 cc = 80 cc
Quantity of water in 100 cc solution = 100 cc - 80 cc = 20 cc
Here we are adding water.
So, amount of boric acid is fixed.
When water is added to the solution, boric acid reduces to 50% of the solution.
Thus, 50% of the solution contains 80 cc.
So, 100% of the solution contains 160 cc.
Amount of water to be added in the solution = 160 cc - 100 cc = 60 cc
Hence, option (d) is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 7

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Pesticide resistance is increasing and farmers’ and other pest managers’ dependencies on chemical insecticides have led to a high frequency of insecticide resistance in some crop systems. To fight pesticide resistance and based on a knowledge of the genetics of the development of pesticide resistance, several principles must be adhered to for delaying the emergence of resistance or avoiding it entirely. These principles include pesticide rotation or switching, avoiding unnecessary pesticide applications, using non-chemical control techniques, and leaving untreated refuges where susceptible pests can survive.
Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Option (a) is correct. This is the correct option because it mentions the core idea of the passage. The lines “To fight pesticide resistance .... several principles must be adhered to for delaying the emergence of resistance or cwoiding it entirely. These principles include pesticide rotation or switching, avoiding unnecessary pesticide applications, using non-chemical control techniques, and leaving untreated refuges where susceptible pests can sunnve ” properly captures the essence of the given option.

Option (b) is incorrect. The option states one of the probable consequences of long-term pesticide resistance, namely food insecurity. However, this is not the main theme of the passage as food insecurity is not discussed in the passage. So, to say that this is the central idea is not correct.

Option (c) is incorrect. This option is beyond the scope of the passage, because the lines “To fight pesticide resistance and based on a knowledge of the genetics of the development of pesticide resistance, several principles must be adhered to for delaying the emergence of resistance or cn’oiding it entirely” only mention about knowledge of genetics to fight pesticide resistance. However, it would be incorrect to infer that it is impossible to develop pesticides without the knowledge of the genetics of pests. Therefore, this is not the central idea of the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect. This option is beyond the scope of the passage because there is no discussion of bio-pesticides in the passage. This option is a practical policy implication, but not the central idea of the passage.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 8

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Today about 25% of modern pharmacopoeia are derived from plants. World Health Organization (WHO) estimated that about 80% of the developing country's population still relies on traditional medicines, mostly plant drugs, to help meet their health care needs. Also, there is an increase in the demand for plant products in both developing and developed countries because of several advantages such as no side effects, non-toxic, and affordable prices. Plants provide the raw material for industries producing pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, perfumes, and fragrance flavours imparting biochemical. Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management of plant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements of food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs.

Q. According to the passage above, what are the different uses of plants?

1. Preparation of medicines

2. Consumption of food

3. Prevention of soil erosion

4. Making perfumes

5. Controlling air pollution

Select the correct answer from code below:

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The lines “Plants provide the raw material for industries producing pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, perfumes, and fragrance flavour imparting biochemical. Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management of plant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements of food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs ” show that plants are used in these processes. So, option (a) is correct.

Statements 3 and 5 are incorrect. The options for the prevention of soil erosion and air pollution are correct in general. However, they are not covered in the passage and the answer has to be based on the information given in the passage. Hence, these statements are not correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 9

In a class, 40% of the boys is same as half of the girls, and there are 20 girls in total. Total number of students in the class is:

Detailed Solution: Question 9

40% of the boys is same as half of the girls, and there are 20 girls.
So, 40% of boys = 20/2 = 10
Therefore, 100% of boys = (10/40%) × 100% = 25
Therefore, total number of boys = 25
Thus, total number of students = 25 + 20 = 45
Hence, option (b) is correct.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 10

A departmental store receives a shipment of 1,000 shirts, for which it pays Rs. 900000. The store sells the shirts at a price 80 per cent above the cost for one month, after which it reduces the price of the shirts to 20 per cent above the cost. The store sells 750 shirts in the first month, and 50 per cent of the remaining shirts afterwards. How much gross income did the sales of the shirts generate?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Cost price of 1,000 shirts = Rs. 900000
So, Cost price of one shirt = 900000/1000 = Rs. 900
The store sells 750 shirts in the first month at a price 80 per cent above the cost price, and 50 per cent of the remaining shirts, i.e. 125 shirts, afterwards at 20 per cent above the cost price.
Gross income generated by selling the shirts = 750 × (180% of Rs. 900) + 125 × (120% of Rs. 900)
= 750 × 1620 + 125 × 1080 
= 1215000 + 135000
= Rs. 1350000

