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Bank Exams Exam  >  Bank Exams Test  >  IBPS PO Mock Test Series 2026 & Past Year Papers  >  IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Bank Exams MCQ

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 (100 Questions)

You can boost your Bank Exams 2026 exam preparation with this IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Bank Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 60 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability

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IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 1
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What is the meaning of the word 'maladaptive'.

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct answer is poorly adjusted.
Key Points
  • Maladaptive is a condition when a person behaves stubbornly and doesn’t adjust to the changing requirements.
  • Synonyms of the word Maladaptive are Dysfunctional, stubborn, arrogant, and non-adaptive.
  • Antonyms of the word Maladaptive are Adaptive, Adjustable, Flexible
  • Thus, the correct answer is poorly adjusted.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 2
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Rearrange the following words to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the correct option out of the five options marked as (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e).

The researchers next activating(A) an experiment to see whether overfeeding(B) these neurons would lead to conducted(C).

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The correct answer is CAB
 
Key Points
  • If we put overfeeding in the (A) part, it will make the sentence grammatically and contextually incorrect.
  • If we put conducted in (A) part, then the rule of subject verb agreement is followed. Hence, conducted will come first.
  • Similarly, we cannot overfeed a neuron. Hence, activating will come next.
  • Thus, the correct answer is CAB
Hence, the correct sentence will be The researchers next conducted an experiment to see whether activating these neurons would lead to overfeeding.

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IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 3
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In the experiment where researchers "switched on" IPAC neurons in sated mice, for which of the following did they observe the largest increase in consumption?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The passage explicitly states that when IPAC neurons were switched on in sated mice, the increase in intake was larger for coconut and olive oil-flavored HFDs and white chocolate compared to chow and dark chocolate. Among the given options, coconut and olive oil-flavored high-fat diets (HFDs) showed the largest increase in consumption. This indicates that these neurons preferentially drive hedonic eating of highly palatable, fatty foods.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 4
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According to the passage, what is a primary reason why obesity is not easily treated solely through caloric restriction and standard exercise routines?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The passage clearly explains that obesity is not easily treated with caloric restriction and exercise because the body’s metabolism often counterbalances these efforts and restores prior body weight. This metabolic adaptation acts as a homeostatic mechanism that resists sustained weight loss. The other options are either contradicted by the text or not supported by any information provided in the passage.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 5
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In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with certain words in underline. Choose the pairs of such words which need to be interchanged so as to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

Most people were under the (A) acetyl that cigarette filters are (B) biodegrade as they contain cellulose acetate, a natural product, but it does not (C) biodegradable because of the (D) assumption groups.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Words A- B and B-C need to be interchanged

(A) :- here acetyl is wrong as it is a methyl group compound. It would correctly fit in option (D) as it would mean a certain category of a group.

(B) :- here biodegrade is the wrong word and should be replaced with biodegradable as here an adjective is required rather than a verb. In option (C) a verb is required because it is denoting some kind work her.

Correct sentence – Most people were under the assumption that cigarette filters are biodegradable as they contain cellulose acetate, a natural product, but it does not biodegrade because of the acetyl groups.

Hence, option 1 is the correct choice.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 6
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Directions: In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to H, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of the words that need(s) to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

a. These gold (A) rules and regulations (B) should have been reception (C) away with years (D) ago.
b. The mayor presented (E) him with a ridiculous (F) medal at an official (G) city done (H).

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. A-F and C-H.

Key Points

  • Let us look at the sentences in the following way:
    1. These _________(A) rules and _______(B) should have been _______(C) away with ______(D) ago.
    2. The mayor __________(E) him with a _________(F) medal at an ________(G) city _________(H).
  • In sentence 1, from the remaining words left, we get to know that it talks about rules that should be gotten rid of.
  • In sentence 2, from the remaining words left, we get to know that the mayor presented a medal.

Additional Information

  • Let us look into the meanings of the words:
    • Gold - a yellow precious metal, used especially in jewellery and decoration and to guarantee the value of currencies.
    • Regulations - rules or directives made and maintained by an authority.
    • Reception - the action or process of receiving something sent, given, or inflicted.
    • Years - the period of 365 days (or 366 days in leap years) starting from the first of January, used for reckoning time in ordinary circumstances.
    • Presented - gave or awarded formally or ceremonially.
    • Ridiculous - deserving or inviting derision or mockery; absurd.
    • Official - relating to an authority or public body and its activities and responsibilities.
    • Done - no longer happening or existing.
  • In Blank A, the word 'gold' is incorrect as it is out of context because rules cannot be gold.
  • In Blank F, the word 'ridiculous' is incorrect as it is out of context. A ridiculous medal cannot be presented at an official ceremony.
  • In Blank C, the word 'reception' is incorrect as it is out of context and 'reception away' is grammatically incorrect.
  • In Blank H, the word 'done' is incorrect as it is out of context and grammatically incorrect.
  • Therefore, we need to interchange A with F and C with H to make the sentences correct.

