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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 (200 Questions)

You can boost your Bank Exams 2026 exam preparation with this IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Bank Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 120 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 200
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: LR, Data Analysis & Interpretation, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General,Eco,Banking Awareness, Comp,IT

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IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 1

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular hide in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers).

Input: point 46 22 hide angel 76 65 42 wood dig upper 32 56 ego

Step I: 22 point 46 hide 76 65 42 wood dig upper 32 56 ego angel

Step II: 32 22 point 46 hide 76 65 42 wood dig upper 56 angel ego

Step III: 42 32 22 point 46 hide 76 65 wood dig 56 angel ego upper

Step IV: 46 42 32 22 point hide 76 65 wood 56 angel ego upper dig

Step V: 56 46 42 32 22 point 76 65 wood angel ego upper dig hide

Step VI: 65 56 46 42 32 22 76 wood angel ego upper dig hide point

Step VII: 76 65 56 46 42 32 22 angel ego upper dig hide point wood

And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the hides followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: 86 youth hammer 18 34 user enter ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98

(All the numbers are two digits numbers).

What is the difference between 3rd number from left end and 6th number from left end in penultimate step?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

In the given illustration

1) Numbers are arranged in descending order.

2) In case of words first vowels are arranged in ascending order followed by consonants in ascending order as per their position in dictionary.

3) A word and number is arranged simultaneously in each step.

In first step, the lowest number is arranged at leftmost position i.e. at first position and lowest vowel as per dictionary is arranged at rightmost position i.e. at last position of the sentence. Both word and number are arranged simultaneously and else all are shifted accordingly.

In step 2 next lowest number is placed again at first position i.e. immediate left to the previously arranged number and next lowest vowel/consonant is placed at last position i.e. immediate right to previously arranged word and else all are shifted accordingly.

The same process is followed till all the words and numbers are rearranged as all numbers at left side in decreasing order and all words first according to vowel than according to consonant at right side of the lowest number in increasing order as per dictionary.

Now given input is: 86 youth hammer 18 34 user enter ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98

Step I: 18 86 youth hammer 34 user ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98 enter

Step II: 25 18 86 youth hammer 34 user ocean 44 mock 63 98 enter ink

Step III: 34 25 18 86 youth hammer user 44 mock 63 98 enter ink ocean

Step IV: 44 34 25 18 86 youth hammer mock 63 98 enter ink ocean user

Step V: 63 44 34 25 18 86 youth mock 98 enter ink ocean user hammer

Step VI: 86 63 44 34 25 18 youth 98 enter ink ocean user hammer mock

Step VII: 98 86 63 44 34 25 18 enter ink ocean user hammer mock youth

Step VII is the last step of the given input.

Thus step VI is the penultimate step.

Here 3rd number from left end is 44 and 6th number from left end is 18.

Difference between 44 and 18 is 26.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 2

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular hide in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers).

Input: point 46 22 hide angel 76 65 42 wood dig upper 32 56 ego

Step I: 22 point 46 hide 76 65 42 wood dig upper 32 56 ego angel

Step II: 32 22 point 46 hide 76 65 42 wood dig upper 56 angel ego

Step III: 42 32 22 point 46 hide 76 65 wood dig 56 angel ego upper

Step IV: 46 42 32 22 point hide 76 65 wood 56 angel ego upper dig

Step V: 56 46 42 32 22 point 76 65 wood angel ego upper dig hide

Step VI: 65 56 46 42 32 22 76 wood angel ego upper dig hide point

Step VII: 76 65 56 46 42 32 22 angel ego upper dig hide point wood

And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the hides followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: 86 youth hammer 18 34 user enter ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98

(All the numbers are two digits numbers).

Which of the following represents the position of ‘youth’ in the sixth step?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

n the given illustration

1) Numbers are arranged in descending order.

2) In case of words first vowels are arranged in ascending order followed by consonants in ascending order as per their position in dictionary.

3) A word and number is arranged simultaneously in each step.

In first step, the lowest number is arranged at leftmost position i.e. at first position and lowest vowel as per dictionary is arranged at rightmost position i.e. at last position of the sentence. Both word and number are arranged simultaneously and else all are shifted accordingly.

In step 2 next lowest number is placed again at first position i.e. immediate left to the previously arranged number and next lowest vowel/consonant is placed at last position i.e. immediate right to previously arranged word and else all are shifted accordingly.

The same process is followed till all the words and numbers are rearranged as all numbers at left side in decreasing order and all words first according to vowel than according to consonant at right side of the lowest number in increasing order as per dictionary.

Now given input is: 86 youth hammer 18 34 user enter ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98

Step I: 18 86 youth hammer 34 user ocean ink 44 25 mock 63 98 enter

Step II: 25 18 86 youth hammer 34 user ocean 44 mock 63 98 enter ink

Step III: 34 25 18 86 youth hammer user 44 mock 63 98 enter ink ocean

Step IV: 44 34 25 18 86 youth hammer mock 63 98 enter ink ocean user

Step V: 63 44 34 25 18 86 youth mock 98 enter ink ocean user hammer

Step VI: 86 63 44 34 25 18 youth 98 enter ink ocean user hammer mock

Clearly, ‘youth’ is 7th from left and 8th from right in step VI.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 3

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below

Twelve boxes are kept in a rack, one above the other from 1 to 12 from bottom to top respectively.

Statement 1: Box B is kept six racks below J. Two racks are between B and D. Three boxes are kept between A and K, which is kept immediately above H.