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 11

Two friends Ajit and Lalit made investments in a business in the ratio 60:40. Lalit had borrowed his entire invested amount as personal loan at an annual interest rate of 5%.He repaid this loan after one year. After 5 years of investment, they got a profit of 30% on the total investment they had made. What is the ratio of actual profit made by Ajit and Lalit?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Let Ajit’s and Lalit’s investment be 3x and 2x respectively (v their investment ratio is 60:40 i.e. 3:2)
Profit after 5 years of investment = 30% of 5x = (30/100) 5x = 1.5x
Profit share of Ajit in ratio (60:40) of their investment = 3/5th of 1.5x = 0.9x
Profit share of Lalit = 1.5x - 0.9x = 0.6x
Interest paid by Lalit for one year of borrowing = 5% of 2x = 0.1x
Hence, actual profit of Lalit = 0.6x - 0.1x = 0.5x
Hence, ratio of their profits = (0.9x) : ( 0.5x) = 9 : 5

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 12

A girl was trying to find 7th / 9 of a number. But, she found 9th/7 of the number and realized that the difference between the answer she got & the correct answer is 32. What was the actual number?  

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Consider the number to be n. 
The difference between answers she got (7n/9) & actual number 9n/7 is 32. So,

n = 63

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 13

The average age of three old ladies before 3 years was 42. The average age of second and third old lady 5 years ago was 25. What is the present age of first old lady?  

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Average age of 3 old ladies before 3 years = 42. 
Their present age average O1 + O2 + O3 = 42 + 3 + 45
Total Age = O1 + O2 + O / 3 = 45
= 40 x 3 = 135
O1 + O2 + O3 = 135 ……………..(1)
The average age of 2nd & 3rd old lady 5 years ago = 25. 
Their present age average  = 25 + 5 
  O2 + O3 = 30 
Their total age = O2 + O3 / 2 = 60 ……………..(2)
Substitute (2) in (1) 

The Present age of old lady 1 = 75 years. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 14

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

There are four declared candidates for permanent membership: India, Japan, Brazil and Germany, called the G-4. Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean are unrepresented in the permanent category at present. Africa’s claim for two permanent seats has wide understanding and support, but the Africans have yet to decide which two countries these are to be. As for India, we can discount Pakistan’s opposition; China will not support India nor will it ever support Japan. Brazil has regional opponents and claimants. As for Germany, Italy is firmly opposed to its claim. Italy has an interesting argument. If Germany and Japan – both Axis powers during the Second World War, and hence ‘enemy’ states – were to join as permanent members, that would leave out only Italy, the third founding member of the Axis group. In any case there are already three western nations among the P-5. Even if India enjoyed near universal support, there is no way that India alone can be elected; it will have to be a package deal involving countries from other groups.  There is quite a debate going on about whether the aspiring countries should accept permanent membership without the right of veto. There is no ambiguity regarding the position of the P-5. Every one of them is firmly opposed to conferring the veto power to any prospective new permanent member. Not just the P-5. The vast majority of members do not want any more veto-wielding members in the Council. There is a proposal to the effect that a resolution can be defeated only by a negative vote of at least two permanent members. This also is a non-starter; the P-5 are firmly opposed to any dilution of their privileged position.  

Out of four declared candidates for permanent membership to UN security council, India alone can be elected because :

I. India has near universal support.  

II. Germany’s claim is opposed by India

III. Japan’s claim is opposed by China

IV. Brazil claim is opposed by her neighbors. 

Give the correct answer using the following codes.

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Even if India enjoyed near universal supporter, there is no way that India alone can be elected says the passage. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 15

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

It is always advisable to surrender a child rather than abandon him if the conditions to retain the child are beyond the control of parents or guardian. Abandonment endangers the child’s life. Surrender before the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) is a guarantee that the child will be taken care of till he or she attains majority or is adopted by a fit and willing parent. As most of the reasons for child abandonment are an unwanted pregnancy, breakdown of a relationship, lower socio-economic status, either or both parents being drug addicts or alcoholics, a child can be considered eligible for surrender and declared so after the prescribed process of inquiry and counseling. Further, the disclosure of the identity of such children is prohibited and all reports related to the child are to be treated confidential by the CWC. Hence, there is nothing the parents need to fear about. Also, the surrender of a child does not entail any criminal action.  