Important Points

  • 'Do away with' is a phrasal verb meaning 'put an end to'.

The correct sentences are:
a. These ridiculous(A) rules and regulations(B) should have been done(C) away with years(D) ago.
b. The mayor presented(E) him with a gold(F) medal at an official(G) city reception(H).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 7
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The sentences given below have been taken from a paragraph but these are not in their proper order. You must rearrange the same carefully before answering the questions based on them.

A. It is simpler to have a healthy, balanced lifestyle if you are aware of the various types of nutrients present in foods, how they affect your body, and how to include them in your diet.

B. Low energy levels, chronic diseases, and significant health concerns can all result from a diet that is deficient in certain nutrients.

C. The key to good health is a balanced meal which is only possible when you think beyond one nutrient and focus on overall.

D. Consuming nutritious foods is important to fuel the body and defend it against oxidative stress and inflammation.

E. It is unavoidable that diet has an effect on health.

Which of the given options can best introduce the given paragraph?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

We can find that ED form a link as the flow of the sentences tells us that;

Diet’s effect of health is unavoidable → (so) → consuming nutritious food is important.

These two cannot start the paragraph for sure because, bringing the aspect of diet into picture before introducing health will make no sense.

Sentence A is more sort of a conclusion as it sums up the entire idea being discussed in the given statements. So, this should be last sentence.

Out of B and C, C should ideally start the sentence as, it talks about good health and also brings in the concept of a balanced meal after which diet can be introduced.

This helps us build the sequence as; CEDBA.

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 8
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The sentences given below have been taken from a paragraph but these are not in their proper order. You must rearrange the same carefully before answering the questions based on them.

A. It is simpler to have a healthy, balanced lifestyle if you are aware of the various types of nutrients present in foods, how they affect your body, and how to include them in your diet.

B. Low energy levels, chronic diseases, and significant health concerns can all result from a diet that is deficient in certain nutrients.

C. The key to good health is a balanced meal which is only possible when you think beyond one nutrient and focus on overall.

D. Consuming nutritious foods is important to fuel the body and defend it against oxidative stress and inflammation.

E. It is unavoidable that diet has an effect on health.

Which of the given statements best sums up the given paragraph?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

We can find that ED form a link as the flow of the sentences tells us that;

Diet’s effect of health is unavoidable → (so) → consuming nutritious food is important.

These two cannot start the paragraph for sure because, bringing the aspect of diet into picture before introducing health will make no sense.

Sentence A is more sort of a conclusion as it sums up the entire idea being discussed in the given statements. So, this should be last sentence.

Out of B and C, C should ideally start the sentence as, it talks about good health and also brings in the concept of a balanced meal after which diet can be introduced.

This helps us build the sequence as; CEDBA.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 9
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The sentences given below have been taken from a paragraph but these are not in their proper order. You must rearrange the same carefully before answering the questions based on them.

A. It is simpler to have a healthy, balanced lifestyle if you are aware of the various types of nutrients present in foods, how they affect your body, and how to include them in your diet.

B. Low energy levels, chronic diseases, and significant health concerns can all result from a diet that is deficient in certain nutrients.

C. The key to good health is a balanced meal which is only possible when you think beyond one nutrient and focus on overall.

D. Consuming nutritious foods is important to fuel the body and defend it against oxidative stress and inflammation.

E. It is unavoidable that diet has an effect on health.

Which of the given options does not provide two consecutive sentences?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

We can find that ED form a link as the flow of the sentences tells us that;

Diet’s effect of health is unavoidable → (so) → consuming nutritious food is important.

These two cannot start the paragraph for sure because, bringing the aspect of diet into picture before introducing health will make no sense.

Sentence A is more sort of a conclusion as it sums up the entire idea being discussed in the given statements. So, this should be last sentence.

Out of B and C, C should ideally start the sentence as, it talks about good health and also brings in the concept of a balanced meal after which diet can be introduced.

This helps us build the sequence as; CEDBA.

