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AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 (100 Questions)

You can boost your AIBE 2026 exam preparation with this AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of AIBE 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 210 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 100
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 1
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What action did the NGT take in the landmark case concerning coal mining in Meghalaya in 2014?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

In 2014, the NGT imposed a ban on rat-hole coal mining in Meghalaya due to serious concerns about environmental degradation and safety issues. This decision highlighted the tribunal's role in addressing critical environmental issues and protecting local ecosystems from harmful practices.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 2
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Which of the following is a key feature of trademarks?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Trademarks must be registered to be protected under law, ensuring that the mark is distinctive and can identify the source of goods or services. This registration helps prevent consumer confusion and protects the brand's reputation in the marketplace.

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AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 3
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What does "limited liability" mean in the context of a company?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Limited liability means that the liability of members is restricted to the amount unpaid on their shares in the company. This legal protection ensures that members' personal assets are safeguarded from the company's debts, which is a significant advantage of operating as a company. This structure encourages investment and entrepreneurship, as individuals can engage in business ventures without risking their entire wealth.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 4
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What is the primary distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The primary distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions lies in the duty to act judicially. While administrative functions may involve decision-making based on policy or discretion, quasi-judicial functions require adherence to judicial-like procedures, ensuring fairness and impartiality. This duty often necessitates following principles of natural justice, thereby providing individuals with rights to be heard and ensuring that decisions are made without bias. Recognizing this distinction is essential for understanding how different administrative bodies operate within the legal framework.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 5
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In Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, Justice Bhagwati emphasized:

Detailed Solution: Question 5

In Bandhua Mukti Morcha (1984), Justice Bhagwati advocated departing from strict adversarial procedures in PILs involving the poor and illiterate. The Court used commissions, affidavits, and relaxed evidence rules to ensure substantive justice.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 6
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People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India dealt with:

Detailed Solution: Question 6

PUDR (1982), also called the Asiad Games case, exposed exploitation of construction workers (including children) with wages below minimum and unsafe conditions. The Court held that forced labour violates Article 23 and minimum wages are part of Article 21.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 7
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An application for revision under Section 48A of the Advocates Act shall not ordinarily be entertained after how many days from the date of the order?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Section 48A provides that a revision petition against an order of the Bar Council of India should ordinarily be filed within 90 days from the date of the order, though the Council may condone delay for sufficient cause.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 8
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What are the conditions for a woman to receive a medical bonus under the Maternity Benefit Act?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

A woman is entitled to receive a medical bonus of one thousand rupees if her employer does not provide prenatal, confinement, and postnatal care free of charge. This provision serves to ensure that women have access to necessary medical support during and after pregnancy.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 9
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What is the primary objective of taxation according to the principles of taxation law?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The main objective of taxation is to finance government expenditure on public goods and services. Taxes are vital for funding essential services such as infrastructure, education, and healthcare, directly impacting the welfare of society. This ensures that the government can maintain and improve public services that benefit all citizens. Interestingly, efficient tax systems can also promote economic growth by allowing for strategic investments in public goods.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 10
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What emerging trend in tort law involves claims related to accidents caused by self-driving vehicles?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

AI-related torts encompass legal issues arising from the use of artificial intelligence, including accidents involving autonomous vehicles. As these technologies become more prevalent, questions of liability, negligence, and product defects in AI systems are increasingly relevant. The evolving nature of this area of law aims to address the complexities introduced by AI technologies in society.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 11
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Which of the following is NOT a condition for the application of the strict liability rule as established in Rylands v. Fletcher?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

In the context of strict liability, the plaintiff does not need to prove negligence for the rule to apply. The essential criteria include the escape of a dangerous thing and the non-natural use of land, meaning that the defendant can still be held liable even if they were not negligent, emphasizing the strict nature of this legal doctrine.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 12
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What does the principle "actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea" imply in the legal context?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