What is the most, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? 

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The passage’s core message is that legal surrender to the CWC is safe, confidential, and in the child’s best interest, whereas abandonment puts the child at serious risk.

  • “Women should be encouraged to abort unwanted pregnancies.”
    • Nowhere does the passage discuss abortion. It focuses solely on postnatal options and explicitly urges surrender over abandonment.

  • “Awareness needs to be increased at all levels regarding the ease and importance of surrendering a child to CWC than abandonment.”
    • The text highlights that many parents hesitate only because they fear legal consequences or social stigma—both of which the CWC process dispels. Increasing awareness of this fact directly addresses the passage’s main concern.

  • “Prohibit completely abortion/surrender/abandonment of unwanted pregnancies/children.”
    • The passage does not call for prohibition; it explicitly affirms that surrender is legal and carries no criminal penalty. Prohibiting surrender would contradict the recommendation to use CWC as a safe alternative.

  • “Mothers should be penalized heavily for abandoning a child.”
    • While abandonment is condemned, the passage’s emphasis is on offering a nonpunitive, protective surrender option. Penalizing parents without first ensuring they know about surrender merely perpetuates abandonment rather than preventing it.

Therefore, the only inference fully supported by the passage is that “Awareness needs to be increased at all levels regarding the ease and importance of surrendering a child to CWC rather than abandoning them.”

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 16

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Ukraine has been massively assisted by NATO weaponry, training, communications, satellite and human intelligence, reconnaissance, information processing systems and total control over the global media. While the World Bank is slow to help devastated war-torn nations such as Yemen and Afghanistan, it rushed $4.5 billion to Ukraine, while the International Monetary Fund came up with $1.4 billion. The West fails to understand how hypocritical its sanctions appear. For example, the United States exerted much effort persuading India and others to boycott Iranian and Venezuelan oil, only to try to get those shipments back on the market after its opposition shifted to Russia.  

 From the above passage following assumptions have been drawn:

I. Era of war is coming to an end  

II. Geopolitics and Geoeconomics go hand in hand.  

Which of the above assumptions are/is valid:

Detailed Solution: Question 16

The passage supports Assumption II, as it illustrates how geopolitical strategies (sanctions) are closely tied to geoeconomic actions (financial aid and oil market manipulations).

Assumption I is unsupported because the text indicates ongoing conflict, not its conclusion. Thus, only Assumption II holds true.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 17

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Ladakh’s recent Union Territory status, a government eager to expand economic opportunities via tourism and the Indian Army expanding its infrastructure development, lighting to bolster its defence at the India-China border which is not far away – all these are challenges in keeping light from seeping into Hanle.  To strike a balance, the Ladakh government along with the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and India’s Scientific Ministries is laying the groundwork to have Hanle declared as an International Dark Sky Reserve by the International Dark-Sky Association. Since 1988, the U.S. based non-profit has been advocating the cause of minimizing light pollution and certifies places where night skies are least polluted as International Dark Sky Reserves or sanctuaries.
“The average tourist visits for high roads, exotic landscape, and Pangong Lake. Hanle is already in a wildlife sanctuary and developing it as such a reserve would encourage a newer kind of tourism, or Astro-tourism,” says Kotwal. “The most important condition, however, is that it must have the support of the local community”.  In the weeks ahead, amateur and professional astronomers have been roped in by the IIA and the local government to give talks on constellations to villagers. As many as 18 telescopes will be set up in village clusters, and homestay owners trained in elementary astronomy to guide Astro-tourists. Villagers will also be given dark curtains to minimize outgoing light from residences. The roads will be installed with light delineators.  Having been promised electrification in two years and funds from the government to improve their homes to homestays, residents of the village say they would be happy to comply with light restrictions.   

 From the above passage following are the challenges in keeping artificial light away from Henle:
I. Lighting at the Indo-China border.  

II. Restrictions of Dark-Sky association.  

III. Increased economic activities.

IV. Electrification of the village to improve homes as homestays.  

Select the correct answer using the code below: 

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Challenges in keeping artificial light away from Hanle:

  • Lighting at the Indo-China border.
  • Increased economic activities from tourism and infrastructure development.
  • Electrification of the village to improve homes as homestays.