So, option (d) is the correct answer.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 10
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Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P) Next day I stepped into the chief jeweller’s to set it by the exact time, and the head of the establishment took it out of my hand and proceeded to set it for me.
(Q) Within a weak it sickened to a raging fever and its pulse went up to a hundred and fifty in the shade.
(R) At the end of two months, it had left all the timepieces of the town far in the rear and was a fraction over thirteen days ahead of the almanac.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is Only Q is incorrect.

Key Points

  • In sentence Q:
  • The word 'weak used here is contextually incorrect. The correct word that should be used here is week.
  • Weak means lacking the power to perform physically demanding tasks.
  • Week means
    a period of seven days.
  • So, according to the context of the sentence 'week' is the appropriate word here.
     
    Therefore, the correct sentence is,

    Within a week, it sickened to a raging fever and its pulse went up to a hundred and fifty in the shade.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 11
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Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that fits the blank appropriately.

Tom applied for a promotion twice this year, but he was _______ both times.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The appropriate fit for the blank is ‘turned down’.

Since the structure of the sentence is past tense, ‘turned down’ is the appropriate verb. Turn something/somebody down is a phrasal verb which means ‘to refuse an offer or request’. For example: He turned down the job because it involved too much travelling.

The rest of the options are cancelled as they make the sentence meaningless and are not in agreement with the tense of the sentence.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 12
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Directions : Study the following pie chart and table carefully to answer the following questions that follow:

Percentage break up of employees working in various departments of an organisation and the ratio of men to women in them.

Total Number of Employees = 1800

Percentage Break up of employees 

Q. What is the respective ratio of the number of women working in the HR department of the organisation and the total number of employees in that department?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 13
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Directions : Study the following pie chart and table carefully to answer the following questions that follow:

Percentage break up of employees working in various departments of an organisation and the ratio of men to women in them.

Total Number of Employees = 1800

Percentage Break up of employees 

Q. The number of men working in the production department of the organisation forms what per cent of the total number of employees working in that department? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

Detailed Solution: Question 13

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 14
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Direction: Find the missing number in place of the question mark (?) in the given series.

47, 58, 71, 79, 95, ?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Given series

47, 58, 71, 79, 95, ?

The pattern is:

47 + (4 + 7) = 58

58 + (5 + 8) = 71

71 + (7 + 1) = 79

79 + (7 + 9) = 95

95 + (9 + 5) = 109

So, the missing number is 109.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 15
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In the following questions three equations numbered I, II and III are given. You have to solve all the equations either together or separately, or two together and one separately, or by any other method and give answer

I. 7x + 6y + 4z = 122 

II. 4x + 5y + 3z = 88 

III. 9x + 2y + z = 78

Detailed Solution: Question 15

x = 6, y = 8, z = 8

Therefore, x < y = z

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 16
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Following table shows that the number of candidates registered at ‘Jeevansathi.com’ matrimonial website and number of candidates who got married, from 4 different cities of Madhya Pradesh over the 3 months. Study the table carefully and answer the question below.

R = registered candidates including men’s and women’s

M = married candidates (includes count of individual not counted in pairs)

Unmarried Candidates = Registered Candidates – Married Candidates

Q. Unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for December month is what percent of unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for month of November?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

For December,

From Gwalior:

Registered candidates = 90 and Married candidates = 50

⇒ Unmarried candidates = 90 − 50 = 40

From Sanchi,

Registered candidates = 30 and Married candidates = 10

⇒ Unmarried candidates = 30 − 10 = 20

Total unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for December month = 40 + 20 = 60

For November,

From Gwalior:

Registered candidates = 50 and Married candidates = 20

⇒ Unmarried candidates = 50 − 20 = 30

From Sanchi:

Registered candidates = 60 and Married candidates = 10

⇒ Unmarried candidates = 60 − 10 = 50

Total unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for November month = 30 + 50 = 80

Required percentage = (60 × 100)/80 = 75%

∴ Unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for December month is 75% of unmarried candidates from Gwalior and Sanchi for month of November.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 17
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Following table shows that the number of candidates registered at ‘Jeevansathi.com’ matrimonial website and number of candidates who got married, from 4 different cities of Madhya Pradesh over the 3 months. Study the table carefully and answer the question below.

R = registered candidates including men’s and women’s

M = married candidates (includes count of individual not counted in pairs)

Unmarried Candidates = Registered Candidates – Married Candidates

Q. The married candidates is what percent of the total number of registered candidates including all four cities over all three months?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

For November month,

Number of registered candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 50, 70, 80 and 60 respectively.

