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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 (200 Questions)

You can boost your Bank Exams 2026 exam preparation with this IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Bank Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 200
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: LR, Data Analysis & Interpretation, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General,Eco,Banking Awareness, Comp,IT

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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 1

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are certain number of persons sitting in a row and all were facing South and have their birthdays on 8th and 25th of four different months i.e. March, April, May and June but not necessarily in the same order. B is in the middle of the row. D is fifth to the right of E. B has birthday on 8th of the month which is having 31 days. Two persons sit between G and I who is five places away from K. Only three persons have birthday between D and I. M is third from one of the extreme ends but is not sitting between D and E. E is at one of the extreme end. Only one person has birthday before D. Number of persons between B and D is one less than the number of persons between D and N. N sits to the immediate left of M. E and G are having birthday in the same month having 30 days but not in April. Three people sit between I and B who is immediate right of K. K has birthday after M who is elder than N. Number of persons between I and B are same as number of persons between B and D. E’s birthday was held before G.

Q. Who among the following is the eldest if all the persons were born in the same year?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

1. Three people sit between I and B who is immediate right of K. Number of persons between I and B are same as number of persons between B and D.

2. Two persons sit between G and I who is five places away from K. D is fifth to the right of E. E is at one of the extreme end. This is not possible in case 2. So, case 1 is correct.

3. B is in the middle of the row. M is third from one of the extreme ends but is not sitting between D and E. N sits to the immediate left of M. Two persons sit between G and I who is five places away from K.

4. Only one person has birthday before D. Only three persons have birthday between D and I. E and G are having birthday in the same month having 30 days but not in April. E’s birthday was held before G.

5. B has birthday on 8th of the month which is having 31 days. Number of persons between B and D is one less than the number of persons between D and N. K has birthday after M.

Hence, B is the eldest among all.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 2

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Sixteen persons Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S, H, G, F, E, D, C, B and A are sitting around two circular tables. There is small circular table inside the bigger circular table. The persons sitting around the inner circular table faces outside and the persons sitting around the outer circular table faces inside in such a way persons sitting on both tables facing each other.

Two persons sit between Y and H. Three persons are sitting between F and C who sits exactly between Z and V. X sits to the immediate right of U. Four persons are sitting between W and U. Only two persons are sitting between X and T who faces F. S sits to the immediate left of T and faces D. T and F sit on different tables. The one who faces V sits exactly between G and A who faces H. U who faces E, faces outside. Z faces X.

Q. Who among the following faces A?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Persons – Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S, H, G, F, E, D, C, B and A 1. U who faces E faces outside. X sits to the immediate right of U. Z faces X. Only two persons are sitting between X and T who faces F. T and F sit on different tables.

Case 1:

2. S sits to the immediate left of T and faces D. Three persons are sitting between F and C who sits exactly between Z and V. This is not possible in case 1. So, case 2 is correct.

3. Two persons sit between Y and H. Four persons are sitting between W and U. The one who faces V sits exactly between G and A who faces H.

Hence, H faces A.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 3

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are eight members Y, Z, U, W, Q, S, C and E. Each of them is related to Y in some way or the other and all of them have different chocolates among 20, 27, 33, 38, 40, 43, 45 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order and all are sitting in a straight line facing North.

Q is sitting second to right of Y’s son. Two people are sitting between Q and Z’s brother. Two people are sitting between Y’s son and Y’s father. S is an immediate neighbour of Y’s father. S is sitting at one of extreme ends. The sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates kept by W and E. One among the four have the highest number of chocolates and one among the four have the lowest number of chocolates. W and Y’s brother are sitting together. The difference between the chocolates of W and Z is equal to the difference between the chocolates of Q and U. Y’s brother is sitting second to left of Y. Two people are sitting between W and Y’s sister. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Q. C has more number of chocolates than Y but less than S. E’s father is sitting to the immediate right of Y’s daughter. Y’s wife is immediate neighbour of E. C is younger than U. Q does not have highest no of choclates and E have third highest number of choclates.

Q. Who among the following is father of Y ?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Members – Y, Z, U, W, Q, S, C and E

According to the information given, relations of Y are father, mother, sister, brother, wife, son and daughter.

1. S is sitting at one of extreme ends. S is an immediate neighbour of Y’s father. Two people are sitting between Y’s son and Y’s father. Q is sitting second to right of Y’s son. Two people are sitting between Q and Z’s brother.

Case 1:

2. W and Y’s brother are sitting together. Y’s brother is sitting second to left of Y. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Q.

Hence, S is brother of Y and W is father of Y.

Hence, Y is brother of Z.

3. Two people are sitting between W and Y’s sister.

This is not possible in case 1. So, case 2 is correct.

4. E’s father is sitting to the immediate right of Y’s daughter.

Case 1:

E’s father is Y.

Hence, W is daughter of Y and E is son of Y.

Case 2:

E’s father is Y’s father.

Hence, Q is daughter of Y and Z, Y and E are siblings.

5. Y’s wife is immediate neighbour of E.

This is not possible in case 1. So, case 2 is correct.

Hence, E is Y’s brother, Z is Y’s sister, W is Y’s wife, Q is Y’s daughter and S is Y’s mother.