This principle emphasizes that for an act to be considered a crime, there must be both the physical act (actus reus) and the guilty mind (mens rea). This concept highlights the importance of intent in establishing legal liability.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 13
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Which aspect of legal proceedings does the Indian Evidence Act specifically govern?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The Indian Evidence Act specifically governs the admissibility of evidence in court proceedings. It establishes a comprehensive framework that outlines the types of evidence that can be presented and the procedures for introducing evidence in court.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 14
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What type of estoppel is established by the final decision of a competent court, binding the parties involved to that decision and preventing them from initiating another lawsuit on the same subject?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Estoppel by Record is established by the final decision of a competent court, legally binding the parties involved to that decision. This type of estoppel prevents the parties from initiating another lawsuit on the same subject or disputing the matter again. It functions similarly to res judicata, emphasizing the legal significance and finality of court decisions.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 15
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What is the inherent weakness associated with identification evidence?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

One of the inherent weaknesses associated with identification evidence is suggestibility, where witnesses may be influenced by leading questions or external factors. This can lead to inaccurate identifications, affecting the reliability of the evidence presented.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 16
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What was the key legal issue in the Dhnanjoy Chaterjee v. State of West Bengal case that revolved around identifying the perpetrator of the crime?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

The pivotal legal concern in the Dhnanjoy Chaterjee v. State of West Bengal case was the identification of the assailant, focusing on determining whether the accused was indeed the individual who committed the heinous acts of raping and murdering the young girl. This aspect is crucial in criminal cases as it directly links the accused to the crime beyond a reasonable doubt, ensuring that justice is served based on concrete evidence.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 17
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Which of the following is NOT considered a suspicious circumstance that may affect the validity of a will?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

The correct answer is Option D: The testator is of sound mind.

Explanation:

A suspicious circumstance is any situation that raises doubt about the genuineness or validity of a will, suggesting possible fraud, coercion, or lack of free consent.

  • Option A: The testator signed blank papers
    This is a suspicious circumstance because blank papers could later be misused or manipulated.

  • Option B: The testator’s signature appears shaky
    A shaky signature may indicate that the testator was physically weak or mentally unfit, raising suspicion.

  • Option C: The dispositions in the will seem unfair
    Unusual or unequal distribution of property without clear reason can be a suspicious circumstance.

  • Option D: The testator is of sound mind
    This is a requirement for a valid will, not a suspicious circumstance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 18
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What happens to the property if there are no Class I or Class II heirs?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

If there are no Class I or Class II heirs, the property is allocated to Class III heirs, which include paternal and maternal uncles and aunts, along with their descendants. This ensures that the property remains within the extended family, reflecting the importance of familial ties in inheritance laws.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 19
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the concept of independent liability?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Independent liability differs from a guarantee in that it does not rely on the default of the principal debtor. In a guarantee, the surety’s obligation is conditional upon the debtor’s failure, whereas independent liability stands on its own regardless of the debtor’s actions.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 20
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Which of the following parties is not involved in a contract of guarantee?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

In a contract of guarantee, the parties involved are the Principal Debtor, the Creditor, and the Surety. The term "Guarantor" is often used interchangeably with "Surety," but in the context of this question, it is not a distinct role in the structure of the contract.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 21
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Which feature was first introduced by the Government of India Act 1919?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy, dividing provincial subjects into ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ categories.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 22
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What does the principle of the right to a fair trial encompass according to the Code of Criminal Procedure?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The right to a fair trial includes several essential components, such as the right to legal representation, the opportunity for cross-examination, and the right to an impartial judge. These elements are critical in ensuring that the trial process is just and equitable, allowing both the prosecution and defense to present their cases effectively and ensuring that the verdict is based on comprehensive evidence and arguments.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 23
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What is the distinction between a judgment debt or decree and an actionable claim in the context of assignment and transfer of decrees?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

In the context of assignment and transfer of decrees, it's crucial to understand the difference between a judgment debt or decree and an actionable claim. A judgment debt or decree does not fall under the definition of an actionable claim because it does not require further action to enforce it; the decree itself secures it. On the other hand, an actionable claim involves a claim to a debt or beneficial interest in movable property not in the claimant's possession. This distinction is important as it impacts the process and requirements for the assignment and transfer of these legal instruments.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 24
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In the case of Beant Singh v. Dilbagh Singh, why was the defendant allowed to submit a written statement even after the 90-day statutory period had lapsed?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The defendant, Beant Singh, was granted the opportunity to submit a written statement after the 90-day statutory period had lapsed because the High Court acknowledged that despite the defendant's negligence in pursuing his case, he had been given multiple chances to file the written statement. This decision was based on recognizing the potential harm and loss the defendant might suffer if not granted another opportunity to present his defense.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 25
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What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The BNS, 2023 replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 to modernize and simplify criminal laws in India, aligning them with contemporary needs and democratic values.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 26
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Consider the following statements regarding the Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India case and its implications on the laws of the Indian Constitution:

A. Maneka Gandhi case is renowned for laying down the concept that the right to live under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution encompasses not just mere physical existence but a life with human dignity.

B. The case set a precedent that any law that prescribes a procedure for depriving a person of personal liberty has to be fair, just, and reasonable, not just any procedure established by law.

C. The verdict in the Maneka Gandhi case held that Article 19 and Article 21 are mutually exclusive, and a law that takes away or abridges rights under Article 19 would not be tested with the criteria laid down under Article 21.

D. The Supreme Court, in Maneka Gandhi's case, declared that the passport could be seized by the government without giving any reasons for such an action.

Choose the correct statements:

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Solution: The correct answer is 1. Only A and B.

Explanation

Statement A is correct.

The Maneka Gandhi case expanded the interpretation of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to mean more than just mere survival or physical well-being. It emphasized that the right to life includes the right to live with human dignity.

Statement B is also accurate.

This landmark judgment established that the procedure established by law affecting personal liberty under Article 21 must be "right, just, and fair," and not arbitrary, fanciful, or oppressive. This means any law infringing on a person's right to life or personal liberty must pass the test of being fair, just, and reasonable.

Statement C is incorrect

Because the Maneka Gandhi case significantly changed the judicial interpretation by asserting that Articles 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive but are closely linked. Rights under Article 19 must meet the standards of Article 21, meaning that a law affecting personal liberty doesn’t only need to prescribe a procedure but also must satisfy that it's fair, just, and reasonable.

Statement D is incorrect.

The Supreme Court, in this case, did not uphold the government's action of impounding Maneka Gandhi's passport without giving her reasons for such an action. On the contrary, it highlighted the importance of giving a reason as part of procedural fairness, further underscoring the right to be heard and the right to a fair treatment under Article 21.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 27
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Consider the following statements regarding case laws about the amendment of the Indian Constitution and pick the correct ones.

Statements:

A. In the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the basic structure of the Constitution could not be altered by an amendment.
B. The Golaknath vs. State of Punjab case (1967) ruled that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.
C. In the Minerva Mills vs. Union of India case (1980), it was held that the 'Harmony and Balance' between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.
D. The Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India case (1951) decided that Article 368 gives unlimited power to the Parliament to amend the Constitution, and such amendments cannot be questioned in a court of law.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Solution: 1. Only A, C, D are correct.

Explanation

A is Correct - In the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court established the doctrine of the basic structure, asserting that the Parliament could not alter the basic structure of the Constitution through amendments.
B is Incorrect - In the Golaknath case, the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend the Fundamental Rights of the citizens laid down in Part III of the Constitution. This was a departure from its earlier decision and was contrary to what is mentioned in the statement.
C is Correct - The Minerva Mills case further affirmed the decision in the Kesavananda Bharati case by stating that a balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is crucial and is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
D is Correct - In the Shankari Prasad case, the Supreme Court ruled that the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also included the power to amend Fundamental Rights, and such an amendment could not be challenged in court. This early judgment was in line with granting Parliament vast amending powers.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 28
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Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Parliamentary privileges under the Indian Constitution?

Statements:

A. Members of Parliament have the freedom of speech in the Parliament, and they cannot be taken to court for anything said within the House premises.
B. The privileges of the Parliament are defined exclusively under Article 105 of the Indian Constitution for the Lok Sabha and Article 194 for the Rajya Sabha with explicit details.
C. No member of the Parliament can be arrested in civil cases 40 days before and after the adjournment of the House and also when the House is in session.
D. The Parliament can punish individuals for acts of contempt, even if they are not members of the Parliament.
E. Right to exclude strangers and press from the galleries, and the right to prohibit the publication of its proceedings and debates are parts of parliamentary privileges.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Solution: 1. Only A, C, D, and E are correct.