Statement 2: Box F, which is not kept at the bottom of the rack and is kept three racks below box H. The number of boxes kept below D is one less than the number of boxes kept above A.

Along with the given two statements, three statements are given below. You have to decide whether the data provided in the three statements are sufficient to answer the question. The statements given below can be used along with the above two statements but cannot be combined together. The two statements given above are combined.

How many boxes are kept between J and I?

I. As many boxes kept between A and C as between C and G. More than three boxes are kept between C and I.

II. Box L is kept adjacent to G. Box C is kept above box E and below box G, which is kept in an odd numbered rack

III. Box C is kept immediately above L. G is kept in an odd numbered rack.

Detailed Solution: Question 3

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 4

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions

Eight persons – E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are working in three different Banks viz. Canara Bank, Vijaya Bank and DenaBank at different posts - Probationary Officer (PO) and Clerk. In the Dena Bank only Probationary Officer(PO)post is available. They are all having different ages. The age of the persons who are Probationary officers is a composite number and the ages of the persons who are clerk is a Prime number. Each person’s age is between 21 and 75. Minimum one and maximum of two persons are at each post in each Bank. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.

Note: If it is given that the person who is a Clerk or a Probationary officer works with person X or the one whose age is 72 then it indicates that both the persons work in the same Bank but not necessarily at the same post.

G works in Canara bank but not with J. J works with the one whose age is 69 years but not in Dena bank. F is 45 years old and works along with H but not in Vijaya bank. G is not working as a Clerk. J who is not a Probationary Officer and is the youngest person in the group whose age is not more than 27. E doesn’t work in the Canara bank but works with the one whose age is 53 years. Age of E is 24 years more than the age of F. E’s age is 15 years more than the sum of the ages of L and J. I and K Work in different banks but works at the same post. K is elder than I. The one who works with G has 16 years more than L. There are equal numbers of Probationary Officers and Clerks. The difference between the ages of K and I is twice the difference between the ages of G and E who is younger than G. The age of H is 7 years less than the age of E.

Who among the following person is not a Probationary Officer?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

We have,

G works in Canara bank but not with J.

J works with the one whose age is 69 years but not in Dena bank.

F is 45 years old and works along with H but not in Vijaya bank.

G is not working as a Clerk.

J who is not a Probationary Officer and is the youngest person in the group whose age is not more than 27

Again we have,

E doesn’t work in the Canara bank but works with the one whose age is 53 years.

Age of E is 24 years more than the age of F.

E’s age is 15 years more than the sum of the ages of L and J.

E = 69, J = 23→ E = L + J + 15

69 = L + 23 + 15

Hence L = 31

Again we have,

I and K Work in different banks but works at the same post.

K is elder than I.

The one who works with G is 16 years more than L.

There are equal numbers of Probationary Officers and Clerks.

L = 31, the one works with G has 16 years more than L so the person’s age is 47 years. Hence K(53) works at Vijaya Bank and is elder than I(47).

Again we have,

The difference between the ages of K and I is twice the difference between the ages of G and E who is younger than G.

The age of H is 7 years less than the age of E.

From the above condition,

K = 53, I = 47 and E = 69

So K – I = 2 (G – E) → 53 – 47 = 2 (G - 69)

6 = 2(G - 69) → G = 3 + 69 = 72.

H = 69 – 7 = 62.

Hence Case1a shows the final arrangement.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 5

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questio

Eight persons – E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are working in three different Banks viz. Canara Bank, Vijaya Bank and DenaBank at different posts - Probationary Officer (PO) and Clerk. In the Dena Bank only Probationary Officer(PO)post is available. They are all having different ages. The age of the persons who are Probationary officers is a composite number and the ages of the persons who are clerk is a Prime number. Each person’s age is between 21 and 75. Minimum one and maximum of two persons are at each post in each Bank. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.

Note: If it is given that the person who is a Clerk or a Probationary officer works with person X or the one whose age is 72 then it indicates that both the persons work in the same Bank but not necessarily at the same post.

G works in Canara bank but not with J. J works with the one whose age is 69 years but not in Dena bank. F is 45 years old and works along with H but not in Vijaya bank. G is not working as a Clerk. J who is not a Probationary Officer and is the youngest person in the group whose age is not more than 27. E doesn’t work in the Canara bank but works with the one whose age is 53 years. Age of E is 24 years more than the age of F. E’s age is 15 years more than the sum of the ages of L and J. I and K Work in different banks but works at the same post. K is elder than I. The one who works with G has 16 years more than L. There are equal numbers of Probationary Officers and Clerks. The difference between the ages of K and I is twice the difference between the ages of G and E who is younger than G. The age of H is 7 years less than the age of E.

Who among the following person works in the Canara Bank?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

We have,

G works in Canara bank but not with J.

J works with the one whose age is 69 years but not in Dena bank.

F is 45 years old and works along with H but not in Vijaya bank.

G is not working as a Clerk.

J who is not a Probationary Officer and is the youngest person in the group whose age is not more than 27

Again we have,

E doesn’t work in the Canara bank but works with the one whose age is 53 years.

Age of E is 24 years more than the age of F.

E’s age is 15 years more than the sum of the ages of L and J.

E = 69, J = 23→ E = L + J + 15

69 = L + 23 + 15

Hence L = 31

Again we have,

I and K Work in different banks but works at the same post.

K is elder than I.

The one who works with G is 16 years more than L.

There are equal numbers of Probationary Officers and Clerks.

