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UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 with solutions Attempt Free MCQ Test


Full Mock Test & Solutions: Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 (100 Questions)

You can boost your UPSC 2026 exam preparation with this Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of UPSC 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding India's space programme:

1. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and GSLV LVM-3 have transitioned from experimental missions to operational reliability over the past decade.

2. The absence of a comprehensive national space law in India leads to regulatory ambiguities and burdens the national space agency with responsibilities better suited for specialized bodies.

3. India's competitiveness in the global space sector is primarily reliant on technological innovation without significant need for investment in advanced manufacturing systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

1. Statement 1 is correct: Over the past decade, India has indeed transitioned from conducting experimental missions to achieving operational reliability with the successful launches of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and GSLV LVM-3. This indicates a significant advancement in India's space capabilities, moving towards consistent and reliable space missions.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The absence of a comprehensive national space law in India has led to regulatory ambiguities. This situation imposes additional burdens on the national space agency, which is tasked with roles that might be better handled by specialized regulatory bodies. The lack of clear legislation creates challenges in governance and oversight within the space sector.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: While technological innovation is crucial for competitiveness in the global space sector, significant investment in advanced manufacturing systems is also essential. The global space economy demands cost-efficiency and robust production capabilities, which require substantial investment in advanced manufacturing, not just reliance on technological innovation alone.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 2

What is the primary concern raised by high-performing States regarding central transfers in India?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

High-performing States in India express concerns about the erosion of fiscal autonomy due to the impact of factors like the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and discrepancies between their contributions to Union revenues and the shares they receive in devolution. This issue highlights the ongoing debate on central transfers in the country, reflecting a clash between equity, efficiency, and legitimacy principles within the federal design.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The SHINE Scheme launched by the Union Minister for Consumer Affairs aims to empower women by enhancing their knowledge of safety, quality standards, and consumer protection.
Statement-II:
The full name of the SHINE Scheme is Standards Help Inform & Nurture Empowered Women.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Statement-I correctly summarizes the objective of the SHINE Scheme, which is to empower women by enhancing their knowledge of safety, quality standards, and consumer protection. Statement-II accurately provides the full name of the scheme, which is "Standards Help Inform & Nurture Empowered Women." Statement-II explains the purpose and focus of the SHINE Scheme mentioned in Statement-I, making both statements correct and coherent.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 4

Who is Thiruvalluvar and what is he known for?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Thiruvalluvar, a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher from the Sangam age, is best known for his literary work Tirukkural. This classic Tamil text consists of 1330 couplets focusing on ethics, governance, and social harmony. Thiruvalluvar's teachings are revered across South India, emphasizing moral values and practical wisdom.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 5

What is the top-ranked risk according to the Global Risks Report 2026?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

According to the Global Risks Report 2026, the top-ranked risk is geoeconomic confrontation. This risk is characterized by the use of tariffs, sanctions, investment restrictions, and control over critical minerals. Geoeconomic confrontation has been identified as the most significant immediate global risk in the report, reflecting the current state of global affairs where economic factors play a crucial role in international relations and potential conflicts.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the Startup India initiative:

1. Startup India was launched in 2016 with the aim of creating a conducive environment for innovation and entrepreneurship in India.

2. The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) has been allocated ₹50,000 crore to support Indian startups.

3. Over 45% of recognized startups under this initiative have at least one woman director.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: Correct. Startup India was indeed launched in 2016 with the objective to foster a favorable ecosystem for innovation and entrepreneurship. This initiative has been pivotal in transforming India into a hub for job creators.

Statement 2: Incorrect. The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) has been allocated ₹25,000 crore, not ₹50,000 crore. This fund is aimed at supporting the growth of startups in India through various funding mechanisms.

Statement 3: Correct. The statement about inclusivity under the Startup India initiative is accurate, where over 45% of recognized startups have at least one woman director, highlighting the significant role of women in the entrepreneurship sector.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C, as statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect due to the misreported figure of the allocated fund.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The non-scheduled aviation sector, including private jets and charter aircraft, lacks adequate safety oversight.

