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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 (200 Questions)

You can boost your Bank Exams 2026 exam preparation with this IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Bank Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 200
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: LR, Data Analysis & Interpretation, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General,Eco,Banking Awareness, Comp,IT

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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 1

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are some people in a family. Olivia is the grandmother of Mia. Thomas is the husband of Sophia who is sister in law of Ava. Christopher is the maternal uncle of James and Henry. Jacob is the father of Charlie. Christopher is the uncle of Evelyn. Evelyn is the granddaughter of Olivia. Christopher is the brother of Charlie who is the husband of Ava. Mia and Evelyn is the Daughter of Ava. James & Henry is the son of Thomas.

Q. How is Ava related to Jacob?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Hence correct answer is option B.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 2

Direction: In the following questions, a statement is followed by some courses of action. Assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement:

Recently launched Model X of a popular Smartphone Company has major issues in camera and speaker etc.

Course of Action:

I. The company should refrain from launching new models in the near future.

II. The company should issue an apology to the customers and advise them against using it.

III. The company should discontinue the manufacture of Model X immediately.

Detailed Solution: Question 2

None of the above courses of action are in the interest of the company and therefore does not follow logically.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 3

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 Draft 31 Sent 23 Mail 72 Spam

Step I: Draft 24 Inbox 11 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72

Step II: Inbox Draft 24 Starred 48 31 Sent 23 Mail Spam 72 11

Step III: Mail Inbox Draft 24 Starred 31 Sent 23 Spam 72 11 48

Step IV: Starred Mail Inbox Draft 24 31 Sent Spam 72 11 48 23

Step V: Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 31 Spam 72 11 48 23 24

Step VI: Spam Sent Starred Mail Inbox Draft 72 11 48 23 24 31

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Q. Which element is 6th to the right of the one which is 4th to the left element in step I ?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

For words- One word will be arranged in one step. The word which comes first according to alphabetical series is arranged first from left and then all others words are arranged according to alphabetical series to the leftmost end. If two or more words have same first letter, then they are arranged according to the number of vowels in them, the word having more number of vowels is arranged first then following the less number of vowels. If two or more words have the same first letter and equal number of a vowel, then the words will be arranged according to the alphabetical series.

For numbers- Even Numbers are arranged in odd-numbered step,and odd numbers are arranged in even numbered step. Even numbers are arranged starting from the highest number in 1st step then second highest even number in 3rd step and so on from right end. . Odd numbers are arranged starting from the lowest number in 2nd step then second lowest even number in 4th step and so on from right end.

Input:- 35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya 68 Manipur 79 Assam 46 Uttarakhand

Step I: Assam35 Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Meghalaya Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68

Step II: Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 Manipur 79 46 Uttarakhand 68 35

Step III: Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 Mizoram 57 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46

Step IV: Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam Odisha 22 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57

Step V: Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 79 Uttarakhand 68 35 46 57 22

Step VI: Uttarakhand Odisha Mizoram Manipur Meghalaya Assam 68 35 46 57 22 79

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 4

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

In a certain code language

Chief Open delete page is written as !6Q %8E !6P !7D

Word Bring Empty Bank is written as #7C #6C #6X #7F

Difficult Solution Find Control is written as #6G !9D %10T %11E

Bottle previous sheet parcel is written as !8C !7T !8Q &10Q.

Q. Which word among the following is the code of the words Replace Select ?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Step 1 – The alphabet in the code is the next alphabet of the starting alphabet of the word.

For the word ‘Good’, the last alphabet of the code is H.

Step 2 – The numeral in the code is obtained by adding two to the number of alphabets present in the word. For the word ‘Smart’, the number is 7 (= 5 + 2)

Step 3 – The symbol in the code is according to the number of vowels present in the word.

Thus, Good = !5H

Therefore, ‘Replace Select’ is coded as ‘%9S !8T’

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 5

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.

The following line graph represent the ratio of selling price and cost price of five different article and bar graph represent the marked price of the article.

Q. If the discount percentage on article D and E are 20% and 10% respectively, then the ratio between cost price of article D and E was:

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Selling price of article D = 0.8 x 2450 =1960

Ratio between selling price and cost price of article

Cost price of article

Selling price of article E =0.90 x 2750 =2475

Ratio between selling price and cost price of article

Cost price of article

Required ratio

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 6

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.The following line graph represent the ratio of selling price and cost price of five different article and bar graph represent the marked price of the article.