L = 31, the one works with G has 16 years more than L so the person’s age is 47 years. Hence K(53) works at Vijaya Bank and is elder than I(47).

Again we have,

The difference between the ages of K and I is twice the difference between the ages of G and E who is younger than G.

The age of H is 7 years less than the age of E.

From the above condition,

K=53, I=47 and E=69

So K – I = 2 (G – E)→ 53 – 47 = 2 (G - 69)

6 = 2(G - 69)→ G = 3 + 69 = 72.

H = 69 – 7 = 62.

Hence Case1a shows the final arrangement.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 6

Directions: Study the following information and answer the question given below:

Fifteen candidates Ue, Up, Ve, Vp, We, Wp, Xi, Xc, Xz, Yc, Yi, Yv, Zc, Zi, and Zv sit in three rows of an examination hall facing North but not necessarily in the same order. Each candidate attempted a different number of questions in the test which consists of 100 Q. Row R1 is to the north of Row R2 and Row R2 is to the north of Row R3 and in each row, five persons sit at equal distance.

Xi attempted three fourth of the total questions and no one sits to the left of Xi in R1. Xc sits to the immediate right of the person who sits behind Xi in row R2. The person who attempted 88 questions sits third to the right of the person who attempted 75 questions. Zi sits third to the right of Xc and attempted 86 questions. Yi sits second to the left of the person who sits exactly behind Zi. As many persons sit between Yi and Wp as many persons sit between Yi and Xz. Neither Xz nor Wp sits behind Xc. Ue attempted 2 questions more than Zi. Ve sits third to the right of Xz. Vp attempted 4 questions more than Xi and sits in front of the person who sits to the immediate right of Xc. Zc who attempted 2 questions more than Ue sits in front of Zi. Wp attempted 10 questions less than Zi. We sit to the immediate left of Up who attempted 10 questions less than Ue. Yv who attempted 9 questions more than Zc sits in a row in front of the row in which Yc sits and Yc sits in a row in front of the row in which Zv sits. Ve attempts 8 questions less than Ue. Xc attempted 10 questions more than Vp. Xz attempted 21 questions more than Wp. Yi attempted questions that are average of Ue and Ve. Zv attempted 1 question more than the person who sits to the immediate left of Zv. The number of questions attempted by Yc is the average of the number of questions attempted by Ve and Zi. The number of questions attempted by We is two questions less than Yi.

How many persons sit between Zv and Wp?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Fifteen candidates: Ue, Up, Ve, Vp, We, Wp, Xi, Xc, Xz, Yc, Yi, Yv, Zc, Zi, and Zv

Row: Row R1, R2, and R3 (5 persons in each row)

Number of Questions: Each candidate has attempted a different number of questions (Maximum 100 Q)

i) Xi attempted three fourth of the total questions and no one sits to the left of Xi in R1.

ii) Xc sits to the immediate right of the person who sits behind Xi in row R2.

iii) The person who attempted 88 questions sits third to the right of the person who attempted 75 questions.

iv) Zi sits third to the right of Xc and attempted 86 questions.

v) Yi sits second to the left of the person who sits exactly behind Zi.

vi) As many persons sit between Yi and Wp as many persons sit between Yi and Xz.

vii) Neither Xz nor Wp sit behind Xc.

viii) Ue attempted 2 questions more than Zi.

This implies that Ue attempted 88 questions and sits third to the right of Xi.

ix) Ve sits third to the right of Xz.

x) Vp attempted 4 questions more than Xi and sits in front of the person who sits to the immediate right of Xc.

xi) Zc who attempted 2 questions more than Ue sits in front of Zi.

xii) Wp attempted 10 questions less than Zi.

xiii) We sit to the immediate left of Up, who attempted 10 questions less than Ue.

xiv) Yv who attempted 9 questions more than Zc sits in a row in front of the row in which Yc sits and Yc sits in a row in front of the row in which Zv sits.

xv) Ve attempts 8 questions less than Ue.

xvi) Xc attempted 10 questions more than Vp.

xvii) Xz attempted 21 questions more than Wp.

xviii) Yi attempted questions that are average of Ue and Ve.

xix) Zv attempted 1 question more than the person who sits to the immediate left of Zv.

xx) The number of questions attempted by Yc is the average of the number of questions attempted by Ve and Zi.

From xiii) We and Up sit in row 2.

From xii) Wp attempted 76 questions.

xi) The number of questions attempted by We is two questions less than Yi.

So, the final arrangement is,

Two persons sit between Zv and Wp.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 7

Direction: Read the table and information carefully and answer the following question.

The following table represents the number of sixes hit by five players in three formats of cricket: t20, test match, and one day. The 5 players are Dhoni, Pollard, Gayle, Hardik, and Finch. The ratio of sixes hit by Finch in Test and One day match is 9 : 2, some of the data in the table is missing.

If Hardik hits 15 sixes in one day, What is the difference of runs scored by Gayle and by Pollard?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Total sixes hit by all players across all format = 1482/6 = 247

Sixes hit in T20 match = 247 − 81 − 75 = 91

Sixes hit by Finch in T20 = 91 − (20 + 18 + 15 + 20) = 18

Sixes hit by Finch in all format = 372/6 = 62

Ratio of sixes hit by Finch in Test and one day match = 9:2

Sixes hit by Finch in Test = (62 − 18) × 9/11 = 36

Sixes hit by Finch in One day = 62 − (18 + 36) = 8

Total sixes hit by Gayle across all format = 354/6 = 59

Total sixes hit by Dhoni across all format = 270/6 = 45

Sixes hit by Dhoni in Test match = 45 - 20 - 10 = 15

Hardik hits 15 sixes in One day,

⇒ Runs scored by Hardik = (20 + 10 + 15) × 6 = 270

⇒ Runs scored by Pollard = 1482 - 270 - 354 - 270 - 372 = 216

∴ Required difference = 354 - 216 = 138

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 8

Direction: Study the following data given and answer the following question.