Statement-II:
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) recommended enhancing its surveillance of private and charter aircraft through surprise inspections and more rigorous audits to ensure adherence to safety standards.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Statement-I correctly highlights the lack of adequate safety oversight in the non-scheduled aviation sector, specifically mentioning private jets and charter aircraft. Statement-II supports Statement-I by explaining that the DGCA recommended enhancing surveillance through surprise inspections and rigorous audits to ensure safety standards are met. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides additional information that explains the situation described in Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the Enforcement Directorate (ED) and its legal standing:

1. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is empowered to file writ petitions under Article 226 of the Constitution.

2. The ED's ability to file writ petitions is contested because it is not considered a juristic person capable of such actions.

3. Granting the ED the power to file writ petitions could potentially infringe upon State autonomy by bypassing constitutional safeguards.

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Statement 1 is incorrect. The central issue being examined by the Supreme Court is whether the Enforcement Directorate (ED), as a part of the Union Government, possesses the right to file writ petitions under Article 226 of the Constitution. This Article is generally used by individuals or entities to enforce fundamental rights or address legal wrongs. The ability of the ED to file such petitions is under scrutiny and not explicitly granted, hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. The controversy arises because the ED is often viewed not as a separate juristic person with the capacity to initiate legal actions independently but rather as an extension of the Union Government's executive branch. This raises questions about its locus standi to file writ petitions, which is why the ED's ability to do so is contested.

Statement 3 is correct. If the ED were permitted to file writ petitions, it might utilize this power to circumvent State authority and constitutional safeguards designed to maintain the balance of power between the Centre and the States. This could lead to executive overreach and impact the principle of federalism, potentially infringing upon State autonomy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only, as these statements accurately reflect the legal and constitutional debates surrounding the ED's powers.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliamentary Committee emphasized that the current pace of aviation sector growth in India is adequately matched by regulatory oversight.

2. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has been recommended to conduct surprise inspections and rigorous audits of private and charter aircraft.

3. Air Traffic Control (ATC) staffing levels in busy airports have increased proportionally with rising traffic levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Parliamentary Committee highlighted concerns that the growth of India’s aviation sector is outpacing necessary regulatory oversight, indicating that the current pace is not adequately matched by regulatory oversight.

- Statement 2: This statement is correct. The committee indeed recommended that the DGCA enhance its surveillance of private and charter aircraft through surprise inspections and more rigorous audits to ensure adherence to safety standards.

- Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The committee noted that Air Traffic Control (ATC) staffing levels have not increased proportionally with rising traffic levels, and there is a need for accelerated recruitment to address the high workload and prevent fatigue-related human errors.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making Option C the right answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 10

What is the primary purpose of India's engagement with Article 6 under the Paris Agreement?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Answer: A

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is designed to enable cooperative approaches between countries so they can achieve their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) more cost-effectively; central to this is the use of international carbon markets and other cooperation mechanisms that promote global emission reductions.

Article 6.2 permits the transfer of Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs) between Parties, Article 6.4 establishes a supervised mechanism to generate emission reductions with environmental integrity, and Article 6.8 recognises non-market approaches. Together these provisions facilitate the lowering of emissions across countries.

Because the mechanisms under Article 6 are focused on enabling and accounting for cross-border emission reductions and ensuring their integrity, the primary purpose aligns with enhancing global carbon neutrality.

Measures such as technology transfer or industrial modernization may occur as co-benefits of cooperation, but they are not the principal objective of Article 6 mechanisms.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 11

What was the key historical event that led to the collapse of the Pahlavi monarchy in Iran in 1979?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The collapse of the Pahlavi monarchy in Iran in 1979 was primarily triggered by the 1953 coup orchestrated by the British and U.S., aimed at reinstating Mohammad Reza Pahlavi to power. This event, which reinforced the monarchy's rule with Western support, significantly contributed to the build-up of discontent and ultimately led to the revolution that culminated in the establishment of the Islamic Republic under Ayatollah Khomeini.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding the India–Germany Strategic Partnership:

1. The recent visit of the German Chancellor to India marked the 75th anniversary of India–Germany diplomatic relations.

2. A Joint Declaration of Intent (JDoI) was signed to establish a Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap during the visit.