Q. If the cost price of article C and E was 50% and 80% less than their marked price. Then the approximate discount percent given on article C and E together was:

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The cost price of article C =0.5 x 1640 =820

The ratio between selling price and cost price of article C=1.5= 15: 10 =3: 2

Selling price of article

Discount on C = 1640 – 1230 = 410

The cost price of article E =0.20 x 2750 =550

The ratio between selling price and cost price of article

The selling price of article

Discount on E =2750 -880 =1870

Total discount on article C and E together =410 + 1870 =2280

Total marked price of article C and E together =1640 + 2750 =4390

Required discount

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 7

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.

Charts given below describe the energy scenario of a country. Assume that the country does not export any form of energy and whatever is produced and imported is consumed in same year. Go through the charts and answer the questions.

Proportion of energy consumption in 2014

Total energy consumed =1200 MTOE(million tonne oil equivalent)

Annual (year-on-year) growth rate in consumption of different sources of energy for 2015 to 2017

Percentage of imports to consumption of different sources of energy during 2015 to 2017

Q. What was the difference between the domestic production of Nuclear Energy and Natural gas in the year 2016?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The domestic production of Nuclear Energy in the year 2016 = 0.80 x 1.15 x 1.10x 5% of 1200 = 60.72 MTOE

The domestic production of Natural gas in the year 2016 = 0.75 x 1.20 x 1.15 x 12% of 1200 = 149.04 MTOE

Required difference = 149.04 – 60.72 = 88.32 MTOE.

Hence correct answer is option D.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 8

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.

Charts given below describe the energy scenario of a country. Assume that the country does not export any form of energy and whatever is produced and imported is consumed in same year. Go through the charts and answer the questions.

Proportion of energy consumption in 2014

Total energy consumed =1200 MTOE (million tonne oil equivalent)

Annual (year-on-year) growth rate in consumption of different sources of energy for 2015 to 2017

Percentage of imports to consumption of different sources of energy during 2015 to 2017

Q. What is the ratio of the total domestic production of Nuclear Energy and Hydro energy together in the year 2015 and the total domestic production of the coal energy in the same year?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The total domestic production of Nuclear Energy and Hydro energy together in the year 2015 = 0.70 x 1.10 x 5% of 1200 + 0.60 x 1.10 x 3% of 1200

= 46.2 + 23.76 = 69.96 MTOE

The total domestic production of the coal energy in the year 2015 =0.80 x 1.20 x 50% of 1200 = 576

Required ratio = 69.96 : 576 = 6996 : 57600 = 583 : 4800

Hence correct answer is option D.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 9

Rearrange the following sentences in the right order so that they make a grammatically correct and meaningful paragraph and answer the following questions.
A. To accelerate adoption, the government launched the FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles) scheme, offering subsidies to buyers.
B. India's automobile industry is undergoing a quiet revolution as electric vehicles gradually replace their fossil-fuel counterparts on roads.
C. However, concerns around charging infrastructure, high upfront cost, and limited battery range continue to deter potential buyers.
D. The two-wheeler and three-wheeler segments have led this transition, with electric models now accounting for a significant share of new registrations.
E. Despite these incentives, long-term success will depend on building a robust ecosystem of charging stations and locally manufactured battery cells.
F. Air pollution in cities like Delhi and Mumbai has added urgency to the push for cleaner mobility solutions.
Which sentence can be inserted between the THIRD and FOURTH sentence?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Between D (two/three-wheelers leading) and A (government scheme), Option B expands the transition to buses, adding continuity before policy discussion.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 10

According to the passage, how does climate change pose a risk to the banking sector's credit?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is C) It affects the ability of borrowers in sectors like agriculture and real estate to repay loans.
Explanation

  • The passage states that severe weather events such as droughts or floods, triggered by increased temperatures, could impact sectors like agriculture and real estate.
  • This could, in turn, affect the borrowers' ability to repay their loans, thereby increasing credit risk for banks.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 11

Identify the incorrect statements as per the passage:
A. According to the passage, banks can mitigate the effects of climate change by incorporating climate-related risks into their decision-making processes.
B. The passage suggests that banks are merely passive observers of climate change.
C. The term 'climate' refers to the weather conditions over short periods.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The correct answer is 5) Both B and C.
Explanation