Restrictions from the Dark-Sky Association are not specifically mentioned as a challenge in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: I, III and IV only.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 18

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Ladakh’s recent Union Territory status, a government eager to expand economic opportunities via tourism and the Indian Army expanding its infrastructure development, lighting to bolster its defence at the India-China border which is not far away – all these are challenges in keeping light from seeping into Hanle.  To strike a balance, the Ladakh government along with the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and India’s Scientific Ministries is laying the groundwork to have Hanle declared as an International Dark Sky Reserve by the International Dark-Sky Association. Since 1988, the U.S. based non-profit has been advocating the cause of minimizing light pollution and certifies places where night skies are least polluted as International Dark Sky Reserves or sanctuaries.
“The average tourist visits for high roads, exotic landscape, and Pangong Lake. Hanle is already in a wildlife sanctuary and developing it as such a reserve would encourage a newer kind of tourism, or Astro-tourism,” says Kotwal. “The most important condition, however, is that it must have the support of the local community”.  In the weeks ahead, amateur and professional astronomers have been roped in by the IIA and the local government to give talks on constellations to villagers. As many as 18 telescopes will be set up in village clusters, and homestay owners trained in elementary astronomy to guide Astro-tourists. Villagers will also be given dark curtains to minimize outgoing light from residences. The roads will be installed with light delineators.  Having been promised electrification in two years and funds from the government to improve their homes to homestays, residents of the village say they would be happy to comply with light restrictions.   

Which of the following measures from the passage will enable Hanle to be developed as an International Dark Sky Reserve:

I. Developing Astro tourism by government.

II. Issue of dark curtains to villagers to minimise outgoing light from the residences.

III. Light delineators for roads.

IV. Support of the local community.

Select the right answer using the code below:  

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The passage identifies measures II, III, and IV as essential steps to develop Hanle as an International Dark Sky Reserve. These include:

  • Issuing dark curtains
  • Installing light delineators
  • Securing local community support

While developing astro-tourism (I) is a potential outcome, it is not listed as a measure taken to achieve the reserve status. Therefore, the correct answer includes only measures II, III, and IV.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 19

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Ladakh’s recent Union Territory status, a government eager to expand economic opportunities via tourism and the Indian Army expanding its infrastructure development, lighting to bolster its defence at the India-China border which is not far away – all these are challenges in keeping light from seeping into Hanle.  To strike a balance, the Ladakh government along with the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and India’s Scientific Ministries is laying the groundwork to have Hanle declared as an International Dark Sky Reserve by the International Dark-Sky Association. Since 1988, the U.S. based non-profit has been advocating the cause of minimizing light pollution and certifies places where night skies are least polluted as International Dark Sky Reserves or sanctuaries.
“The average tourist visits for high roads, exotic landscape, and Pangong Lake. Hanle is already in a wildlife sanctuary and developing it as such a reserve would encourage a newer kind of tourism, or Astro-tourism,” says Kotwal. “The most important condition, however, is that it must have the support of the local community”.  In the weeks ahead, amateur and professional astronomers have been roped in by the IIA and the local government to give talks on constellations to villagers. As many as 18 telescopes will be set up in village clusters, and homestay owners trained in elementary astronomy to guide Astro-tourists. Villagers will also be given dark curtains to minimize outgoing light from residences. The roads will be installed with light delineators.  Having been promised electrification in two years and funds from the government to improve their homes to homestays, residents of the village say they would be happy to comply with light restrictions.   

Once Hanle is declared as an International Dark Sky Reserve, the following are the assumptions that can be made based on the passage:  

I. Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) is likely to gets a boost to its activities.

II. Local community will not get any benefits due to proposed light restrictions.

Select which of the above restrictions are / is valid using the following codes :

Detailed Solution: Question 19

I is a valid assumption because the passage mentions that the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) is involved in activities such as:

  • Setting up telescopes
  • Conducting talks

These activities would likely enhance their operations.