3. The bilateral trade between India and Germany surpassed USD 75 billion in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The German Chancellor's visit to India coincided with the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations between India and Germany. This milestone highlights the long-standing diplomatic ties between the two nations.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. During the visit, a Joint Declaration of Intent (JDoI) was indeed signed to outline a Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap. This roadmap focuses on co-development, technology partnerships, and the expedited clearance of defence exports from Germany, indicating a commitment to enhancing strategic and defence cooperation.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The bilateral trade between India and Germany surpassed USD 50 billion in 2024, not USD 75 billion. Therefore, the figure mentioned in the statement is inaccurate.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs regarding Rani Ahilyabai Holkar and Jallikattu:

1. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar - Founder of the Holkar dynasty

2. Maheshwar - Capital of Holkar dynasty under Rani Ahilyabai

3. Kashi Vishwanath Temple - Reconstructed by Rani Ahilyabai Holkar

4. Jallikattu - Traditional sport during Diwali festival

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

1. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar - Founder of the Holkar dynasty: Incorrect. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar was not the founder of the Holkar dynasty. The dynasty was founded by Malhar Rao Holkar, her father-in-law. Ahilyabai became a prominent ruler of the Holkar state after the deaths of Khanderao Holkar and Male Rao Holkar.

2. Maheshwar - Capital of Holkar dynasty under Rani Ahilyabai: Correct. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar established Maheshwar as the capital of the Holkar dynasty, moving it from Indore.

3. Kashi Vishwanath Temple - Reconstructed by Rani Ahilyabai Holkar: Correct. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar is renowned for her contributions to the reconstruction of several temples across India, including the Kashi Vishwanath Temple in Varanasi.

4. Jallikattu - Traditional sport during Diwali festival: Incorrect. Jallikattu is a traditional bull-taming sport played during the Pongal harvest festival in Tamil Nadu, not during the Diwali festival.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Rani Ahilyabai Holkar:

1. She was instrumental in the reconstruction of both the Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath temples in the 18th century.

2. Rani Ahilyabai Holkar appointed Tukoji Rao Holkar as the commander of the army during her rule.

3. Her efforts in social reforms included promoting the Maheshwari weaving industry, which now holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Let's examine each statement to determine their accuracy:

1. Statement 1: Rani Ahilyabai Holkar was indeed instrumental in the reconstruction of both the Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath temples during the 18th century. Her contributions to temple restoration are well-documented and form a significant part of her legacy.

2. Statement 2: Rani Ahilyabai Holkar did appoint Tukoji Rao Holkar as the commander of the army. This decision was part of her efforts to stabilize and strengthen her administration after assuming power in 1767.

3. Statement 3: She actively promoted various social reforms, including the Maheshwari weaving industry, which she helped flourish. The Maheshwari sarees are renowned across India and indeed hold a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, highlighting her contributions to economic development and cultural preservation.

All three statements are factual and accurately reflect Rani Ahilyabai Holkar's contributions to history, making Option D the correct answer. Each statement aligns perfectly with the historical records of her multifaceted role as a ruler and reformer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs regarding the concept of space-based datacentres and the renewable energy sector in India:

1. Datacentres in Orbit: Proposed to reduce terrestrial energy consumption and land use by utilizing uninterrupted solar energy in space.

2. Technical Architecture: Involves dense inter-satellite communication to manage high bandwidth needs efficiently.

3. Economic Viability: Dependent on maintaining high launch costs and ensuring hardware fragility.

4. CERC's Proposal: Suggests granting future transmission connectivity based on Letters of Award (LoAs) only.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

1. Datacentres in Orbit: This pair is correctly matched. Space-based datacentres are proposed to utilize solar energy in space, reducing terrestrial issues such as land use and energy constraints. This concept aims to provide a sustainable solution to the increasing energy demands of AI workloads by harnessing uninterrupted solar energy available in space.

2. Technical Architecture: This pair is correctly matched. The technical architecture of space-based datacentres involves using dense inter-satellite communication to ensure high internal bandwidth, which is crucial for efficiently processing AI workloads.

3. Economic Viability: This pair is incorrectly matched. The economic viability of space-based datacentres hinges on reducing launch costs and ensuring hardware durability, not maintaining high launch costs and hardware fragility. The goal is to make space-based datacentres more cost-effective and reliable as technology advances.