C is younger than U.

So, U is Y’s father and C is Y’s son.

6. The sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates kept by W and E. One among the four have the highest number of chocolates and one among the four have the lowest number of chocolates. C has more number of chocolates than Y but less than S.

Hence, C does not have the highest number of chocolates. If we assume chocolates of C be 20 and chocolates of Q be 50 then it does not follow the condition of sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates of W and E.

Therefore sum of chocolates of W and E is 50 + 20 = 70. Sum of chocolates of C and Q is 27 + 43 = 70.

S > C > Y. So, chocolates of C is 43, S is 45 and Q is 27.

5. The difference between the chocolates of W and Z is equal to the difference between the chocolates of Q and U.

W – Z = Q – U

Chocolates of Q are 27.

Hence, U chocolates can be 33, 38 and 40.

Therefore, difference between chocolates of U and Q can be 6, 11 and 13.

Let marks of W be 20 then chocolates of T can be 33, 38 and 40.

Therefore, difference between chocolates of W and Z can be 13, 18 and 20.

Hence, chocolates of W is 20, E is 50, Z is 33 and U is 40.

Chocolates of Y is 38.

Hence, U is father of Y.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 4

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are eight members Y, Z, U, W, Q, S, C and E. Each of them is related to Y in some way or the other and all of them have different chocolates among 20, 27, 33, 38, 40, 43, 45 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order and all are sitting in a straight line facing North.

Q is sitting second to right of Y’s son. Two people are sitting between Q and Z’s brother. Two people are sitting between Y’s son and Y’s father. S is an immediate neighbour of Y’s father. S is sitting at one of extreme ends. The sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates kept by W and E. One among the four have the highest number of chocolates and one among the four have the lowest number of chocolates. W and Y’s brother are sitting together. The difference between the chocolates of W and Z is equal to the difference between the chocolates of Q and U. Y’s brother is sitting second to left of Y. Two people are sitting between W and Y’s sister. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Q. C has more number of chocolates than Y but less than S. E’s father is sitting to the immediate right of Y’s daughter. Y’s wife is immediate neighbour of E. C is younger than U. Q does not have highest no of choclates and E have third highest number of choclates.

Q. How is S related to C?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Members – Y, Z, U, W, Q, S, C and E

According to the information given, relations of Y are father, mother, sister, brother, wife, son and daughter.

1. S is sitting at one of extreme ends. S is an immediate neighbour of Y’s father. Two people are sitting between Y’s son and Y’s father. Q is sitting second to right of Y’s son. Two people are sitting between Q and Z’s brother.

Case 1:

2. W and Y’s brother are sitting together. Y’s brother is sitting second to left of Y. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Q.

Hence, S is brother of Y and W is father of Y.

Hence, Y is brother of Z.

3. Two people are sitting between W and Y’s sister.

This is not possible in case 1. So, case 2 is correct.

4. E’s father is sitting to the immediate right of Y’s daughter.

Case 1:

E’s father is Y.

Hence, W is daughter of Y and E is son of Y.

Case 2:

E’s father is Y’s father.

Hence, Q is daughter of Y and Z, Y and E are siblings.

5. Y’s wife is immediate neighbour of E.

This is not possible in case 1. So, case 2 is correct.

Hence, E is Y’s brother, Z is Y’s sister, W is Y’s wife, Q is Y’s daughter and S is Y’s mother.

C is younger than U.

So, U is Y’s father and C is Y’s son.

6. The sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates kept by W and E. One among the four have the highest number of chocolates and one among the four have the lowest number of chocolates. C has more number of chocolates than Y but less than S.

Hence, C does not have the highest number of chocolates. If we assume chocolates of C be 20 and chocolates of Q be 50 then it does not follow the condition of sum of chocolates of C and Q is equal to sum of chocolates of W and E.

Therefore sum of chocolates of W and E is 50 + 20 = 70. Sum of chocolates of C and Q is 27 + 43 = 70.

S > C > Y. So, chocolates of C is 43, S is 45 and Q is 27.

5. The difference between the chocolates of W and Z is equal to the difference between the chocolates of Q and U.

W – Z = Q – U

Chocolates of Q are 27.

Hence, U chocolates can be 33, 38 and 40.

Therefore, difference between chocolates of U and Q can be 6, 11 and 13.

Let marks of W be 20 then chocolates of T can be 33, 38 and 40.

Therefore, difference between chocolates of W and Z can be 13, 18 and 20.

Hence, chocolates of W is 20, E is 50, Z is 33 and U is 40.

Chocolates of Y is 38.

Hence, S is grandmother of C.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 5

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

In a certain code,

today positive decent found is written as @6A @6V &7B @5Q

people attend daily party’ is written as @6V *6V #5B @5A

regular fitness sound health is written as @6A @8P #8O @5E

picture perfect quality movie is written as #6B #8B #8V @8Q

Q. What is the code for the word ‘product’?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Symbols are number of vowels in word:-

If 1-*, 2-@, 3-#, 4-&

Letter is the last letter -3.

Number is the number of letters in the word.

If the number of letters is even, number is decreased by 1.