For December month,

Number of registered candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 90, 40, 32 and 30 respectively.

For January month,

Number of registered candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 60, 48, 20 and 36 respectively.

∴ Total number of registered candidates including all four cities over three months = 50 + 70 + 80 + 60 + 90 + 40 + 32 + 30 + 60 + 48 + 20 + 36 = 616

∴ Total number of registered candidates including all four cities over three months = 616

For November month.

Number of married candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 20, 30, 24 and 10 respectively.

For December month,

Number of married candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 50, 14, 16 and 10 respectively.

For January month,

Number of married candidates in Gwalior, Chitrakoot, Bhopal and Sanchi is 28,22,8 and 12 respectively

∴ Total number of married candidates including all four cities over three months

= 20 + 30 + 24 + 10 + 50 + 14 + 16 + 10 + 28 + 22 + 8 + 12 = 244

∴ Required percentage = (244×100)/616 = 39.61%

∴ The married candidates is 39.61% of the total number of registered candidates including all four cities over all three months.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 18
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Find the difference between the number of students who like art in school A and the number of students who like both art and music together in school B.

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Let only art in A = 5x, only art in B = 3x.
Both in A = 40% of 5x = 2x.
Both in B = both in A + 15 = 2x + 15.
Total art in B = only art B + both B = 3x + 2x + 15 = 5x + 15 = 65 → 5x = 50 → x = 10.
Art in A = only art A + both A = 5x + 2x = 70.
Both in B = 2(10) + 15 = 35.
Difference = 70 – 35 = 35.
(Note: Correct option should be 35 → Option A, but based on standard calculation it is 35; if question expects Option B then likely typo in options or data interpretation.)

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 19
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A can complete a piece of task in 10 hours, B and C together can complete it in 12 hours, while A and C together can complete it in 6 hours. How long will B alone take to complete it?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Given

A can complete a piece of task in = 10 hrs.

B and C together can complete in = 12 hrs.

A and C together can complete it in = 6 hrs.

Formula:

Total work = Efficiency × Time Taken

Calculation:

Total work = 60 unit (LCM of 10, 12, 6)

Efficiency of A = 60/10 = 6 units/day

Efficiency of C = (60/6) – 6 = 4 units/day

Efficiency of B = (60/12) – 4 = 1 units/day

∴ B alone can complete the whole work in = 60/1 = 60 hrs.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
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Which Gadget does Roshan like?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Person - Prashn, Arvind, Noorya, Raman, Roshan, Suman, Manish, Preet, Koshik and AnshGadget - Kindle, iPod, Headphone, LED, Bluetooth, Camera, Radio, Speaker, Spot Tracker and Mobile Phone
1. Suman sits opposite to the one who likes Camera and sits at one of the extreme ends. The one who likes Radio is not Manish, sits second to the right of Suman.

2. Arvind likes LED and does not sit at the extreme ends and sit opposite to the one who likes Headphones.
3. The one who likes Bluetooth sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate left of Arvind.

4. Ansh sits between Manish and the one who likes iPod who is not Suman.

5. The person who likes Speaker faces Koshik and is not Noorya.
6. Preet does not sit at any of the extreme ends but sits opposite to the one who likes Mobile Phone who sits between Prashn and the one who likes Spot Tracker.
7. Raman neither likes Mobile Phone nor Speaker.

So, Roshan likes Speaker.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 21
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Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven persons wearing a shoes of different colours - white, red, black, green, yellow, blue and violet - and socks of different colours - blue, red, white, black, cream, yellow and indigo. The persons, colour of the shoes and colour of the socks above are not necessarily in the same order. No person is wearing shoes and socks of same colour. 
(ii) Q is wearing red shoes and is not wearing cream or yellow socks. S is wearing green shoes and indigo socks. Colour of P’s shoes and U’ socks is same. Colour of T’s shoes and R’s socks is same. V is wearing blue shoes and T is wearing blue socks. U is not wearing any yellow dress. Red and blue is not the combination of shoes and socks of any of the persons. 

Q. Who wears violet shoes? 

Detailed Solution: Question 21

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 22
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Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven persons wearing a shoes of different colours - white, red, black, green, yellow, blue and violet - and socks of different colours - blue, red, white, black, cream, yellow and indigo. The persons, colour of the shoes and colour of the socks above are not necessarily in the same order. No person is wearing shoes and socks of same colour. 
(ii) Q is wearing red shoes and is not wearing cream or yellow socks. S is wearing green shoes and indigo socks. Colour of P’s shoes and U’ socks is same. Colour of T’s shoes and R’s socks is same. V is wearing blue shoes and T is wearing blue socks. U is not wearing any yellow dress. Red and blue is not the combination of shoes and socks of any of the persons. 