4. CERC's Proposal: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)'s proposal suggests granting future transmission connectivity based on signed Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) rather than Letters of Award (LoAs). The proposal is aimed at ensuring that projects have secured long-term commitments before being granted transmission connectivity, to prevent issues like grid congestion and to enhance grid efficiency.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Forever chemicals, such as PFAS, are known for their high persistence and toxicity, remaining in the environment for generations without breaking down.

Statement-II:
PFAS molecules consist of chains of carbon and fluorine atoms, with the carbon-fluorine bond being one of the strongest, contributing to their durability.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Statement-I correctly highlights the characteristic of forever chemicals, particularly PFAS, emphasizing their persistence and toxicity in the environment over extended periods. Statement-II provides an explanation for the durability of PFAS by mentioning the unique structure of PFAS molecules with strong carbon-fluorine bonds. The presence of these bonds indeed contributes to the durability of PFAS, making both statements correct, with Statement-II offering an elucidation for the property mentioned in Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Central banks are increasingly buying gold as part of their reserve management strategies.

Statement-II:
Trump's policies, such as trade wars and sanctions, have contributed to a decrease in global trust in dollar-denominated assets, leading to a resurgence in gold's status as a politically neutral reserve asset.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 17


Statement-I is accurate as central banks are indeed shifting their reserve management strategies and increasingly buying gold, as mentioned in the key takeaways from the passage. This is supported by the example provided about various central banks, including the RBI, increasing their gold holdings.
Statement-II is also correct as it accurately connects Trump's policies, like trade wars and sanctions, to the diminishing trust in dollar-denominated assets. This has, in turn, led to gold regaining its status as a politically neutral reserve asset, as mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II logically explains why central banks are increasingly buying gold, making option (a) the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 18

What is a key feature of the humanoid robot ASC Arjun recently introduced by the Indian Railways?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The humanoid robot ASC Arjun, introduced by the Indian Railways, is notable for its advanced AI capabilities, including a Face Recognition System (FRS) for intrusion detection and AI-based crowd monitoring for real-time alerts to Railway Protection Force (RPF) control rooms. This feature enables the robot to enhance station operations and passenger assistance efficiently.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India's space programme has transitioned from a mission-centric model to a citizen-facing, market-enabled, and globally integrated space ecosystem.
Statement-II:
India's space journey evolved from inspiration to infrastructure through the foundational vision of establishing scientific self-reliance and mass participation in space missions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 19


Statement-I correctly highlights the transformation of India's space programme into a more citizen-facing, market-enabled, and globally integrated ecosystem from a mission-centric model. Statement-II accurately summarizes the evolution of India's space journey, emphasizing the foundational vision of achieving scientific self-reliance and mass participation in space missions. The second statement provides the historical context that explains the shift outlined in the first statement. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the essence of Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 20

Consider the following pairs related to India's Mega Rail Projects:

1. Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) - Provides rail connectivity to the Sikkim region

2. Chenab Rail Bridge - World's highest railway arch bridge

3. New Pamban Railway Bridge - India's first cable-stayed railway bridge

4. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor - Fully commissioned between Ludhiana and Sonnagar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

1. Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) - Provides rail connectivity to the Sikkim region

This pair is incorrectly matched. The USBRL project connects the Kashmir Valley in Jammu and Kashmir, not Sikkim. It is a 272-km railway project providing all-weather connectivity to the Kashmir Valley.

2. Chenab Rail Bridge - World's highest railway arch bridge

This pair is correctly matched. The Chenab Rail Bridge is indeed the world's highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 meters above the Chenab River, and is part of the USBRL project.

3. New Pamban Railway Bridge - India's first cable-stayed railway bridge

This pair is incorrectly matched. The New Pamban Railway Bridge is India's first vertical-lift sea bridge, not a cable-stayed bridge. The Anji Rail Bridge is India's first cable-stayed railway bridge.

4. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor - Fully commissioned between Ludhiana and Sonnagar

This pair is correctly matched. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor has been fully commissioned from Ludhiana to Sonnagar, enhancing freight movement efficiency.