II is not valid because the passage states that local communities are expected to benefit from:

  • Astro-tourism
  • Homestays
  • Electrification
  • Funds for home improvements

This indicates that they do receive benefits despite light restrictions. Thus, only assumption I holds true.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 20

The weightage of 5 tests in a class and the marks scored by Ritu in those tests are as follows. What is the weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

According to the concept,

(12/20 × 15% + 16/20 × 12% + 40/50 × 30% + 80/100 × 10% + 14/20 × 33%)

⇒ (0.09 + 0.096 + 0.24 + 0.08 + 0.231) 

⇒ 0.737 or 73.7%

∴ The weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests is 73.7%

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 21

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Unlike other endangered endemic bird species in the Nilgiris such as the Nilgiri Laughing Thrush (Montecincla cachinnans),which seems to have a degree of adaptability and tolerance for anthropogenic changes to its environment, the Sholakili (Nilgiri Blue Robin) seems to be highly restricted to only Shola forest habitats, making it more susceptible to changes in its environment, said an independent researcher and wildlife biologist. He said the habitats of the Sholakili were shrinking due to expanding plantations, settlements and other construction activities. 

Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The passage highlights that the Sholakili (Nilgiri Blue Robin) is highly habitat-specific and vulnerable to environmental changes, especially due to shrinking Shola forests caused by human activities like plantations and construction. It contrasts this with the Nilgiri Laughing Thrush, which is more adaptable.
The most logical inference is that since the Sholakili is more at risk, it requires urgent research to understand its needs and threats better. This would help in making effective conservation policies to ensure its survival.
Options A, B, and C are either extreme, speculative, or not supported directly by the passage.
Hence, D is the most balanced and actionable inference based on the passage.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 22

Balaji, Arun, Prasad and Vimal are business partners. Their profit is shared in the ratio 3:5 : 9:13 respectively. If the share of prasad is 1800 Rs more than share of Balaji, then what is the total amount of share received by Arun and Vimal?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The total ratio value is 3 + 5 + 9 + 13 = 30  
Share of Prasad = 9x /30 = 3x /10
Share of Balaji = 3x/30 = x / 10
From the question
Prasad = 18000 + Balaji
So, Prasad share – Balaji share = 1800 

x = 9000
Amount of share received by Arun & Vimal  

= 18 x 300
= 5400

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 23

The length and breadth of a rectangular signboard are in the ratio 7 : 2 respectively. Find the perimeter of the signboard if area is 3584 sq m.

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Length = 7 × 16 = 112
Breath = 2 × 16 = 32
Perimeter = 2(l +b)
= 2 (112 + 32)
= 288.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 24

Vishal reaches Patna on Friday and found he reached the place 3 days before. If he had reached Patna on coming Sunday, then how many days before or after he would have reached Patna?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Vishal had reached Patna 3 days earlier i.e on Friday.  
So, the exact day he has to reach is = Friday + 3 = Monday.  
So, If vishal reach on Sunday, he will reach one day before the actual day. 

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 25

Directions for: Study the bar diagram given below to answer these questions 

If the total expenditure of family A is Rs.30,000 then the expenditure accounted for Food, EMI and Entertainment is :

Detailed Solution: Question 25

From the bar for Family A:

  • Food = 40 units

  • EMI = 20 units

  • Entertainment = 10 units

  • Total bar height = 100 units corresponds to ₹30,000

So Food + EMI + Entertainment = 40 + 20 + 10 = 70 units out of 100, i.e. 70% of ₹30,000
→ 0.70 × 30,000 = ₹21,000.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 26

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only. 

As one might expect, depression is strongly correlated with poverty and poor health, but also with loneliness. Among the elderly living alone, in the Tamil Nadu sample, 74% had symptoms that would classify them as likely to be mildly depressed or worse on the short-from Geriatric Depression Scale. Large majority of elderly person living alone are women mainly widows. The hardships of old age are not related to poverty alone, but some cash often helps.  

Q. Which among the following could be the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage:

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Chosen Option:
“Wholistic support systems are needed to take care of elders.”

Why this is the most logical inference:

  • The passage points out that depression among the elderly is not driven solely by poverty (“some cash often helps”) but is also strongly linked to poor health and, especially, loneliness (74% of those living alone in Tamil Nadu showed at least mild depressive symptoms).

  • Merely providing money (old-age pension) addresses only one factor—financial hardship—while depression in late life clearly has multiple causes.

  • There is no evidence in the passage to claim that “old age causes depression” (correlation with poverty, health, and loneliness does not prove age itself is the direct cause).

  • Likewise, the assertion that “in joint families the old will not be depressed” overstates the protective effect of cohabitation: while family can mitigate loneliness, the passage does not guarantee it eliminates depression.