  • B) "The passage suggests that banks are merely passive observers of climate change." This statement is incorrect. The passage outlines how banks face both physical and transitional risks due to climate change and emphasizes their proactive role in addressing these challenges. It highlights the need for banks to reassess their roles and responsibilities in the face of climate change, rather than being passive observers.
  • C) "The term 'climate' refers to the weather conditions over short periods." This statement is incorrect as per the passage. The passage defines climate as being characterized by long-term weather patterns and conditions in a given area, including factors such as temperature, humidity, wind velocity, and precipitation. Therefore, it's incorrect to say that 'climate' refers to weather conditions over short periods.

Other Related Points

  • A) "According to the passage, banks can mitigate the effects of climate change by incorporating climate-related risks into their decision-making processes." This statement is correct as per the passage. It specifically mentions that by integrating climate-related risks and opportunities into their operations and decision-making processes, banks can help in mitigating the effects of climate change.

Therefore, both statements B and C are incorrect as per the information provided in the passage.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 12

Which of the following numbers is wrong in the series?

6, 9, 33, 119, 601, 3599

Detailed Solution: Question 12

6 × 2 - 3 = 9

9 × 3 + 4 = 31

31 × 4 - 5 = 119

119 × 5 + 6 = 601

601 × 6 - 7 = 3599

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 13

The marked price of the laptop is 40% more than its cost price and the shopkeeper offers a discount of x%. If he gets a profit of 5%, then find the value of x.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Let the cost price of the laptop = 100a

According to the question,

100a * 140/100 * (100 –x)/100 = 100a * 105/100

140 * (1 – x/100) = 105

140 – 105 = 140x/100

x = 35 * 5/7

x = 25

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 14

What should come in place of question mark "?' in the following number series?

219, 348, ?, 738, 1011

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The pattern followed in this question is

63 + 3 = 219

73 + 5 = 348

83 + 7 = 519

93 + 9 = 738

103 + 11 = 1011

∴ The missing term is 519.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 15

An electrician purchases few coolers for ₹25,640 and sold 70% of those at a profit of 25% and the rest at some loss. If he incurred an overall loss of 11%, for how much loss percent did he sell the remaining coolers for?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The electrician incurred a loss of 11% i.e., he get 89% of the cost price.

Let the percentage loss for which he sold the remaining 30% of the cooler be x.

∴ 1.25 * (0.7 * 25,640) + (1 - x) * (0.3 * 25,640) = 0.89 * 25,640

⇒ 0.875 + 0.3(1 - x) = 0.89

⇒ 0.3 - 0.3x = 0.015

⇒ 0.3x = 0.285

⇒ x = 0.95 = 95%

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 16

A shopkeeper sold three articles. First article was sold at 10% profit, second article sold at 20% profit and third article at 15% loss. If the ratio of their selling price is 5 : 3 : 6 then find the overall profit or loss percentage? (approximately)

Detailed Solution: Question 16

SP = 5x + 3x + 6x = 14x

CP = (5x × 10)/11 + (3x × 10)/12 + (6x × 100)/85

= (1700x + 935x + 2640x)/374

= 5275x/374

Loss = 5275x/374 – 14x = 39x/374

Loss % = (39x/374) × 100/(5275x/374)

= 0.739% ̴ 0.74%

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 17

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
What percentage of students passed the examination?
Statement I: 250 students appeared and 50 students failed.
Statement II: The number of students who passed is 4 times the number who failed.

Detailed Solution: Question 17

From Statement I: failed = 50, passed = 250 – 50 = 200 → percentage passed = (200 / 250) × 100 = 80%.
From Statement II: passed = 4 × failed, but total number of students is unknown, so percentage cannot be calculated.
Only Statement I is sufficient.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 18

Name the Indian expat businessman issued with Golden Card visa by Sharjah as a part of the permanent residency system tailored for investors?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Sharjah’s first Golden Card visa was issued to an Indian expat businessman Lalu Samuel. The move is a part of the permanent residency system tailored for investors. The Golden Card is a 10-year long-term visa eligible for investors and entrepreneurs to engage them in the renaissance and development of the UAE.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 19

In which of the following Indian cities, the country's first tyre park will be launched by the transport corporation of its respective state?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

India's first 'Tyre Park' will be launched in Kolkata with a vision to reuse the used vehicular tyres.