Thus, only two pairs (pairs 2 and 4) are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 21

Which mission achieved India’s first-ever soft landing near the lunar south pole?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Chandrayaan-3 successfully achieved the first-ever soft landing near the Moon’s south pole, marking a historic milestone for India’s space programme

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs regarding Close Quarter Battle (CQB) Carbine and PathGennie:

1. 5.56 x 45 mm CQB Carbine - Developed by Bharat Forge Ltd

2. CQB Carbine - Effective range of 200 meters

3. PathGennie - Designed for simulating chemical reactions

4. PathGennie - Eliminates bias introduced by force-based simulations

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

1. 5.56 x 45 mm CQB Carbine - Developed by Bharat Forge Ltd: Incorrect. The 5.56 x 45 mm CQB Carbine is designed and developed by the Armament Research & Development Establishment (ARDE), which is part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and is produced by Bharat Forge Ltd. The development is attributed to ARDE, not Bharat Forge, which is responsible for production.

2. CQB Carbine - Effective range of 200 meters: Correct. The CQB Carbine indeed has an effective range of 200 meters, making it suitable for urban warfare and close-range combat.

3. PathGennie - Designed for simulating chemical reactions: Correct. PathGennie is applicable to various problems, including chemical reactions, making this pair correctly matched.

4. PathGennie - Eliminates bias introduced by force-based simulations: Correct. PathGennie eliminates bias by not using artificial acceleration or external force, which is typical in standard simulation methods.

Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option C: Only three pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) operates the Standards and Labelling Programme to promote energy efficiency in India by rating appliances on a scale of one to five stars.

Statement-II:
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India was established in 2009 under the NIA Act, 2008, and has the authority to investigate and prosecute cases related to terrorism and national security crimes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 23


Statement-I correctly describes the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's Standards and Labelling Programme, which rates appliances on a scale of one to five stars based on their energy efficiency, empowering consumers to make informed choices and promoting energy-efficient technologies.
Statement-II accurately outlines the establishment and mandate of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India, established in 2009 under the NIA Act, 2008, with the authority to investigate and prosecute cases related to terrorism and national security crimes.
While both statements are factually correct in their respective contexts, they address different entities and programs without any explanatory relationship, making option (b) the correct choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's (BEE) Standards and Labelling Programme:

1. The BEE's Standards and Labelling Programme was launched in 2006 under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, to promote energy efficiency across a variety of appliances.

2. The programme uses a star labelling system, where appliances rated with one star are the most energy-efficient within their category.

3. The programme has contributed to reducing approximately 60 million tonnes of CO₂ annually by enhancing India's energy security and consumer savings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

- Statement 1 is correct. The BEE's Standards and Labelling Programme was indeed launched in 2006 as part of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. This programme was established to promote energy efficiency across a wide range of appliances by providing consumers with information that would help them make informed choices.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The star labelling system under the BEE programme rates appliances on a scale of one to five stars, where five stars indicate the most energy-efficient products, not one star. This is a key feature of the programme that allows consumers to identify and purchase more energy-efficient appliances easily.

- Statement 3 is correct. The programme plays a significant role in reducing national electricity demand, lowering consumer power bills, and has been reported to contribute to the reduction of approximately 60 million tonnes of CO₂ annually. This impact illustrates the programme's effectiveness in enhancing India's energy security and promoting sustainable consumption.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 25

What critical issue is highlighted in the discussion regarding street dogs in India and the involvement of the Supreme Court?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The discussion on street dogs in India and the involvement of the Supreme Court primarily raises concerns about the separation of powers. This issue underscores the potential encroachment of the judiciary on executive functions, reflecting debates on the proper division of power among different branches of government. In this context, it becomes essential to ensure that each state organ operates within its designated jurisdiction to maintain the balance of power and uphold constitutional principles.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 26

What is the primary focus of Frédéric Sorrieu's vision of a world made up of democratic and Social Republics?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Option C is correct.

Frédéric Sorrieu produced lithographs around 1848 that visualise a dream of democratic and social republics; the primary focus of these works is the fraternity among nations, shown by groups and allegorical figures moving together under banners of liberty.

The prints emphasise international republican solidarity and mutual recognition rather than celebrating absolutism or a narrow nationalist state; they use allegorical figures, national delegations and symbolic banners to convey unity, peace and shared republican values.

  • Option A is incorrect: the images oppose absolutist rule and instead promote republican government.
  • Option B is incomplete: while the prints relate to 19th-century political change, their aim is universal republican fraternity rather than promoting exclusive nationalism or the modern nation-state.
  • Option D is incorrect: the works are allegorical visions of republican unity, not a depiction focused on the Storming of the Bastille.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) in rice cultivation reduces methane emissions by creating aerobic soil conditions, which disrupt methane-producing microbes.