If the number of letters is odd, number is increased by 1.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 6

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were born on 7th, 9th,16th, and 19th in March and July. Each one of them likes either a colour or a fruit. The persons who likes colours were born on that day which is a perfect square and they like Yellow, Green, Red and Blue. The persons who were born on the day which denotes a prime numbers like fruits – Apple, Cherry, Mango, and Banana. (Note: None of the given information is necessary in the same order). The one who likes yellow color was born on a day which is a perfect square in the month of March. No person was born between D and the one who likes yellow. D doesn’t like colour. Only three persons were born between D and the one who likes Mango. No person is born between the one who likes Mango and Blue colour. The number of people born after the one who likes blue colour is one less than a number of persons born before A. The one who likes Apple was born immediately before B. B does not like Mango. The number of people born before B is same as the number of persons born after G. Only three persons were born between the one who likes Green and H . H and the one who likes Cherry was born in the same month but not in March. C was born after the one who likes blue colour. E doesn’t like any colour. F doesn’t like Apple.

Q. Who was born on 19th of March and 16th of July?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The one who likes yellow colour was born on a day which is a perfect square in the month of March. No person was born between D and the one who likes yellow. D doesn’t like colour. Means D born on prime numbered date.

No person is born between the one who like Mango and Blue colour. The number of the people born after the one who likes blue colour is one less than number of persons born before A. The one who likes Apple was born immediately before B. B does not like Mango.

The number of people born before B is same as the number of persons born after G. Only three persons were born between the one who likes Green and H . H and the one who likes Cherry were born in the same month but not in March.

Case1

Case1 is eliminated as H born in month of March.

Case2

C was born after the one who likes blue colour. E doesn’t like any colour. F doesn’t like Apple.

Final Arrangement

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 7

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.

The following bar graph represents the amount invested by four persons A, B, C and D in each year (share of profit divided among them in each year) and the line graph represents the percentage of amount increased by them in the investment after 6 months.

Q. If A, and B invested their amount together in the year 2015 and B and C invested their amount together in the year 2016 and the profit earned by A and B together in the year 2015 and profit earned by B and C together in the year 2016 is same, then what is the ratio of profit earned by A in the year 2015 and profit earned by C in the year 2016?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Ratio of profit share of A and B in the year 2015 = (25500 x 6 + 1.10 x 25500 x 6) : (20500 x 6 + 1.25 x 20500 x 6)

= 53550: 46125

= 2142: 1845

= 238:205

Ratio of profit share of B and C in the year 2016 = (20000 x 6 +1.3 x 20000 x 6) : ( 25000 x 6 +1.40 x 25000 x 6)

= 46: 60

= 23: 30

Required ratio =

= 6307: 6645

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 8

Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.

The following bar graph represents the amount invested by four persons A, B, C and D in each year (share of profit divided among them in each year) and the line graph represents the percentage of amount increased by them in the investment after 6 months.

Q. C and D invested their amount together in the year 2016 and they also invested their amount together in the year 2017. If profit earned by C and D in the year 2016 and 2017 are respectively Rs 8910 and Rs 11560, then find the difference between profit earned by C in the year 2016 and profit earned by D in the year 2017.

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Ratio of profit share of C and D in the year 2016 = (25000 x 6 + 1.4 x 25000 x 6) :( 30000 x 6 + 1.5 x 30000 x 6)

=60: 75 =4: 5

Profit share of C in the year 2016 =

Ratio of profit share of C and D in the year 2017 = (18000 x 6 + 1.25 x 18000 x 6) :( 22000 x 6 + 1.10 x 22000 x 6)

=405: 462 =135:154

Profit share of D in the year 2017 =

Required difference =6160 – 4950 =Rs 1210

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 9

Direction: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In a survey among students in the college, it was found that out of the male population 34% preferred Chemistry, 30% liked Maths and 58% Physics. Of the total Male students, 15% liked Chemistry and Maths, 22% liked Physics and Maths and 32% liked Physics and Chemistry. Only 33% of the male students did not like any of these subjects.

It was also found that out of the female population 56% preferred Chemistry, 45% liked Maths and 94% likes Physics. Out of the total female students, 31% liked Chemistry and Maths, 25% liked Physics and Maths and 33% liked Physics and Chemistry. Only 5% of the female students did not like any of these subjects.

Total number of male students in the college is 3000 and total number of students in the college is 5000.

Q. What is the difference between number of female students of those who like Maths and Physics but not Chemistry and number of male students who like Chemistry only?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Let x male students like all these three subjects.

So, Male students like Chemistry and Maths = 15 - x

Male students like Chemistry and Physics = 32 - x

Male students like Physics and Maths = 22 - x

Male students like Chemistry only = 34 - (15-x+x+32-x) = x - 13

Male students like Physics only = 58 - (32-x+x+22-x) = x + 4

Male students like Maths only = 30 - (15-x+x+22-x) = x - 7

We can solve this as:

For male students:

x-13+15-x+x-7+x+32-x+22-x+x+4=67

53+x = 67

x = 14

So, Male students like Chemistry and Maths = 15 - 14 = 1

Male students like Chemistry and Physics = 32 - 14 = 18

Male students like Physics and Maths = 22 - 14 = 8

Male students like Chemistry only = 14 - 13 = 1

Male students like Physics only = 14 + 4 = 18

Male students like Maths only = 14 - 7 = 7

Let y female students like all these three subjects.