Ram travel through boat upstream and downstream from Monday to Friday. Pie charts below show the distance covered by him moving upstream and downstream on different days of a week.

The total distance cover upstream is 257 Km Total distance cover downstream is 330 km.

The speed of the stream on Monday is 20km/h. If it takes one hour to complete the downstream journey, then approximately how much time it will take to complete the upstream journey on Monday?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Distance travel downstream on Monday = 15% of 330 = 49.5 km

Distance travel upstream on Monday = 16% of 257 = 41.12 km

Speed downstream = 49.5/1 = 49.5 km/h

Speed of the boat = speed downstream - Stream speed

= 49.5 − 20 = 29.5 km/h

Speed upstream = 29.5 − 20 = 9.5 km/h

Time taken to complete the upstream journey = 41.12/9.5 = 4.3 hours.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 9

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in the bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Tourism is often about seeking deeper emotional and personal connections with the world around us. It’s a quintessential part of the “experience economy”, creating memories that can be recalled, re-lived and re-shared for a lifetime.

But not all travel experiences take place in the real world. With the evolution of virtual reality (VR) technology, tourism is increasingly a mash-up of physical and virtual worlds. VR can even remove the need to travel entirely.

Excessive tourism, or over-tourism, in popular destinations can degrade heritage sites, the quality of life of host communities, and the experience of visitors. Virtual reality not only offers alternative forms of access to threatened locations, it also recreates historical experiences and provides virtual access to remote locations you might not make it to otherwise.

Our brains seem to have an inbuilt VR-like mechanism that enables us to live imagined experiences. Much of our waking life is spent thinking about either the past (retrospection) or the future (prospection). This is known as mind wandering.

During these events we’re not paying attention to the current world around us. Instead, we’re recalling memories, or creating and processing imagined futures.

When we’re engaged in mind wandering, our brains process and appraise mental images via the same neutral pathways they use to receive stimuli from the real world. So, the imagined past or future can evoke emotions and feelings similar to how we react to everyday life.

VR can elicit these same feelings. Virtual worlds use sensory stimulation and vivid imagery to generate authentic experiences. Immersion in these environments can lead to a deeper understanding of a place or event than simply reading about it or looking at pictures.

There is evidence that virtual reality can create absorption, or a state of attention, leading to a sense of “presence” or “being there”. After a tourism VR experience of the Great Barrier Reef, for example, participants reported experiencing a sense of relaxation, similar to that gained from travel in real life.

Immersive videos of Australian holiday destinations created by Tourism Australia have been viewed more than 10.5 million times over the past two years. Research conducted by Tourism Australia shows that almost 20% of consumers have used VR to choose a holiday destination, while about 25% plan to use VR to choose a future destination. There is evidence VR can sometimes surpass reality, potentially leading the participant to choose an alternate destination.

In March, Thai authorities closed sections of the famous Maya Bay (which featured in Hollywood movie The Beach) because over-tourism threatened coral reefs. VR could offer experiences of locations like this without impacting the natural environment. It could also help support capacity management at “bucket list” destinations, such as Machu Picchu. But if VR is too effective at reducing visitation, alternate forms of income for local people need to be developed to support economic viability.

In 2018, the Australian War Memorial brought the Battle of Hamel to virtual life using 3D and 360 degree video. Designers of the A$100 million Sir John Monash Centre in Villers-Bretonneux, France used immersive video, interactive touch screens and historical relics to recreate the soldiers’ experience on the Western Front during WWI. Similar work is being completed in regional Australia to recreate life on a US Airbase on “the Brisbane Line” – Australia’s controversial last point of defense in WWII.

Wildlife watching can elicit feelings of empathy, surprise, novelty, even fear. It can also generate excitement, stimulation, entertainment and learning. But government regulation, cost, remoteness and seasonality of migratory patterns may limit opportunities for people to encounter some of the awe-inspiring creatures on our planet. Virtual immersion can offer alternatives that support conservation goals and provide transformative visitor experiences.

VR tourism could also help to increase health and well-being. Long working hours can lead to anxiety and depression. Research demonstrates immersion in the outdoors encourages relaxation, rejuvenation, expectation, surprise, trust in oneself, and improved self-esteem that can contribute to reduced symptoms. Short breaks using tourism-based VR experiences can mirror these effects and improve health.

New possibilities for VR applications – both practical and pleasurable – are emerging as the technology evolves. And as travellers seek new and novel experiences, combining virtual with real world experiences may become a common feature of tourism in the future.

Q. With which of the following reasons, a person who is skeptical about VR Tourism will agree the most?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The person who is having second thoughts on VR Tourism can’t agree with 1 and 2. Out of 3,4 and 5, he will strongly agree with option 4. 3 is the viewpoint of the business community not of an individual. As the passage mention ‘Virtual worlds use sensory stimulation and vivid imagery to generate authentic experiences. Immersion in these environments can lead to a deeper understanding of a place or event than simply reading about it or looking at pictures.’, it is clear that person skeptical about VR tourism will never believe in the things mentioned above.