2. Traditional continuous flooding in rice cultivation is a major contributor to agricultural emissions due to the production of nitrous oxide.

3. Carbon credits can provide an additional income for farmers adopting AWD by monetizing the reduction in methane emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

- Statement 1 is correct. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) is a water management technique used in rice cultivation that involves periodically drying and re-flooding the fields. This practice helps to disrupt the anaerobic conditions that are conducive to methane-producing microbes, thereby reducing methane emissions. Methane emissions occur when soil is continuously flooded, creating anaerobic conditions which favor the activity of methanogenic bacteria.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. While continuous flooding in rice cultivation does contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions, it primarily leads to methane emissions, not nitrous oxide. Methane (CH₄) is the predominant greenhouse gas emitted from flooded rice fields, whereas nitrous oxide (N₂O) emissions are more associated with fertilized fields subjected to aerobic conditions.

- Statement 3 is correct. Farmers who adopt the AWD method can potentially earn additional income through carbon credits. By reducing methane emissions, they can quantify these reductions in terms of carbon dioxide-equivalent and sell carbon credits on international markets. This provides a financial incentive for farmers to implement environmentally friendly agricultural practices.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 28

Consider the following pairs:

1. Prohibition on the Use of Force - Article 2(4) of the UN Charter forbids states from using force against another state's territorial integrity or political independence.

2. Head-of-State Immunity - Under international law, heads of state have immunity from prosecution in foreign courts, applicable regardless of the legitimacy of their elections.

3. Law-Enforcement Justifications - Justifies military operations in another state’s territory under international law.

4. Right to Disconnect - A legal framework in India providing protection against excessive work hours.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

1. Prohibition on the Use of Force - Correctly matched. Article 2(4) of the UN Charter indeed prohibits the use of force against another state's territorial integrity or political independence, allowing only for self-defense or actions approved by the Security Council.

2. Head-of-State Immunity - Correctly matched. International law provides heads of state with immunity from prosecution in foreign courts, and this immunity applies regardless of the legitimacy of their elections.

3. Law-Enforcement Justifications - Incorrectly matched. Law enforcement does not justify military operations in another state’s territory under international law. Such justifications stretch international law and undermine the distinction between domestic and international jurisdictions.

4. Right to Disconnect - Incorrectly matched. This concept is not currently a legal framework in India. While there is discussion about implementing such rights, India does not yet have specific legal provisions for the right to disconnect as countries like France and Portugal do.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making Option B: Only two pairs the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme for semiconductors in India:

1. The DLI Scheme provides up to 50% reimbursement of eligible expenditure with a maximum limit of ₹15 crore per application for semiconductor design projects.

2. The Scheme exclusively supports startups and MSMEs owned by non-resident Indian citizens.

3. The ChipIN Centre under the DLI Scheme offers access to advanced National Electronic Design Automation (EDA) Tool Grid and Multi-Project Wafer (MPW) prototyping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme provides financial incentives, including a reimbursement of up to 50% of eligible expenditure, with a maximum limit of ₹15 crore per application for semiconductor design projects. This is a core feature of the scheme aimed at promoting domestic chip design.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The DLI Scheme is open to startups, MSMEs, and domestic companies owned by resident Indian citizens, not non-resident Indian citizens. This inclusive approach encourages participation from a broad range of enterprises within India.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The ChipIN Centre, operated by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), offers access to advanced National Electronic Design Automation (EDA) Tool Grid and Multi-Project Wafer (MPW) prototyping. This support is essential for reducing entry barriers and facilitating indigenous semiconductor design capabilities.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - January 2026 - Question 30

What is the primary reason for India's increasing trade deficit with its Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners, as highlighted in the NITI Aayog's 'Trade Watch Quarterly' report?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The increasing trade deficit with Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners is mainly attributed to the widening trade dynamics with ASEAN partners, as outlined in the NITI Aayog's 'Trade Watch Quarterly' report. This trend has significantly impacted India's overall export performance and trade balance. Efforts to address these challenges and recalibrate FTAs are crucial to improving market access and enhancing export competitiveness, especially in labor-intensive sectors.

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