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TSPSC AE Civil AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 (150 Questions)

You can boost your Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam preparation with this TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Civil Engineering (CE) 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 150 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 150
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights

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TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

In which district of Telangana Indrapalanagara the capital of Vishnukundinas is located ?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Correct answer is Yadadri

Explanation

  • Indrapalanagara, one of the capitals of Vishnukundinas is located in the present day Yadadri district of Telangana.
  • It was built by the founder of Vishnukundina dynasty Indra Varma.
  • Later the capitals were changed to Denduluru and also Amaravati.
  • They used Sanskrit and Prakrit languages for communication and literature.
  • They mainly patronized Hinduism and Jainism.

Other Related Points

  • Vishnukundinas ruled between 5th and 6th centuries.
  • The inscriptions of Tummelagudem mentioned about the vishnukundina dynasty.
  • Madhava Varma I was one of the important ruler in Vishnukundina dynasty.
  • Madhava Varma II had changed the capital from Amarapuram to Denduluru.
  • Vikramendra Varma II last ruler of Vishnukundina dynasty was defeated by Pulakesin II.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The Sakala Janula Samme was organized by which one of the following

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The correct answer is Telangana Joint Acting Committee.ExplanationSakala Janula Samme:

  • On September 12, 2011 Janaragjana Sabha was held at Karimnagar.
  • In this assembly Telangana Employees Union called for Sakala Janula Samme.
  • The Sakala Janula Samme started from September 13, 2011.
  • ​The Sakala Janula Samme strike lasted for 42 days and ended on October 24, 2011.

Telangana Joint Acting Committee:

  • Telangana political joint action committee (TJAC) was formed on 24 December, 2009.
  • Professor Kodandaram was the convener and Mallepalli Lakshmaiah was the CO-Convener of the TJAC.
  • The parties that have joined this JAC are TRS, Congress, Telangana TDP Forum, BJP, CPI and New Democracy.
  • On February 19, 2010 Congress announced its withdrawal from JAC and later the Telangana TDP Forum also left the TJAC.

Other Related PointsTelangana Ikya Vedika:

  • 28 organizations working for Telangana formed Telangana Ikya Vedika on 16 October, 1997 in Osmania Library Bhawan.
  • It was decided to organize programs under Telangana Ikya Vedika with two tier committee structure.
    • Organizing Committee
    • Steering Committee

Telangana Rashtra Samithi:

  • Telangana Rashtra Samithi party popularly known as TRS founded on 27 April, 2001 by Kalvakuntla Chandrashekar Rao (KCR).
  • TRS party played a pivotal role in carrying forth a sustained agitation to achieve statehood for Telangana.
  • TRS cadre and leaders actively participated in many agitations and launched many protests for separate Telangana.
  • After the state formation in 2014, TRS party emerged as the single largest party in the new state assembly elections held in April-May, 2014.

Telangana Vidyavantula Vedika:

  • Telangana vidyavantula vedika was formed in May, 2004.
  • Professor Kodandaram was the convener of Telangana vidyavantula vedika.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Which of the following statements about fluorosis in Telangana is Incorrect?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The correct answer is Nizamabad in Telangana was the worst-affected district due to the bone and tooth disease.

Explanation

  • The Telangana district of Nalgonda was the most severely impacted by the disease that affects bones and teeth.
  • Fluorosis affects more over one lakh people in communities with high fluoride water levels, including Munugode, Nampally, Marriguda, and Devarakonda.
  • Due to Mission Bhagiratha's provision of safe drinking water, the disease's severity had decreased.
  • He recommended putting more emphasis on creating Fluoride Rehabilitation Centers in all Primary Health Centers (PHCs) of all blocks afflicted by fluoride.
  • Subsequent governments have implemented policies including installing defluoridation plants and setting up reverse osmosis and mineral water bottling plants in select areas.
  • The Srisailam Left Bank Canal project, which will raise water from Srisailam reservoir and give drinking water to 516 villages, including the fluoride-affected villages in Nalgonda district, is the long-term solution.
  • It will provide irrigation to three lakh acres of agricultural land.

Other Related Points

Mission Bhageeratha

  • Its goal is to provide safe drinking water to every household.
  • A special emphasis was placed on providing safe drinking water to villages where the flouride content of the water is high.