Hence correct answer is option D.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 10

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in the bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Tourism is often about seeking deeper emotional and personal connections with the world around us. It’s a quintessential part of the “experience economy”, creating memories that can be recalled, re-lived and re-shared for a lifetime.

But not all travel experiences take place in the real world. With the evolution of virtual reality (VR) technology, tourism is increasingly a mash-up of physical and virtual worlds. VR can even remove the need to travel entirely.

Excessive tourism, or over-tourism, in popular destinations can degrade heritage sites, the quality of life of host communities, and the experience of visitors. Virtual reality not only offers alternative forms of access to threatened locations, it also recreates historical experiences and provides virtual access to remote locations you might not make it to otherwise.

Our brains seem to have an inbuilt VR-like mechanism that enables us to live imagined experiences. Much of our waking life is spent thinking about either the past (retrospection) or the future (prospection). This is known as mind wandering.

During these events we’re not paying attention to the current world around us. Instead, we’re recalling memories, or creating and processing imagined futures.

When we’re engaged in mind wandering, our brains process and appraise mental images via the same neutral pathways they use to receive stimuli from the real world. So, the imagined past or future can evoke emotions and feelings similar to how we react to everyday life.

VR can elicit these same feelings. Virtual worlds use sensory stimulation and vivid imagery to generate authentic experiences. Immersion in these environments can lead to a deeper understanding of a place or event than simply reading about it or looking at pictures.

There is evidence that virtual reality can create absorption, or a state of attention, leading to a sense of “presence” or “being there”. After a tourism VR experience of the Great Barrier Reef, for example, participants reported experiencing a sense of relaxation, similar to that gained from travel in real life.

Immersive videos of Australian holiday destinations created by Tourism Australia have been viewed more than 10.5 million times over the past two years. Research conducted by Tourism Australia shows that almost 20% of consumers have used VR to choose a holiday destination, while about 25% plan to use VR to choose a future destination. There is evidence VR can sometimes surpass reality, potentially leading the participant to choose an alternate destination.

In March, Thai authorities closed sections of the famous Maya Bay (which featured in Hollywood movie The Beach) because over-tourism threatened coral reefs. VR could offer experiences of locations like this without impacting the natural environment. It could also help support capacity management at “bucket list” destinations, such as Machu Picchu. But if VR is too effective at reducing visitation, alternate forms of income for local people need to be developed to support economic viability.

In 2018, the Australian War Memorial brought the Battle of Hamel to virtual life using 3D and 360 degree video. Designers of the A$100 million Sir John Monash Centre in Villers-Bretonneux, France used immersive video, interactive touch screens and historical relics to recreate the soldiers’ experience on the Western Front during WWI. Similar work is being completed in regional Australia to recreate life on a US Airbase on “the Brisbane Line” – Australia’s controversial last point of defense in WWII.

Wildlife watching can elicit feelings of empathy, surprise, novelty, even fear. It can also generate excitement, stimulation, entertainment and learning. But government regulation, cost, remoteness and seasonality of migratory patterns may limit opportunities for people to encounter some of the awe-inspiring creatures on our planet. Virtual immersion can offer alternatives that support conservation goals and provide transformative visitor experiences.

VR tourism could also help to increase health and well-being. Long working hours can lead to anxiety and depression. Research demonstrates immersion in the outdoors encourages relaxation, rejuvenation, expectation, surprise, trust in oneself, and improved self-esteem that can contribute to reduced symptoms. Short breaks using tourism-based VR experiences can mirror these effects and improve health.

New possibilities for VR applications – both practical and pleasurable – are emerging as the technology evolves. And as travellers seek new and novel experiences, combining virtual with real world experiences may become a common feature of tourism in the future.

Q. Which of the following is closest to the meaning of the word ‘quintessential’ mentioned in the first paragraph?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

‘Quintessential’ means representing the most perfect or typical example of a quality or class. Epitome: a person or thing that is a perfect example of a particular quality or type. Bourgeois: belonging to or characteristic of the middle class, typically with reference to its perceived materialistic values or conventional attitudes. Trivial: (of a person) concerned only with petty things. Humdrum: lacking excitement or variety; boringly monotonous.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 11

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

In each of the questions given below, a paragraph is given which has some blanks and those blanks have to be filled with the same word out of the five choices given below it. You have to choose that word as your answer.

Q. Human–animal _________ is common in the Himalayas like any other region where wildlife and people live together. Scientists at the Wildlife Institute of India studied patterns of such _____________ in both these regions. They suggest that immediate measures — including regular monitoring by wildlife managers and local response teams, providing proper lighting in villages and clearing bushes around houses — would be crucial to mitigate __________.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

‘Conflict’ is the only word which can fit in all the blanks in the context of the given paragraph. No other option can make the sentences meaningful. The purpose of the immediate measures is to mitigate something that means to lessen the adverse effect of something. ‘Conflict’ is the most suitable option here.

Isolation: the process or fact of isolating or being isolated; separation.

Persecution: hostility and ill-treatment, especially because of race or political or religious beliefs; oppression.

Hence correct answer is option E.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 12

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

In each of the questions given below, a paragraph is given which has some blanks and those blanks have to be filled with the same word out of the five choices given below it. You have to choose that word as your answer.