  • Therefore, a comprehensive (“wholistic”) system—combining financial aid, medical care, and social or community support—best matches the passage’s message that elders need more than just income to stave off loneliness and poor health.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 27

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only. 

Politics for Gandhiji, was but a part of man’s life, one that encircles men like the coil of a snake from which one cannot get out, no matter how much one tries. Though he thought that an increase in the power of the state can inflict the greatest harm to mankind by destroying individuality which lays at the root of the progress, yet he viewed political power as a means that enabled people to make their conditions better in every department of life. He wrote, “my work of social reform was no way less or subordinate to political work. The fact is, that when I saw that to a certain extent my social work would be impossible without the help of political work, I took to the latter and only to the extent it served the former”. Political life is not stranger to other aspects of life. He used to say, “My life is one indivisible whole, and all my activities run into one another, and they all have their rise in my insatiable love of mankind”.  Political activity of man is closely associated with other activities of man and all these activities, according to Gandhiji, influence each other. That is why he never separated politics from from other walks of man’s life. What he hated in politics was the concentration of power and the use of violence associated with political power. In his own words,” The state represents violence in a concentrated and organized form. The individual has a soul, but the state is soulless machine, it can never be weaned from violence to which it owes its very existence. What I would personally prefer, would be not a centralization of power in the hands of the State but an extension of the sense of trusteeship ….” Politics and for that matter the state, according to him was not an end, but a means that enabled men to make their lives better. An ideal state or political life is one in which men rule themselves. For Gandhiji there is no political power in the ideal state because in it there is no state. But as the ideal was not fully realized in life, Gandhiji contented himself with Thoureau’s classical statement- that government was best which governed the least.  

From the above passage the following assumptions have been made:  

I. More the power to the State more the progress of individuals.

II. Without State individuals can live better.

Which of the above assumptions are / is valid: 

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The passage indicates that Gandhi viewed increased state power negatively, as it could harm individuality crucial for progress. This makes Assumption I incorrect.

While he favoured minimal governance, he didn't explicitly claim that individuals would live better without a state; thus, Assumption II is also unsupported.

Both assumptions are invalid based on the text.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 28

A test has 100 questions. There is two mark for a correct answer, while there is a negative penalty of one mark for wrong answer and 0.5 marks for unattended question. A student did not attempt 12 questions and secured net total of 68 marks. How many questions did he attempt?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

  1. Define variables
    – Let x be the number of correct answers
    – Let y be the number of wrong answers
    – Unattended questions = 12

  2. Set up the equations
    – Total questions: x + y + 12 = 100
    ⇒ x + y = 88
    – Total score: 2 points per correct, –1 per wrong, +0.5 per unattended
    ⇒ 2·x – 1·y + 0.5·12 = 68
    ⇒ 2x – y + 6 = 68
    ⇒ 2x – y = 62

  3. Solve for x and y
    – From x + y = 88, we get y = 88 – x
    – Substitute into 2x – y = 62:
    2x – (88 – x) = 62
    2x – 88 + x = 62
    3x = 150
    x = 50
    – Then y = 88 – 50 = 38

  4. Number of attempted questions
    – Attempted = correct + wrong = x + y = 50 + 38 = 88

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 29

On independence day, chocolates were to be distributed amongst 300 children. But on that day, 50 students were absent and so, each child got one extra chocolate. How many chocolates were distributed?  

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Let the original number of chocolates per child be n. Then:

• Total chocolates = 300 × n
• Only 250 children showed up, so each got n + 1 chocolates, and all chocolates were handed out: Total = 250 × (n + 1)

Equate:
300 n = 250 (n + 1)
300 n = 250 n + 250
50 n = 250
n = 5

Total chocolates = 300 × 5 = 1500.

UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 - Question 30

Six bells ring at intervals of 2, 3, 5, 6, 9, 12 minutes respectively. They started ringing simultaneously at 5.00 am. Until 2.00 pm, how many times all the bells will ring together?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

They all ring together every LCM(2, 3, 5, 6, 9, 12)

LCM = 2 x 3 x 5 x 3 x 2
= 180 minutes or 3 hours.
Time interval between 5.00 am to 2.00 pm = 9 hours.  
So, for 9 hours, they will ring for 9/3 = 3 times

View more questions
20 tests
Information about UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPSC Indian Forest Service Prelims CSAT (GS2) Mock Test- 10, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice
Download as PDF