Explanation

A is Correct: Article 105 of the Indian Constitution indeed grants freedom of speech to MPs in the Parliament, ensuring they are not liable for anything they say within the House, mirroring the parliamentary privileges in many democratic countries.

B is Incorrect: Although Articles 105 and 194 of the Indian Constitution mention parliamentary privileges, they do not provide an exhaustive list. Instead, they are derived from the parliamentary conventions in the UK, making them somewhat ambiguous and subject to interpretation.

C is Correct: This statement is true and is designed to ensure that members are not hindered by legal proceedings from attending Parliament.

D is Correct: The Parliament has the authority to punish those who commit acts of contempt, regardless of their membership status to maintain its dignity and authority.

E is Correct: The control over the admission of strangers and the press, and the discretion to publish its debates and proceedings are traditional rights exercised by legislative bodies under parliamentary privileges.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 29
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B, an accused w B ants to submit a carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence. The original is with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. The suicide was not within the knowledge of the accused before the receipt of the carbon copy.

Which of the following statements will hold for the case?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct option is Option 3.

Explanation

  • Section 64: Proof of documents by primary evidence- Documents must be proved by primary evidence except conditions mentioned in section 65.
  • Section 65: Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given-
    • Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition or contents of a document in the following cases:–
    1. when the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power–
      • of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved
      • of any person out of reach of, or not subject to, the process of the Court
      • of any person legally bound to produce it
      • when, after the notice mentioned in section 66, such a person does not produce it.
    2. when the existence, condition or contents of the original have been proved to be admitted in writing by the person against whom it is proved or by his representative in interest.
    3. when the original has been destroyed or lost, or when the party offering evidence of its contents cannot, for any other reason not arising from his default or neglect, produce it in a reasonable time.
    4. when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable.
    5. when the original is a public document within the meaning of section 74.
    6. when the original is a document of which a certified copy is permitted by this Act, or by any other law in force to be given in evidence.
    7. when the originals consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot conveniently be examined in Court and the fact to be proved is the general result of the whole collection.
  • In cases (1), (3) and (4), any secondary evidence of the contents of the document is admissible.
  • In case (2), the written admission is admissible.
  • In case (5) or (6), a certified copy of the document, but no other kind of secondary evidence, is admissible.
  • In case (7), evidence may be given as to the general result of the documents by any person who has examined them, and who is skilled in the examination of such documents.

AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test- 4 - Question 30
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Assertion A: A Bigamous marriage is voidable under the Hindu Law.

Reason R: Children born out of void marriages are legitimate children of their parent.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The Correct answer is ​A is false but R is true

Explanation

  • Bigamy is when a person marries someone else while still legally married to another living spouse. It is illegal to marry someone new when an existing spouse is still legally married to them.
  • Any second marriage in such circumstances is considered null and void from the beginning, a concept known as "void ab initio."
  • Section 16 addresses the legitimacy of children born from marriages that are either void or voidable under certain conditions. In the case of a marriage declared null and void (under section 11), any child born from that marriage is considered legitimate as if the marriage were valid.
  • This applies regardless of whether the child is born before or after the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 1976, comes into effect, and regardless of whether a decree of nullity is granted.
  • If a decree of nullity is granted for a voidable marriage (under section 12), any child conceived or born before the decree, who would have been legitimate if the marriage had been dissolved instead of annulled, is deemed legitimate despite the nullity decree
  • However, it's important to note that these provisions do not grant the child rights to the property of anyone other than the parents.
  • The law ensures that the child is considered legitimate but does not confer additional property rights from individuals other than the parents, safeguarding the child's rights in line with the legal framework established by the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act.

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This mock test contains 100 questions designed to replicate the pattern, difficulty level and time pressure of the actual AIBE exam. It is part of AIBE (All India Bar Exam) Mock Test Series on EduRev, covering all the topics that are being asked as per the current AIBE syllabus. Attempting this test under timed conditions will help you assess your exam readiness, identify subject-wise weak areas, and improve your speed and accuracy before the actual exam.

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