Q. The multi-agency committee set to finalize the ______________of a “shell company” for the purposes of enforcing penal laws for various violations is yet to arrive at a consensus to diverse opinions on yardsticks for identification of such entities. After a large number of entities, classified as a shell company, challenged the decision, the government had set up the committee to come up with a ________________. The committee drafted a _______________ that had to be tested on various yardsticks to determine its legal feasibility.

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The paragraph mentions classification and identification of shell companies. The best suited word here is ‘definition’.

Hence correct answer is option D.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 13

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

In the given question, few sentences which are grammatically correct and meaningful are stated. Connect them to form pairs with the given word in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose the answer accordingly.

AND

A. Early successes in some countries were dramatic.

B. Don't take the movie too seriously.

C. You might enjoy it too.

D. By the early 1960s malaria was reduced to very low levels in almost all the countries.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The connected sentences are ‘early successes in some areas were dramatic, and by the early 1960s malaria was reduced to very low levels in certain countries’ and ‘don't take the movie too seriously, and you might enjoy it too.’ Here ‘and’ has been used as a conjunction. In A-D it is used for connecting two identical comparatives, to emphasize a progressive change. In B-C, it is used to connect two clauses when the second refers to something that happens after the first.

Hence correct answer is option C.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 14

In the given question, the sentence is divided into three parts I, II, and III. For each part, an alternate statement is also given. You have to determine if a part requires a correction and then mark that as your answer.

Many a student / have failed to / understand the importance of time management.
I. Many a student
II. has failed to
III. understand the importance of time management.

Detailed Solution: Question 14

‘Many a’ takes a singular noun and singular verb. Therefore, ‘have failed’ should be ‘has failed’. Only Part II needs correction.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 15

In the given question, the sentence is divided into three parts I, II, and III. For each part, an alternate statement is also given. You have to determine if a part requires a correction and then mark that as your answer.

The jury have not yet / reached a verdict / in the high-profile murder case.
I. The jury has not yet
II. reached a verdict
III. in the high-profile murder case.

Detailed Solution: Question 15

In standard exam English, ‘jury’ is treated as a singular collective noun. Therefore, ‘has not yet’ is correct instead of ‘have not yet’. Only Part I needs correction.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 16

Rearrange the following sentences in the right order so that they make a grammatically correct and meaningful paragraph and answer the following questions.
A. India is now home to over 100 unicorn startups — companies valued at more than one billion dollars — reflecting the depth of its entrepreneurial ecosystem.
B. The Indian startup ecosystem has emerged as one of the most dynamic and rapidly growing in the world over the past decade.
C. Yet, the sector faces structural challenges including the funding winter of 2022–23, high cash burn rates, and a shortage of experienced managerial talent.
D. To foster this growth, the government launched the Startup India initiative in 2016, offering tax benefits, easier compliance, and access to seed funding.
E. Sectors such as fintech, edtech, health-tech, and agritech have attracted billions of dollars in venture capital from domestic and global investors.
F. In response, many startups have shifted focus from aggressive growth to sustainable profitability, rationalising their cost structures.
Which sentence is the THIRD in the rearranged paragraph?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Sequence is B-E-A-D-C-F. The third sentence is A, highlighting unicorn startups as evidence of growth.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 17

Why did the author cite the example of February 19th?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

The correct answer is 'To demonstrate the extent to which electricity is being over utilised due to cryptocurrency mining process'.
Explanation

  • Let's refer to the passage, "As of February 19, for example, Bitcoin mining was thought to consume more than 51,000 Gigawatts hours of electricity each year worldwide, according to Digiconomist, an online cryptocurrency hub. That's five and half times as much the power used by Zimbabwe, a developing nation, for the whole of 2O15.
  • It means that the process of cryptocurrency mining consumes a lot of electricity which is almost five and half times as much the power used by Zimbabwe.
  • From the given lines, it can be concluded that the author cited the example of February 19th in order to demonstrate the extent to which electricity is being over utilised due to cryptocurrency mining process.
  • Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 18

A kid tried to make a mixture of all the cold drinks that are prevalent in the market. He first mixed Coke and Sprite in a bottle in the ratio of 7 : 5. He removed 16 Litres from the mixture and filled the bottle again with Sprite. The ratio became 7 : 9. How many Litres of Coke was initially there in the bottle?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Let, the initial quantity of Coke be 7x And the initial quantity of Sprite be 5x

Quantity of Coke drawn off =16 × (7/12) = 28/3

Quantity of Sprite drawn off =16 × (5/12) = 20/3

So,

The quantity of Coke in the mixture after being drawn off = 7x−(28/3)

The quantity of Sprite in the mixture after being drawn off = 5x−(20/3)

Since the quantity of Sprite was added later, the quantity of Sprite = 5x−(20/3)+16

Now according to question, (7x−(28/3)) : (5x−(20/3)+16) = 7 : 9

63x−84= 35x−(140/3) +112

28x = 448/3

X = 5.33 liters

So, initial quantity of coke in mixture was 5.33 litres

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 19

What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step -1 - Vinculum parts must be solved first (V¯)

Step -2 - Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved next,

Step -3 - Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step -4 - Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step −5− Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated

Applying VBODMAS rule

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 20

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The given below bar graph shows the number of wired earbuds sold in five different months i.e. January, February, March, April and May and also given the number of wireless earbuds sold in these five different months.