So, female students like Chemistry and Maths = 31 - y

Female students like Chemistry and Physics = 33 - y

Female students like Physics and Maths = 25 - y

Female students like Chemistry only = 56 - (31-y+y+33-y) = y - 8

Female students like Physics only = 64 - (33-y+y+25-y) = y + 6

Female students like Maths only = 45 - (31-y+y+25-y) = y - 11

For female students: y-8+31-y+y-11+y+33-y+25-y+y+6=95

76+y = 95

y = 19

So, female students like Chemistry and Maths = 31 - 19 = 12

Female students like Chemistry and Physics = 33 - 19 = 14

Female students like Physics and Maths = 25 - 19 = 6

Female students like Chemistry only = 19 - 8 = 11

Female students like Physics only = 19 + 6 = 25

Female students like Maths only = 19 - 11 = 8

Venn diagram is given below:

Total female students = 5000 – 3000 = 2000

Required Difference = 6% of 2000 – 1% of 3000 = 120 – 30 = 90

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 10

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in the underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

One of our largest infrastructure finance companies, Infrastructure Leasing and Financial Services (IL&FS), a “systemically important core investment company” registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), began to implode. Starting with a default on its Rs 1,000 crore bond repayment to SIDBI, IL&FS and its non-banking finance subsidiaries have begun to renege on one repayment after another. Fears that mounting troubles in the IL&FS group might be symptomatic of larger problems in the non-banking finance company (NBFC) space and, in turn, pose a serious threat to financial stability saw markets plunge more than 1,100 points intra-day. The unstated fear was that thanks to its inter-linkages with the financial system IL&FS may drag the entire financial system and the larger macro-economy down with it.

For now the storm seems to have abated. Latest reports speak of Orix Corporation, the diversified Japanese financial services company and one of the largest shareholders in IL&FS, being willing to up its stake; of government and RBI pitching in to help with speedy sale of IL&FS assets. But these are only band-aid solutions that cannot, and will not, last. We need to look deeper and address the cause, rather than the symptom, of the disease. The crisis at IL&FS has exposed a number of fault lines. To begin with, the ills of the financial sector go much beyond the much-maligned public sector banks. It is the familiar story of failure on multiple fronts: the regulator Reserve Bank of India (RBI), credit rating agencies who downgraded IL&FS much too late, auditors, and most importantly, the board of IL&FS.

Given that one of the biggest learnings of the 2008 crisis is of the dangers posed by shadow banks like IL&FS, one would have expected RBI to keep a close eye on IL&FS, particularly in view of its excessive leverage. But, sadly, it failed to do so! If RBI bears the main responsibility for the unfolding events at IL&FS, it is not the only one. Rating agencies have, again, been caught sleeping on the watch. Ratings have been rapidly downgraded; in many cases after the event. Rating agencies are technically under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi); but are not subject to close regulatory oversight. Worse, under the current rating model, fees are paid by the rated entities. There is, thus, a huge incentive to give generous ratings for fear of losing business. Until we address this basic flaw in the rating model, ratings must be taken for what they are worth: very little! Company auditors are no less culpable. The annual accounts of IL&FS and its close to 200 subsidiaries were audited by some of the biggest names in the profession. Yet none thought it fit to red flag the growing dependence on short term debt and the excessively high leverage. The biggest opprobrium must, however, be reserved for the board of IL&FS. IL&FS had a star-studded board. Yet Ravi Parthasarathy, CEO from 1989 till July 2018, seems to have run the company like his fiefdom. Since he was asked no questions, it seemed that he was handsomely rewarded for presiding the virtual destruction of IL&FS.

Each of these entities must share the blame and take corrective measures. But there is a larger factor at play that must be factored in while considering any kind of rescue package: the inherent flaw in the extant model of infrastructure financing. Infra projects have long gestation periods. They require long term funding that neither banks nor NBFCs can provide. Moreover, issues related to land acquisition, environmental clearance, policy flip-flop, political interference and rapidly changing external dynamics make infrastructure financing particularly risky. Cost and time overruns are inevitable. Unless we address these we will not be able to ring-fence either banks or NBFCs from the risk associated with financing infrastructure. It is imperative that before we consider any solution, especially bailout with taxpayer money, RBI must make an informed assessment of IL&FS’s inter-connectedness (and, hence, risk of systemic failure). Remember, any solution will prove short lived unless we address fault lines all around, including underlying risks in infra financing.

Q. Choose the correct option for 107.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Hephaestus was the god of fire, metalworking, stone masonry, forges and the art of sculpture. He was the son of Zeus and Hera and married to Aphrodite by Zeus to prevent a war of the gods fighting for her hand. He was a smithing god, making all of the weapons for Olympus and acting as a blacksmith for the gods.

“Fashioned” means to make something into a particular form. Hephaestus made “mechanical serving maids from gold” and gave or blessed them “learning, reason, and skill.” So, the word in the second blank should be a verb meaning ‘gave/blessed/provide/furnish.’