It will be launched by the West Bengal Transport Corporation and is being built by the employees itself.

Various artifacts, tables, chairs, swings, etc will be made out of the used tyres and will be painted upon with the characteristics landmarks, and features of the city.

The park will house a small cafe, people will also be provided with music for leisure.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 20

Among the following what does 'Forward Rate Agreement' refers to?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Forward rate agreements (FRA) are over-the-counter contracts between parties that determine the rate of interest to be paid on an agreed-upon date in the future.

An FRA is an agreement to exchange an interest rate commitment on a notional amount.

The FRA determines the rates to be used along with the termination date and the notional value.

FRAs are cash-settled with the payment based on the net difference between the interest rate of the contract and the floating rate in the market called the reference rate.

The notional amount is not exchanged, but rather a cash amount based on the rate differentials and the notional value of the contract.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 21

Which country's mapping and survey organization has said that Google Maps are unauthentic?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

India's mapping and survey organization, Survey of India has said that Google Maps is "not authenticated" and "unapproved" by the government. According to SOI google maps are not fit for high-end applications and is used by low-end applications with a confined accuracy. Survey of India's maps are used for high-engineering applications like building a new railway line or a making canals

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 22

In June 2025, the government revamped the Sugamya Bharat App to enhance accessibility for persons with disabilities (PwDs) and the elderly. This update is aimed at making the app more user-friendly and inclusive. The revamped version incorporates various features designed to assist users in navigating daily challenges. According to reports, what is the major new feature integrated into the app to provide real-time help and support for users facing accessibility issues?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The correct answer is AI-powered chatbot assistance.
Explanation

  • Government revamps Sugamya Bharat App.
  • The revamped app introduces an AI-powered chatbot to support users in real time with queries and accessibility challenges.
  • The app now boasts a more intuitive and user-friendly interface for elderly and differently-abled users.
  • SBA allows uploading geo-tagged photographs of inaccessible places to enable quick corrective action by authorities.
  • It integrates notifications on new government schemes, accessibility circulars, and resources for disability support.
  • As of June 2025, there are over 14,358 registered users and nearly 84,000 downloads across mobile platforms.
  • Since inception, over 2,700 complaints have been processed, with around 1,900 resolved.
  • Available in 10 Indian languages, the app covers accessibility relating to public facilities, transport, and ICT systems.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 23

In September 2025, the "Small Business Spotlight" report, jointly published by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) and CRIF High Mark, revealed key insights into the landscape of small business credit in India. According to the report, one Indian state stands out for its significant contribution to the small business credit market. With an impressive outstanding portfolio of ₹6.0 lakh crore, which state leads the nation in providing credit to small businesses, showcasing its strong economic growth and support for the sector?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The correct answer is Maharashtra.
Explanation

  • The joint report “Small Business Spotlight”, released by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and credit bureau CRIF High Mark, provided an indepth understanding of the lending trends among small businesses
  • Maharashtra maintained its position as the state with the highest outstanding credit for small businesses at ₹6.0 lakh crore, reflecting its robust industrial ecosystem and credit penetration.
  • Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka follow as the next largest states by portfolio size, demonstrating diverse regional credit landscapes across India.
  • Uttar Pradesh exhibited the most significant portfolio growth at 20.7% year-on-year, showing accelerated micro and small enterprise lending.
  • The study provides deep insights into lending patterns, sectoral distributions, and emerging credit trends shaping India's small business financing.
  • This data is crucial for policymakers and financial institutions to optimize credit allocation and boost economic activity in key states.
  • The report supports national efforts to enhance MSME sector financing and formalization.
  • Strong credit growth in states like Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh underlines their dynamic SME sectors driving regional development.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 24

In July 2025, Saima Wazed, the daughter of former Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, was honored with the prestigious Mental Health Award 2025 for her outstanding contributions to mental health advocacy. Saima Wazed currently holds a significant role at the World Health Organization (WHO), where she has been actively involved in promoting mental health awareness and support. What position does Saima Wazed currently serve at the WHO, and where was she awarded the Mental Health Award 2025?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is Regional Director, WHO SEAR; Bangkok.
Explanation