Nalgonda community defluoridation plant Technique

  • The district of Nalgonda built the first community defluoridation plant to remove fluoride from drinking water.
  • In 1961, the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) in Nagpur developed the technology.
  • The state of the surface water supply has improved.
  • Provisions for food and nutrition: According to the Indian Natural Resource Economics and Management (INREM) Foundation.
  • It conducted a survey in the fluoride-affected villages of Nalgonda, no new cases of fluorosis have been reported in the district in the last six years.
  • INREM also suggested that the supply of safe drinking water under Mission Bhagiratha reduced the severity of the disease.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Telangana Palle Pragathi scheme is aimed to

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct answer is All of the above

Explanation

  • Palle Pragathi wants to make sure that every community has access to the same amenities that individuals in large cities enjoy.
  • Create stores in rural areas to give farmers more chances for selling.
  • Support for the farming of rice, millets, and livestock.
  • The Telangana Rural Inclusive Growth Project, funded by the World Bank, sought to improve the standard of living for those living in rural areas.

Other Related Points

  • Its design will be similar to that of the Society for the Elimination of Rural Poverty (SERP).
  • Before being expanded to other Mandals, it will first cover 150 Mandals.
  • The plan aims to increase agricultural production and open up markets to increase 2.5 lakh farmers' incomes by 50%.
  • The Palle Pragathi Phase II state-wide launch will take place in January 2020.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which among the following literary works tells us about the Kakatiya era in Teiangana?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The correct answer is All the above

Explanation

  • Many sources were found to know about the history of Kakatiyas.
  • In literature, Prataparudra charitra, Prataparudra yashobhushanam, Ekasilanagara Vrittantam, Kreedabhiramam by Vinukonda Vallabharaya.
  • Siddheswara Charitra by Kase Sarvappa, Velugoti vari Vamsavali, histories of Surabhi dynasty,
  • Local Kaifyats, writings of Amir. Khusrau and Barauni and Italian traveller Marcopolo are important to know the history of Kakatiyas.
  • They helped to determine the time period of their history and also revealed the political, social and financial conditions of their society.

Other Related Points

  • Kakatiyas were in the service of Rashtrakutas.
  • 'Danarnava’s Magallu grant dated 956 CE is containing the refrence about early Kakatiya chiefs.
  • They worked under Rastrakuta army as soldiers, commanders, and provincial governors.
  • They adopted the official emblem 'Eagle' (Garuda) of Rastrakuta kings as their official emblem.
  • After the decline of Rastrakutas, the early kakatiya cheifs entered into the service of Eastern Chalukyan court.
  • 'Kakatiya' from their family Goddesses 'Kakati' or ‘Kakatamma’.
  • Eminent historian P.V. Parabrahmasastrai, after going through the work of Vidyanatha and Somapreethi’s commentary on Prataparudra Yashobhushanam has conculded that ‘Kakati’ was one of the forms of Goddesses ‘Durga’.
  • As they worshipped ‘Kakatamma’ They got their dynasty’s name as Kakatiyas.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

"Dharani" portal was launched on?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The correct answer is 29 Oct, 2020

Explanation

  • The launch of Dharani occurred on October 29, 2020.
  • to increase the transparency of land registries.
  • In one year, It received 5.17 crore hits and over 10 lakh transactions.
  • 1,80,000 acres of land in the state that had not previously been awarded a pattadar passbook have been placed under Dharani's jurisdiction.

Important Points

  • Dharani, the one-stop website for purchasing agricultural land.
  • The portal was launched by Chief Minister K Chandrashekhar Rao.
  • On October 29, the nation's first of its kind, was launched to make transactions simple.
  • minimizing human interaction and eliminating corruption.

Other Related Points

  • On October 30, 2020, is the 44th Friday of 2020, Hindus celebrate Vikram Samvat.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Who is the ​Founder of the Hyderabad Civil Service ?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The correct answer is Salar Jung -I

Explanation

  • Sir Salar Jung I is the Diwan (Prime Minister) and was the creator of the modern Hyderabad Civil Service.
  • In 1882, Salar Jung issued the extraordinary Jareeda and emphasized the need of educating and training the young Hyderabadis for recruitment in the Nizam's Services.
  • He propounded the idea of building an efficient administrative system on the model of British India and introduced several administrative reforms.
  • He dismantled the old/archaic administrative structure and streamlined the public institutions by creating a distinct civil service class.
  • The establishment of the Zilabandi system, the creation of the Subedari and Taluqdari system, and Revenue, Police and Judicial reforms by Salar Jung facilitated the formation of Hyderabad Civil Service.
  • Subsequently, the proclamation of Qanuncha Mubarik of 1892, the Cabinet Council, and the Executive Council (1919) framed rules and regulations governing the services as well as regulated and institutionalized the Hyderabad Civil Services.