Q. What is the colour of U’s shoes? 

Detailed Solution: Question 22

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 23
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Who among the following is designated as the CTO (Chief Technology Officer)?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The senior-most position is CTO. From the arrangement: U (England) → S (just junior) → R (just senior to Finland) → person in Finland → Canada (immediately senior to P) → P → others. The top position (no one senior) is occupied by Q, who lives in Singapore and is designated CTO.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 24
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In which country does P live?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The person in Canada is immediately senior to P. Canada is higher than P in designation. Also, there is a gap of more than two designations between Canada and Vietnam. P lives in Vietnam (the only position that satisfies all conditions: junior to Canada with >2 gap to Canada, and fits the chain).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 25
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What is the designation of T?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

R is senior to T. T does not live in Philippines. The position chain places T in GM after placing R higher (PH), P as LSP, and others accordingly. Thus, T holds the designation GM (General Manager).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 26
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a square table, but not necessarily in the same order. Four persons are sitting on the corners facing outside while the remaining persons are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table facing inside.

P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T. W sits third to the left of S. No one sits between U and P. V neither sits adjacent to T nor U. As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V. R sits third to the right of Q.

Who among the following person sits second to the right of P?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Final arrangement

We have,

  • P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T.
  • W sits third to the left of S.
  • No one sits between U and P.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • V neither sits adjacent to T nor U.
  • As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V.

From the above conditions, case 2 gets eliminated.

Again we have,

  • R sits third to the right of Q.

From the above conditions, case 1a gets eliminated. Hence, case 1 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a square table, but not necessarily in the same order. Four persons are sitting on the corners facing outside while the remaining persons are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table facing inside.

P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T. W sits third to the left of S. No one sits between U and P. V neither sits adjacent to T nor U. As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V. R sits third to the right of Q.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one who doesn’t belong to that group.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Final arrangement

We have,

  • P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T.
  • W sits third to the left of S.
  • No one sits between U and P.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • V neither sits adjacent to T nor U.
  • As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V.

From the above conditions, case 2 gets eliminated.

Again we have,

  • R sits third to the right of Q.

From the above conditions, case 1a gets eliminated. Hence, case 1 shows the final arrangement.

A (Both the persons face the same direction, except option a)

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a square table, but not necessarily in the same order. Four persons are sitting on the corners facing outside while the remaining persons are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table facing inside.

P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T. W sits third to the left of S. No one sits between U and P. V neither sits adjacent to T nor U. As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V. R sits third to the right of Q.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Final arrangement

We have,

  • P, who faces towards S, sits two persons away from T.
  • W sits third to the left of S.
  • No one sits between U and P.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • V neither sits adjacent to T nor U.
  • As many persons sit between W and V as between Q and V.

From the above conditions, case 2 gets eliminated.

Again we have,

  • R sits third to the right of Q.

From the above conditions, case 1a gets eliminated. Hence, case 1 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 29
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Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

There are 3 generations in a family of 6 members. Noor is a grandson of Paksh who is married to Tanmay. Awantika is the mother of Pratishtha who is married to Rajan. Tanmay is the father of Rajan but Rajan is not a daughter of Paksh.

Q. How many female members does the family have?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

From the given information,

Noor is a grandson of Paksh who is married to Tanmay.

Awantika is the mother of Pratishtha who is married to Rajan.

Tanmay is the father of Rajan but Rajan is not a daughter of Paksh.

From the given information,

So, the family has three female members.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Question 30
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Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

There are 3 generations in a family of 6 members. Noor is a grandson of Paksh who is married to Tanmay. Awantika is the mother of Pratishtha who is married to Rajan. Tanmay is the father of Rajan but Rajan is not a daughter of Paksh.

Q. If Awantika is married to Ryansh then how is Rajan related to Ryansh?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

From the given information,

Noor is a grandson of Paksh who is married to Tanmay.

Awantika is the mother of Pratishtha who is married to Rajan.

Tanmay is the father of Rajan but Rajan is not a daughter of Paksh.

From the given information,

Noor is a grandson of Paksh who is married to Tanmay.

Awantika is the mother of Pratishtha who is married to Rajan.

Tanmay is the father of Rajan but Rajan is not a daughter of Paksh.

Hence, if Awantika is married to Ryansh then Rajan is the son-in-law of Ryansh.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

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