  • Saima Wazed, daughter of former Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, officially assumed charge as the Regional Director for WHO-SEAR, one of the six regions of the World Health Organization, overseeing public health programs, strategy, and mental health policy across South-East Asia.
  • She was conferred the Mental Health Award 2025 at the 24th Annual International Mental Health Conference (IMHC) held at ICONSIAM, Bangkok, reflecting her contributions and leadership in mental health advocacy in the region.
  • Her professional background includes pioneering work in autism, child development, and regional mental health initiatives, bridging research, policy, and awareness for vulnerable populations.
  • Saima Wazed’s tenure as WHO Regional Director further strengthens collaborations between Bangladesh, WHO, and global health partners to advance mental health, prevention, treatment, and public health education.
  • In 2014, she became the first recipient of the Excellence in Public Health Award by WHO-SEAR, recognizing ongoing achievements throughout her career.
  • The 24th IMHC is a prominent international event promoting best practices, knowledge transfer, and public engagement for improving global mental health.
  • Saima Wazed’s work serves as a model for integrating mental health into primary care and for building resilient health care systems in developing countries.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 25

In August 2025, it was announced that the 8th Commonwealth Youth Games (CYG) will be hosted by a country in 2027. The event will feature multiple sports competitions across various clusters situated on the country's islands. More than 1,000 young athletes from 74 nations and territories are expected to participate in this prestigious sporting event. Which country has been chosen to host the 8th Commonwealth Youth Games in 2027, offering a unique experience across its islands for athletes and spectators alike?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The correct answer is Malta.
Explanation

  • London, England based Commonwealth Sport, formerly known as the Commonwealth Games Federation, announced that Malta will host the 8th Commonwealth Youth Games (CYG) in 2027
  • Games will take place in four venue clusters across Malta and Gozo.
  • Over 1000 athletes aged 14–18 from 74 countries/territories will participate.
  • India hosted the 3rd edition in Pune, Maharashtra, in 2008.
  • London-based Commonwealth Sport is the organizing global body.
  • CYG fosters youth athletic growth and international cooperation.
  • Sports include athletics, swimming, and more youth disciplines.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 26

In August 2025, a Norwegian chess Grandmaster made history by becoming the first-ever winner of the inaugural Chess Esports World Cup, an event organized by the Esports World Cup Foundation. The prestigious tournament took place in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, and featured some of the finest minds in the world of chess. Who was the Norwegian chess Grandmaster who triumphed in the first Chess Esports World Cup in 2025?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is Magnus Carlsen.
Explanation

  • The inaugural Chess Esports World Cup took place in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, with top grandmasters from around the world.
  • Magnus Carlsen, the world No.1 and five-time classical chess world champion, claimed victory by defeating Alireza Firouzja (France) by 2-0 in the Grand Final.
  • GM Hikaru Nakamura (USA) secured third place after defeating Indian GM Arjun Erigaisi.
  • The event was organized by the Esports World Cup Foundation (EWCF) and featured sixteen players from thirteen teams.
  • The tournament featured a total prize pool of $1.5 million USD, with Carlsen receiving the largest share as champion.
  • The Chess Esports World Cup represents the rapid convergence of traditional board games with the global esports movement.
  • The event's success showcased growing global interest in competitive chess in the digital era and broader esports ecosystem.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 27

In July 2025, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) introduced a new plan set to be launched in September 2025, offering significant benefits to policyholders. This plan provides guaranteed additions ranging from 8.5% to 9.5% of the annual premium, making it an attractive option for long-term savings. Additionally, it allows flexible premium payment terms of 6, 8, 10, or 12 years. Which LIC plan offers these guaranteed additions and flexible premium payment options?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is Nav Jeevan Shree.
Explanation

  • Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has launched two plans namely, Nav Jeevan Shree and Nav Jeevan Shree Single Premium.
  • The Nav Jeevan Shree (Plan 912) is a new endowment policy from LIC that ensures guaranteed additions ranging between 8.5% to 9.5% of the annual premium, giving policyholders predictable benefit growth.
  • Premiums for Nav Jeevan Shree may be paid over 6, 8, 10, or 12 years, depending on the selected term, allowing flexible contribution schedules for policyholders to suit individual financial needs.
  • The minimum term for this plan is 10 years while the maximum is 20 years, providing medium-to-long term coverage and savings benefits.
  • The entry age requirement ranges from 30 days (completed) to 60 years, permitting broad eligibility for new policyholders looking for insurance and financial security.
  • The plan requires a minimum basic sum assured of Rs 5 lakhs, with no specified ceiling, subject to LIC’s board-approved underwriting guidelines, catering to a wide demographic of insurance buyers.
  • Maturity requirements specify a minimum age of 18 years and a maximum age of 75 years at plan completion, ensuring the plan’s relevance for multiple life stages.
  • The plan is designed to balance insurance protection with wealth creation, especially for policyholders seeking long-term financial planning tools with guaranteed additions.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 28