Option 1: Dowered is a verb which means ‘give a dowry to someone.’ This word is less appropriate in the context of the sentence.

Option 2: Endowed is a verb which means to provide with a quality, ability, or asset. If someone or something is endowed with a particular quality or feature, the person or thing naturally has that quality or feature. Endued is a verb which means to endow or provide with a quality or ability.

Option 3: Able is an adjective. But we need a verb because of “fashioned.”

Option 4: Bequeathed is a verb which means to pass something on or leave something to someone else. Replenished is a verb which means to fill something up again. Both these words are inappropriate for filling the blank.

Option 5: Abetted means encourage or assist someone to commit a crime. Thus, this option can’t be used.

Therefore, option 2 is the apt answer.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 11

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in the underline to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

One of our largest infrastructure finance companies, Infrastructure Leasing and Financial Services (IL&FS), a “systemically important core investment company” registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), began to implode. Starting with a default on its Rs 1,000 crore bond repayment to SIDBI, IL&FS and its non-banking finance subsidiaries have begun to renege on one repayment after another. Fears that mounting troubles in the IL&FS group might be symptomatic of larger problems in the non-banking finance company (NBFC) space and, in turn, pose a serious threat to financial stability saw markets plunge more than 1,100 points intra-day. The unstated fear was that thanks to its inter-linkages with the financial system IL&FS may drag the entire financial system and the larger macro-economy down with it.

For now the storm seems to have abated. Latest reports speak of Orix Corporation, the diversified Japanese financial services company and one of the largest shareholders in IL&FS, being willing to up its stake; of government and RBI pitching in to help with speedy sale of IL&FS assets. But these are only band-aid solutions that cannot, and will not, last. We need to look deeper and address the cause, rather than the symptom, of the disease. The crisis at IL&FS has exposed a number of fault lines. To begin with, the ills of the financial sector go much beyond the much-maligned public sector banks. It is the familiar story of failure on multiple fronts: the regulator Reserve Bank of India (RBI), credit rating agencies who downgraded IL&FS much too late, auditors, and most importantly, the board of IL&FS.

Given that one of the biggest learnings of the 2008 crisis is of the dangers posed by shadow banks like IL&FS, one would have expected RBI to keep a close eye on IL&FS, particularly in view of its excessive leverage. But, sadly, it failed to do so! If RBI bears the main responsibility for the unfolding events at IL&FS, it is not the only one. Rating agencies have, again, been caught sleeping on the watch. Ratings have been rapidly downgraded; in many cases after the event. Rating agencies are technically under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi); but are not subject to close regulatory oversight. Worse, under the current rating model, fees are paid by the rated entities. There is, thus, a huge incentive to give generous ratings for fear of losing business. Until we address this basic flaw in the rating model, ratings must be taken for what they are worth: very little! Company auditors are no less culpable. The annual accounts of IL&FS and its close to 200 subsidiaries were audited by some of the biggest names in the profession. Yet none thought it fit to red flag the growing dependence on short term debt and the excessively high leverage. The biggest opprobrium must, however, be reserved for the board of IL&FS. IL&FS had a star-studded board. Yet Ravi Parthasarathy, CEO from 1989 till July 2018, seems to have run the company like his fiefdom. Since he was asked no questions, it seemed that he was handsomely rewarded for presiding the virtual destruction of IL&FS.

Each of these entities must share the blame and take corrective measures. But there is a larger factor at play that must be factored in while considering any kind of rescue package: the inherent flaw in the extant model of infrastructure financing. Infra projects have long gestation periods. They require long term funding that neither banks nor NBFCs can provide. Moreover, issues related to land acquisition, environmental clearance, policy flip-flop, political interference and rapidly changing external dynamics make infrastructure financing particularly risky. Cost and time overruns are inevitable. Unless we address these we will not be able to ring-fence either banks or NBFCs from the risk associated with financing infrastructure. It is imperative that before we consider any solution, especially bailout with taxpayer money, RBI must make an informed assessment of IL&FS’s inter-connectedness (and, hence, risk of systemic failure). Remember, any solution will prove short lived unless we address fault lines all around, including underlying risks in infra financing.

Q. Which of the following statements can start the passage?

I. Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS) is in cold water.

II. Almost to the day 10 years ago, when trouble surfaced at iconic US investment bank Lehman Bros, leading to its bankruptcy on September 15, 2008, India had its own near-Lehman moment.

III. There’s trouble brewing in the infrastructure sector.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

All the statements can be used to start the passage except statement I as it makes no sense in the context of the passage. Cold-water normally means water that is cold. But when we say ‘throw/ pour cold water on something,’ we mean ‘to do or say something that spoils someone’s plans or enthusiasm for doing something.’

Therefore, option 3 is the apt answer.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 12

Direction: Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.

Q. Stimuli conducive to economical and effective response, such as our system of roads and means of transportation, do not, by themselves or in their aggregate, __________ a civilization.

Detailed Solution: Question 12

‘Constitute’ is the most appropriate word as per the context.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 13

Direction: Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.