Note: Total number of earbuds sold = Number of wired earbuds sold + Number of wireless earbuds sold

If the selling price of each wired earbuds in March is Rs.80 more than that of May, then the total cost obtained by selling all the wired earbuds in March and May together is Rs.45000. Find the selling price of each wired earbuds in May?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Let the selling price of each wired earbuds in May = x

And the selling price of each wired earbuds in March = x + 80

135 * (x + 80) + 150 * x = 45000

135x + 150x = 45000 – 10800

285x = 34200

x = 120

Therefore, the selling price of each wired earbuds in May = Rs.120

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 21

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The given below bar graph shows the number of wired earbuds sold in five different months i.e. January, February, March, April and May and also given the number of wireless earbuds sold in these five different months.

Note: Total number of earbuds sold = Number of wired earbuds sold + Number of wireless earbuds sold

The number of wireless earbuds sold in February is what percentage of the total number of wireless earbuds sold in January and March together?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The total number of wireless earbuds sold in January and March together = 165 + 195 = 360

Required percentage = 180/360 * 100 = 50%

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 22

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Find the volume of a cuboid.
Statement I: The length, breadth, and height are in ratio 3:2:1 and the surface area is 792 sq cm.
Statement II: The length is 18 cm, breadth is 12 cm, and height is 6 cm.

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Statement I: dimensions = 3k, 2k, k → surface area = 2(3k×2k + 3k×k + 2k×k) = 22k2 = 792 → k2 = 36 → k = 6 → volume = 3×6 × 2×6 × 6 = 1296 cm3.
Statement II: volume = 18 × 12 × 6 = 1296 cm3.
Either statement alone is sufficient.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 23

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Find the missing number in the set {12, 18, x, 24, 30}.
Statement I: The average of the five numbers is 21.
Statement II: The median of the five numbers is 21.

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Statement I: sum of five numbers = 21 × 5 = 105 → 12 + 18 + x + 24 + 30 = 105 → 84 + x = 105 → x = 21.
Statement II: for five numbers in order, median = third number = x = 21 (but assumes the set is already ordered, which it is when x is placed correctly; however, strictly, without knowing position or value range, it confirms x is middle but alone doesn't force calculation without average). In standard DS questions, Statement I directly gives x, while Statement II assumes ordering and gives x=21 but is sufficient only if ordering is implied.
(Note: Most standard answers treat Statement I as directly sufficient, and Statement II also sufficient in this context since the numbers are given in increasing order except x.)
Corrected standard answer: Option C (both are sufficient independently).
Final note for Q25: In typical Data Sufficiency format with the set presented as {12, 18, x, 24, 30} implying ascending order with x between 18 and 24, both statements independently give x = 21.
Answer: Option C

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 24

Influential Jain Muni Tarun Sagar passed away. He was popularly known for his sermons titled _____.

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Influential Jain Muni Tarun Sagar passed away after the prolonged illness in Delhi.

He was popularly known for his sermons titled 'Kadve Pravachan'.

Tarun Sagar was born on 26th June 1967 in a small village Guhanchi in Damoh, Madhya Pradesh, India.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 25

How many (in crores) have been allocated for the establishment of a Special Investment Region (SIR) to attract investments in the North Krishnagiri district of Tamil Nadu government?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The Tamil Nadu government laid the foundation stone for developing a Special Investment Region (SIR) in Krishnagiri district, as part of its efforts to boost economic growth in northern parts of the state. The SIR, to come up on about 2,100 acres in Denkanikottai and Shoolagiri taluks at an estimated Rs 2,420 crore, will be developed by Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation Ltd. (TIDCO) and GMR Infrastructures Ltd.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 26

In June 2025, the President of India appointed T Rabi Sankar, the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as a part-time member of the 16th Finance Commission, following the resignation of one of its full-time members. This appointment is a significant development in the workings of the Finance Commission. The 16th Finance Commission has been constituted to operate for the period from April 1, 2026, to March 31, 2031. Who is the Chairman of this commission, entrusted with overseeing the allocation of resources for this period?

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is Dr. Arvind Panagariya.
Explanation

  • The 16th Finance Commission will function for the period from April 1, 2026 to March 31, 2031.
  • Dr. Arvind Panagariya is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.
  • The commission was constituted by the President of India as mandated by Article 280 of the Constitution.
  • T Rabi Sankar joins as a part-time member, alongside Soumya Kanti Ghosh (SBI) in the same capacity.
  • Full-time members include Annie George Mathew and Manoj Panda.
  • The Finance Commission’s main role is to define financial relations and devolve resources between the central and state governments.

Other Related Points

  • The Finance Commission is constituted every five years by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
  • Each Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members.
  • The first Finance Commission was formed in November 1951 with K C Neogy as the Chairman.
  • The 15th Commission was chaired by N K Singh, period 2021–22 to 2025–26.
  • Finance Commissions recommend the distribution of taxes between the Union and the states.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 27

In September 2025, Reliance Industries’ clean energy project in Gujarat is set to make a global mark. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the solar initiative?
1. Reliance is constructing a vast solar park in Kutch, covering 550,000 acres—three times the size of Singapore.
2. The Jamnagar complex includes gigafactories for solar panels and green hydrogen, contributing to nearly 10% of India’s electricity needs in the next decade.
3. The battery gigafactory will launch with a 100 GWh/year initial capacity in 2026 and provide direct employment to 100,000 workers.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

  • Reliance announced its clean energy transformation plan, featuring a solar project in Gujarat’s Kutch spanning 550,000 acres and new gigafactories in Jamnagar.