Other Related Points

  • Mir Osman Ali Khan was the last Nizam of the Princely State of Hyderabad.
  • He ascended the throne on 29 August 1911, at the age of 25, and ruled the Kingdom of Hyderabad between 1911 and 1948, until India annexed it.
  • Maharaja Sir Kishen Pershad was an Indian noble who served as Prime Minister of Hyderabad twice.
  • He was a childhood friend of the Nizam and was a staunch Nizam loyalist throughout his life. In 1892, Pershad became the Peshkar (deputy minister) of the state.
  • Nawab Sir Nizamat Jung Bahadur was an Arab-Indian poet.
  • Nizamuddin was the second son of the late Nawab Rafath Yar Jung Bahadur, Subedar of Warangal, well known in his days as an ardent educational and social reformer and statesman of no mean order.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Asara scheme was launched on November 8, 2014 by Chief Minister KCR in which place?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

The correct answer is Kothur

Explanation

Asara:

  • This is a social security scheme.
  • It was inaugurated by Chief Minister KCR on November 8, 2014.
  • This scheme was launched in Kothur of Mahabubnagar district.
  • Through this scheme, the elderly, disabled, widows, handloom workers, Gita workers, H.I.V. - People with AIDS are benefiting.
  • As part of this scheme, the eligible will be given 1000 rupees per month.
  • He said that 1500 rupees will be given to the disabled.
  • Now this scheme is increased amount to 2016/- for old age pensions.
  • For disabled, widows amount increased to 3016/-.

Important Points

  • Kothur is a Town in Kothur Mandal in Mahbubnagar District of Telangana State, India.
  • It belongs to Telangana region.
  • As part Telangana Districts re-organisation, Kothur Town Kothur Mandal re organised from Mahbubnagar District to Ranga Reddy district.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The languages of India are mentioned in which schedule of the constitution?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is Eighth.

Explanation

  • The languages of India are mentioned in 8th schedule of the constitution.
  • The Eighth Schedule of the constitution of India lists the official languages of India.
    • Although there are hundreds of languages spoken across the country, the eighth schedule recognises a total of 22 languages as the official languages.
    • The languages are- Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.
    • Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. The Sindhi language was added in 1967.
    • Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included in 1992.
    • Subsequently, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added in 2004.

Important Points

  • The 5th Schedule contains "Provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes".
  • The 7th Schedule contains the allocation of powers and functions between the Union & States.
    • It has three lists- Union, State, and Concurrent.
  • The 10th Schedule contains "Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection".

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2.

Explanation

All India Trade Union Congress:

  • The most important development in the workers’ movement was the formation of the All-India Trade Union Congress under the leadership of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai.
  • Since its inception when unions became organised on party lines, AITUC was the primary trade union organisation in India.
  • It is associated with the Communist Party of India.

Indian National Trade Union Congress:

  • Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC), is the largest trade-union federation in India.
  • It was founded on 3 May 1947 in cooperation with the Indian National Congress and is affiliated with the International Trade Union Confederation.

Bhartiya Majdoor Sangh:

  • The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh is a trade union in India.
  • It was founded by Dattopant Thengadi on 23 July 1955.
  • The BMS is not affiliated with any International Trade Union Confederation.
  • It is the labour wing of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh and Bhartiya Janta Party.

​United Trade Union Congress:

  • United Trade Union Congress is a central trade union organisation in India.
  • UTUC is politically tied to Revolutionary Socialist Party.
  • UTUC was founded at an All India Labour Conference in Calcutta, on 1 May 1949.
  • It is associated with the Communist Party of India (Marxist).

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following items?
I. Right to Freedom of Religion.
II. Separation of Judiciary from Executive.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The correct answer is Only I.