Q. In directing the activities of the young, society determines its own future in ____________ that of the young.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

‘Determining’ is the most appropriate word for the blank.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 14

Rearrange the following sentences in the right order so that they make a grammatically correct and meaningful paragraph and answer the following questions.
A. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), enacted in 2016, provided a structured mechanism for resolving stressed assets and recovering dues.
B. For years, India's public sector banks struggled under the weight of mounting non-performing assets (NPAs), threatening financial stability.
C. The government also initiated a massive recapitalisation programme, infusing capital into state-owned banks to restore lending capacity.
D. In tandem with these measures, the RBI tightened supervisory norms and mandated banks to disclose bad loans more transparently.
E. As a result of these concerted efforts, India's banking sector has shown a marked improvement in asset quality in recent years.
F. Recognising the gravity of the crisis, the government and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) undertook a series of structural reforms.
Which sentence can be inserted between the FOURTH and FIFTH sentence?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Between recapitalisation (C) and RBI tightening (D), Option A adds another reform step—bank mergers—maintaining sequence of structural reforms.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 15

According to the passage, where is the cassowary found besides Indonesia?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The passage clearly states that the narrator had just come face to face with a cassowary, a bird also found in Australia's north Queensland rainforests. No other country or region is mentioned as a habitat of the cassowary in the passage. All other options are entirely unmentioned in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is Option C.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 16

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of blue jeans sold in four different shops namely A, B, C and D and also given the number of black jeans sold in these shops and also given the ratio of the number of blue to white jeans sold in these shops.

Q. Find the difference between the number of white jeans sold in Shop B and the number of blue jeans sold in Shop C?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Shop A

Number of white jeans sold = 500 * 7/5 = 700

Shop B:

Number of white jeans sold = 300 * 5/2 = 750

Shop C:

Number of white jeans sold = 630 * 8/7 = 720

Shop D:

Number of white jeans sold = 672 * 8/7 = 768

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 17

The following question contains two equations I and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the relationship between them and give the answer as,

I) x2 – 24x + 143 = 0

II) y2 – 15y+ 54 = 0

Detailed Solution: Question 17

x2 – 24x + 143 = 0

x2 – 13x – 11x + 143 = 0

x(x – 13) – 11(x – 13) = 0

x = 11, 13

y2 – 15y + 54 = 0

y2 – 9y – 6y + 54 = 0

y(y – 9) – 6(y – 9) = 0

y = 9, 6

x > y

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 18

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Find the number of marbles with B.
Statement I: A has 24 marbles, which is 3/8 of the total marbles with A and B together.
Statement II: The ratio of marbles with A to B is 3:5.

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Statement I: A = 24 = (3/8) × total → total = 24 × (8/3) = 64 → B = 64 – 24 = 40 marbles.
Statement II: gives only ratio A:B = 3:5, but no actual value or total, so B’s number cannot be found.
Only Statement I is sufficient.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 19

Name the three-year roadmap finalised by Reserve Bank of India board to improve regulation and supervision of the central bank?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

The Reserve Bank of India board has finalised a three-year roadmap ‘Utkarsh 2022’. It is a three-year road map for medium term objectives to be achieved for improving regulation and supervision of the central bank.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 20

Which bank has collaborated with Google to enable customers to use their cards on Google Pay platform?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

  • India’s largest credit card issuer SBI Card announced a collaboration with Google to enable customers to use their cards on Google Pay platform.

  • The payments are managed via a “secure digital token” that is attached to the smartphones so that no user has to share the card details with any vendor.

  • Users will now be able to make card payments using Google Pay app on their Android smartphones in three modes — via tap-and-pay at near field communication (NFC) enabled point-of-sale terminals, by scanning Bharat QR code at the merchant as well as online payments without using the physical credit card.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 21

Which of the following persons inaugurated India’s first-ever global tourism mart in New Delhi?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

India will hold its first-ever global tourism mart at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi from September 16-18. It is modelled on the ITB Berlin, the world's largest tourism trade fair. The ten major tourist organizations like FHRAI, HAI, IATO are involved in this mega event. The global tourism mart was inaugurated by Piyush Goyal.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 22

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) will prepare a detailed project report (DPR) for the development of which airport in Sri Lanka?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

State-owned Airports Authority of India (AAI) will prepare a detailed project report for development of Palaly airport in Sri Lanka. This would be the first project for the AAI in the island nation. Palaly airport is in northern Sri Lanka.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 23

India’s first ‘smart fence’ pilot project was launched by Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh along with which border?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh is slated to inaugurate the first ‘smart fence’ pilot project of the country along the India-Pakistan international border in Jammu and Kashmir. The BSF had taken up the initiative as part of the comprehensive integrated border management system.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 24

BCCI has formally appointed which cricketer as the National Cricket Academy’s Head of Cricket to oversee all cricket related activities at NCA?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

BCCI has formally appointed Rahul Dravid as the National Cricket Academy’s Head of Cricket. Dravid will oversee all cricket related activities at NCA and will be involved in mentoring, coaching, training and motivating players, coaches and support staff at the NCA.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 25

In June 2025, The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) recently elected new non-permanent members to the UN Security Council (UNSC) for the 2026–2027 term. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this development?
1. Bahrain, Colombia, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Latvia, and Liberia were elected as non-permanent members for the term starting 1 January 2026.
2. These five countries will join Algeria, Guyana, Sierra Leone, South Korea, and Slovenia on the Council for the 2026–2027 term.
3. The elected countries will replace outgoing members and join current non-permanent members such as Denmark and Pakistan.