Explanation

  • Reliance to Build Solar Project Three Times the Size of Singapore
  • Statement 1 – Correct: The Kutch solar park covers 550,000 acres, which is three times the size of Singapore, and stands among the world’s largest.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: Jamnagar’s complex includes various gigafactories, with renewable energy output expected to meet about 10% of India’s electricity needs within a decade.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The battery gigafactory is set to launch in 2026 with an initial capacity of 40 GWh/year, not 100 GWh/year, and maximum workforce reported at 50,000 not 100,000.
  • Reliance’s plans symbolize India’s progress towards energy independence and clean power leadership.
  • Solar modules and battery containers will be produced at high daily volumes.
  • A Giga Energy Marvel in the Making - It includes gigafactories for solar panels, green hydrogen, battery storage, and electrolyser production, all within one complex.
  • 7 lakh tonnes of steel – equivalent to 100 Eiffel Towers, 3.4 million cubic metres of concrete, 1 lakh kilometres of cable – enough to reach the moon and back

Other Related Points

  • Reliance Industries Limited
    • HQ  Mumbai
  • Clean Energy: Focus on solar, green hydrogen, advanced battery storage.
  • Jamnagar: Home to the world’s largest integrated energy complex.
  • India’s renewable energy targets aim for 500 GW by 2030.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 28

In August 2025, a significant development in the Indian banking sector took place when the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted in-principle approval to a Small Finance Bank (SFB), allowing it to transition into a Universal Bank. This approval marked a historic achievement, as the bank became the first-ever Small Finance Bank to successfully reach this milestone. The transition is expected to enable the bank to broaden its scope of services, cater to a wider customer base, and enhance its role in the country’s financial ecosystem. Which Small Finance Bank received this prestigious approval from the RBI?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is AU Small Finance Bank.
Explanation

  • AU Small Finance Bank commenced operations as an SFB in April 2017 after receiving an SFB licence in 2015.
  • The bank has a widespread presence with over 2,505 banking touchpoints across 21 states and 4 Union Territories.
  • AU Small Finance Bank applied for voluntary transition to a Universal Bank in September 2024 under RBI's guidelines.
  • It became the first Small Finance Bank to receive in-principle approval for this transition.
  • The RBI criteria for transition include scheduled status, minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore, satisfactory CRAR, net profit, and low NPAs for the last two financial years.
  • This milestone reflects the bank's robust governance, business model, and commitment to financial inclusion.
  • Transitioning to a Universal Bank enables a broader range of banking services including retail, business, and digital solutions.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 29

In July 2025, which of the following statements about ACKO becoming Tesla’s insurance partner in India is/are correct?
1. Tesla selected ACKO as its preferred digital insurance partner, integrating EV-focused insurance during Tesla's direct car-buying process for Indian customers.
2. The partnership enables traditional paper-based insurance for Tesla vehicles, requiring multiple manual forms and in-person claim
processing.
3. ACKO's plan for Tesla covers EV-specific risks like battery and software, aiming to deliver a seamless, digital paperless experience for Tesla customers in India.

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
In News

  • ACKO was announced as Tesla’s preferred insurance partner as Tesla launched its first vehicles and showroom in India in July 2025.

Explanation

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Tesla selected ACKO as the preferred insurance provider in India. Insurance is directly integrated into the car purchase process, enabling customers to obtain coverage as part of their digital buying journey.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The partnership is focused on a fully digital paperless insurance process, reducing paperwork and enabling seamless claims, not traditional manual methods or in-person paperwork.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: ACKO's Tesla insurance covers EV-specific components such as battery, software, and hardware, facilitating a smart, paperless, and fully online insurance and claim process for Tesla owners in India.
  • ACKO’s tech-driven approach marks a shift for advanced mobility in India and meets government aims for clean transport and digitalization.
  • The insurance partnership aims to remove confusion and hassle for Tesla car buyers and support wider EV adoption.
  • Insurance products and claim handling are provided online, through embedded processes within Tesla’s sales channels, making car ownership easier and safer for Indian EV customers.

IDBI Bank JAM Mock Test- 5 - Question 30

In September 2025, WaveX, in partnership with the Indian Institute of Creative Technologies (IICT) Mumbai, launched a Media Tech Startup Incubator focused on nurturing ventures in the AVGC-XR sector (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality). The incubator aims to provide startups with essential resources and mentorship to thrive in this emerging industry. What is the monthly fee, including GST, charged to startups selected in the first batch of this incubator program?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct answer is Rs 8,500.
Explanation

  • The incubator operates on a two-phase model: Active Phase with intensive support and Passive Phase focused on mentorship and investor engagement.
  • Startups receive assistance in business modelling, product development, branding, fundraising, and media regulations.
  • Sandbox testing is provided in OTT, VFX, VR, gaming, animation, publishing, and post-production domains.
  • Facilities include co-working spaces, digital labs, cloud credits from AWS and Google, and India AI compute services.
  • The programme features masterclasses, bootcamps, policy clinics, and investor connect sessions led by global tech leaders.
  • The first batch consists of 15 selected startups housed at IICT Mumbai campus.
  • The monthly fee charged to startups, inclusive of GST, is Rs 8,500.

Other Related Points

  • AVGC-XR sector includes Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality technologies.
  • WaveX is a startup accelerator program initiated by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting (MIB).
  • IICT Mumbai is a Section 8 joint venture focused on creative technologies, supported by government and industry bodies.
  • Sandbox testing allows startups to pilot products in controlled environments before full market launch.
  • Startups benefit from investor engagement, global showcases, and industry networking to scale their ventures.

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