In July 2025, a milestone for Indian health research was marked with the inauguration of a state-of-the-art National Biobank at CSIR-IGIB in New Delhi. This facility aims to collect diverse health, genetic, and lifestyle data from thousands across the country to advance personalized medicine and genomic studies. Who inaugurated India’s National Biobank for Health Research in 2025?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is Dr. Jitendra Singh.
Explanation

  • Dr. Jitendra Singh Inaugurates 'National Biobank'.
  • The National Biobank is a first of its kind facility for collecting health, genetic, and lifestyle data from 10,000 participants pan India.
  • It is developed as part of the Phenome India project, inspired by the UK Biobank but tailored to Indian needs.
  • The Biobank will focus on improving early disease detection, supporting research into cancer, diabetes, and other rare genetic and lifestyle-related diseases.
  • The inauguration was held at CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), New Delhi.
  • Biobank data is expected to transform personalized healthcare by enabling tailor-made treatment based on genetic and lifestyle profiles.
  • The project reinforces India’s capabilities and leadership in genomics, quantum technology, and artificial intelligence for health research.
  • Strong partnerships between science, government, and industry are emphasized to translate research into practical solutions for Indian healthcare.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 29

Union Budget 2025-2026, Which of the following statements accurately reflects the changes introduced for TDS/TCS rationalization aimed at reducing taxpayer inconvenience?
The exemption limit for TDS on interest earned by senior citizens has been raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh.
The annual TDS threshold on rental income has been revised upward from ₹2.4 lakh to ₹5 lakh.
The TCS threshold under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme of the RBI has been enhanced from ₹7 lakh to ₹10 lakh.

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Explanation

  • Senior citizens’ interest TDS limit was doubled from ₹50,000 to ₹1,00,000 — not from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh. 
  • TDS on rent moved from ₹2.4 lakh per year to ₹50,000 per month (i.e., ₹6 lakh per year) — not to ₹5 lakh.
  • TCS threshold under RBI’s LRS was raised from ₹7 lakh to ₹10 lakh — this is correct.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 3 - Question 30

In August 2025, A prominent port in Tamil Nadu made history by becoming the first port in India to achieve both the production of green hydrogen and a rooftop solar power generation capacity surpassing 1 MW. This milestone was announced during a national conference dedicated to sustainable shipping in 2025. Which port accomplished this dual green energy achievement?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct answer is V.O. Chidambaranar (VOC) Port.
Explanation

  • The announcement was made by Chairperson Sushant Kumar Purohit during the “Green Ports and Shipping – Chartering Sustainable Maritime Future” conference, held at Thoothukudi.
  • VOC Port is India's first major port to generate green hydrogen at commercial scale, demonstrating leadership in renewable energy for port operations.
  • The port also crossed a major milestone by achieving rooftop solar power generation capacity of over 1 MW, reducing dependency on conventional energy sources.
  • The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) facilitated the conference through its NAVIC Cell-3 for promoting green initiatives.
  • Green hydrogen is produced using renewable electricity and water, emitting zero carbon during the process, and supports decarbonization goals.
  • The initiative aligns with the International Maritime Organization’s (IMO) strategy to cut shipping emissions and India's broader renewable targets.
  • The achievement supports the government’s Sagarmala Programme and vision for sustainable, eco-friendly ports.

Additional Information

  • V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority
    • Location: Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu
    • Established in - 1974
    • Formerly known as Tuticorin Port
  • Green hydrogen: Produced using electrolysis with renewable energy; used in shipping, transport, and industry.
  • Solar energy: Rooftop solar power helps reduce traditional grid usage and lowers ports' carbon footprints.
  • Sagarmala Programme: An Indian government initiative for port modernization and efficiency.
  • IMO: United Nations specialized agency for regulating shipping and promoting sustainable maritime practices.

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