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.

In News

  • UNGA elected Bahrain, Colombia, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Latvia, and Liberia as non-permanent members to the 15-member UNSC for the 2026–2027 term.

Explanation

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Bahrain, Colombia, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Latvia, and Liberia have been elected as non-permanent members for a 2-year term from 1 January 2026 to 31 December 2027.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Algeria, Guyana, Sierra Leone, South Korea, and Slovenia are the outgoing members; they will be replaced by the newly elected five countries, not serving alongside them in the new term.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The five elected countries will join current non-permanent members such as Denmark, Greece, Pakistan, Panama, and Somalia, who will continue on the Council through 2026.
  • The UNSC has a total of 15 members – 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent, with five elected annually by the UNGA for staggered two-year terms.
  • India has held the seat eight times, most recently for the 2021–2022 term and is a candidate for the 2028–2029 term.

Other Related Points

  • United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
    • Established in – 1945
    • Headquarters – New York, United States of America
    • 5 permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, United Kingdom, United States
    • 10 non-permanent members: Elected for two-year, staggered terms by the UNGA
  • The UNSC is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
  • Decisions on substantive matters require nine votes, including those of all permanent members (veto power).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 26

In September 2025, India and Japan have agreed to commence signalling work for the Ahmedabad-Mumbai bullet train project. Which of the following statements about this collaboration and project timelines is/are correct?
1. The signalling work includes installing Japanese Shinkansen technology to facilitate train inspection and operation on the Gujarat section.
2. The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) project began in 2017 with the foundation stone laid by PM Modi and Japan’s PM Shinzo Abe and plans to open the Gujarat section by December 2027.
3. Japan intends to debut the E10 train exclusively in India by 2035, well after testing older trains in 2028.

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

  • India and Japan agreed to begin signalling work for the Ahmedabad-Mumbai bullet train project, targeting operation by December 2027 on the Gujarat section.

Explanation

  • The signalling system will employ Japanese Shinkansen technology to support inspection and train operations on the Gujarat section of the bullet train corridor.
  • The MAHSR Mumbai-Ahmedabad project was launched in September 2017, with PM Modi and Japan’s then PM Shinzo Abe laying the foundation stone.
  • The first operational section is planned to open in Gujarat by December 2027, with the full corridor expected to be operational by 2028.
  • Japan plans to introduce the E10 series train in both Japan and India around 2030, with initial trials of older E5 trains scheduled for 2026-27.
  • The bullet train will cover 508 km in approximately two hours and seven minutes.
  • The project symbolizes strong India-Japan cooperation on technology and infrastructure development.

Other Related Points

  • Shinkansen Technology: Japan’s high-speed rail tech known for safety and punctuality.
  • MAHSR Project: Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail corridor designed to connect two major economic hubs.
  • E5 and E10 Trains: Series of Shinkansen trains, with E10 being a newer model with advanced features.
  • Bullet Train Speed: Maximum speeds expected around 320 km/hr, drastically reducing travel time.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 27

According to an official government release in August 2025, a significant milestone has been reached in the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), a flagship financial inclusion program launched in 2014. This initiative aims to ensure access to financial services for all, particularly the underprivileged sections of society. How many bank accounts have been successfully opened under the PMJDY?

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is 559 million.
In News

  • Over 559 million (or 55.9 crore) bank accounts have been opened under the financial inclusion scheme Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) since its August 2014 launch, as per a government update.

Explanation

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) facilitated the opening of over 559 million bank accounts since 2014.
  • The scheme provides enhanced access to banking and financial services for every household.
  • PMJDY enables issuance of Rupay debit cards and accident insurance cover for account holders.
  • Overdraft facility up to Rs 10,000 is available for eligible beneficiaries.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) has also sanctioned 53.85 crore loans totalling over Rs 35.13 trillion for micro and small enterprises.
  • The schemes serve as pillars for India's financial inclusion drive.

Other Related Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
    • Launched: August 28, 2014
    • Benefits: Rupay debit card, accident insurance up to Rs 2 lakh (for post-August 2018 accounts)
    • Overdraft: Up to Rs 10,000
  • Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
    • Launched: April 8, 2015
    • Loan limit: up to Rs 20 lakh
    • Types: Shishu (up to Rs 50,000), Kishor (above Rs 50,000 and less than Rs 5 lakh), Tarun (Rs 5 lakh to Rs 10 lakh), Tarun Plus (Rs. 10 lakhs and less than Rs.20 lakh)
  • Financial inclusion enables economic empowerment and credit access at national scale.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 28

In August 2025, Initiatives led by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Nabard) and the Reserve Bank of India have made significant strides in promoting digital and financial literacy in India’s rural landscape. According to the Ministry of State, how many Centre for Financial Literacy (CFL) centres have been established across India by March 31, 2025 to support rural financial literacy, and what is the average coverage per centre?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is 2,421 centres, three blocks per centre.
In News

  • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Nabard) and RBI have set up 2,421 Centre for Financial Literacy (CFL) centres nationwide as of March 31, 2025, with each centre covering three blocks on average.

Explanation

  • Nabard and RBI promote rural financial literacy through camps and Financial Literacy Centres (FLCs).
  • 2,421 Centre for Financial Literacy (CFL) centres have been set up as of March 2025, benefitting rural and microfinance borrowers.
  • The average coverage is three blocks per centre, supporting broad outreach in rural communities.
  • The CFL project began in 2017 under RBI to enable community-led and participatory financial literacy approaches.
  • Nabard supports these initiatives by funding and facilitating activities through rural bank branches.
  • CFLs help improve awareness about financial products, digital finance, and responsible borrowing.
  • They also strengthen the network for digital literacy and financial inclusion.

Other Related Points

  • Nabard (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) is a development bank working for rural prosperity and agricultural finance.
    • Established in 1982
    • HQ Mumbai
  • RBI
    • Established in 1935
    • HQ  Mumbai
    • Governor  Sanjay Malhotra
  • Financial literacy includes understanding products like savings, loans, insurance, digital payments, and rights as a consumer.
  • FLCs and CFLs are core instruments in India’s Financial Inclusion strategy.
  • Digital literacy through these centres empowers rural populations for more secure digital transactions.
  • Microfinance borrowers benefit from increased awareness and informed decision-making through literacy camps.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 29

In July 2025, according to the government data presented in Parliament, unclaimed deposits with banks reached a substantial figure, highlighting a growing concern regarding inactive accounts in the banking system. Among the various banks, the State Bank of India (SBI) and ICICI Bank led in their respective categories. As of June 30, 2025, which public sector bank had the largest volume of unclaimed deposits in India?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct answer is State Bank of India.
In News

  • As of June 30, 2025, unclaimed deposits in Indian banks stood at ₹67,003 crore, with SBI leading public sector banks in unclaimed amounts.

Explanation

  • Government data showed unclaimed deposits in Indian banks reached ₹67,003 crore as of June 30, 2025.
  • Public sector banks held ₹58,330.26 crore of these deposits, while private sector banks accounted for ₹8,673.72 crore.
  • The largest share among public sector banks belonged to State Bank of India (SBI) at ₹19,329.92 crore.
  • Punjab National Bank and Canara Bank followed with ₹6,910.67 crore and ₹6,278.14 crore respectively.
  • Among private sector banks, ICICI Bank had the highest with ₹2,063.45 crore, followed by HDFC Bank (Rs 1,609.56 crore) and Axis Bank (Rs 1,360.16 crore).
  • Unclaimed deposits refer to inactive accounts where there has been no customer-initiated transaction for at least 10 years.
  • RBI requires banks to transfer such funds to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund.

Other Related Points

  • State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank in India by assets and branch network.
    • Established in 1955
    • HQ Mumbai
    • Chairman  C.S. Shetty
  • Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) was created by RBI to utilize unclaimed funds for depositor interests.
  • Unclaimed deposits can be claimed by rightful owners or heirs upon verification and documentation.
  • The Banking Regulation Act imposes obligations on banks regarding reporting and handling of such accounts.
  • UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits - Gateway to Access Information)
    • UDGAM Portal: Developed by the RBI for tracking and reclaiming unclaimed deposits.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 4 - Question 30

As of October 2025, which of the following statements about Balod in Chhattisgarh being declared India’s first Child Marriage-Free district is/are correct?
1. Balod achieved zero reported child marriage cases across all 436 gram panchayats and 9 urban local bodies for two years under the "Child Marriage-Free India" campaign.
2. The district’s certification process involved rigorous verification procedures confirming no child marriage cases for the last three years, setting a national standard.
3. Following Balod’s declaration, Surajpur district certified 75 gram panchayats as child marriage-free, with Chhattisgarh targeting state-wide elimination of child marriage by 2028–29.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
In News

  • Chhattisgarh’s Balod became the first district in India to be certified child marriage-free, following full compliance across all gram panchayats and urban bodies.

Explanation

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Zero child marriage cases have been reported for two consecutive years in Balod’s 436 gram panchayats and 9 urban bodies due to the campaign.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Certification was based on two years, not three, and is not yet a nationwide standard.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: Post-Balod, 75 gram panchayats in Surajpur also received child marriage-free status, and the goal is complete state coverage by 2028–29.
  • The "Child Marriage-Free India" campaign was initiated by PM Narendra Modi on August 27, 2024, for nationwide eradication of child marriage.
  • Verification includes government data, community surveys, and third-party audits.
  • Targets all districts in Chhattisgarh for similar certification by 2029.
  • The campaign encourages collaboration among local, state, and national governments.

Other Related Points

  • Child marriage: The union of individuals below the legal marriageable age, prohibited under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.
  • Gram Panchayat: Rural local self-government unit in India, vital for grassroots administration.
    • State-level campaigns leverage awareness, law enforcement, and community engagement.
    • Surajpur district’s success supports broader state and national anti-child marriage efforts.
  • Nationwide goal: Combine awareness, verification, and policy intervention for eradication.

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