Explanation

  • Part III of the constitution deals with fundamental rights.
    • Freedom of religion is a fundamental right.
  • Part IV of the Constitution mostly deals with Directive Principles of State Policy.
    • Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive comes under this part.
  • Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Other Related Points

Different parts of the constitution deal with different issues as follows -

Part

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

LIC belongs to which sector?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The correct answer is Insurance.
Explanation
  • Life Insurance Corporation came into existence on 1st September 1956.
  • LIC is a government-owned insurance and investment company arising from the Life Insurance Act of India, which put the insurance industry under the control of the government by nationalization, thereby establishing LIC in 1956.
  • The Life Insurance Corporation of India Act was passed by the Parliament in the year 1956.
  • Its aim is to provide citizens with a higher return on economic security through services and products than most other investment players on the market, thereby helping them build a particular quality of life and providing economic development.
  • The Oriental Life Insurance Company, the first company in India offering life insurance coverage, was established in Kolkata in 1818.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Explanation

The salient feature of our Indian Constitution :

  • Lengthiest Written Constitution
  • Drawn from Various Sources
  • Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility
  • Federal System with Unitary Bias
  • Parliamentary Form of Government
  • Synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy
  • Rule Of Law.
  • Integrated and Independent Judiciary
  • Fundamental rights
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • fundamental Duties
  • Secularism
  • Single Citizenship
  • Judicial Review
  • Basic structure Doctrine

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

The Chairman of State Human Rights Commission is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee who among the following is not part of that?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The correct answer is Chief Justice of High Court.

Explanation

  • Article 22 of the Protection of human rights act 1993 deals with the Appointment of Chairperson and Members of State Commission.
  • The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal, Provided that every appointment under this subsection shall be made after obtaining the recommendation of a committee consisting of:-
    • The chairman, who is the Chief Minister of the State.
    • Other members of the Committee comprise of:-
    • Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
    • Minister-in-charge of the Department of Home in that State
    • Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Assembly
  • Note:- Where there is a Legislative Council in a State, the Chairman of that Council and the Leader of the Opposition in that Council shall also be members of the Committee.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Lord Litton was great imperialist and his policies were responsible for which of the following battle?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

The correct answer is Second Afghan War.

Explanation

  • Second Afghan War
    • The war was a military conflict between the British Raj and the Emirate of Afghanistan.
    • The Second Anglo-Afghan War occurred between 1878 to 1880.
    • The war was split into two campaigns:
    • First campaign
      • In 1878, the British invaded Afghanistan and forced the Amir–Sher Ali Khan, to flee.
      • Mohammad Yaqub Khan, Ali's successor, sued for peace and made the Treaty of Gandamak in 1879.
      • But, this mission was massacred, and the conflict was reignited.
    • Second campaign
      • The war ended in 1880 when the British defeated Ayub Khan.
      • Then, Amir – Abdur Rahman Khan was selected by the British and confirmed the Treaty of Gandamak.

Important Points

  • Lord Litton
    • Edward Robert Lytton Bulwer-Lytton was a politician and poet.
    • He served as the Viceroy of India.
    • During his tenure, Queen Victoria has proclaimed Empress of India and British Ambassador to France.
    • He followed ruthless practices in domestic and foreign affairs, especially in handling the Great Famine and the Second Anglo-Afghan War.

Other Related Points

  • Battle of Wandiwash
    • It was a battle between the French and the British in India.
    • The battle of Wandiwash was fought in 1760.
    • It was a part of the Third Carnatic War fought between the French and British colonies.
    • The war took place at Vandavasi in Tamil Nadu.
    • The British captured Chetpet, Tirunomalai, Tindivanam and Perumukkal.
    • As a consequence, the French surrendered in 1761.
  • Mysore War
    • It was a series of four wars fought in the 18th century.
    • The war was fought between the Sultanate of Mysore and the British East India Company, the Maratha Empire, the Travancore Kingdom, and the Kingdom of Hyderabad.
    • Hyder Ali and his son Tipu Sultan fought the wars with the British attacking from the west, south and east and Nizam's forces attacking from the north.
    • The fourth war resulted in the death of Tipu Sultan in 1799.
  • Battle of Plassey
    • It was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies.
    • The battle of Plassey took place in 1757 under Robert Clive.
    • The victory was due to the defection of Mir Jafar.
    • He was the commander-in-chief of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah.
    • The Battle of Plassey took place at Palashi on the banks of the Hooghly River.
    • Robert Clive bribed Mir Jafar and defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah.
    • The battle was preceded by the Black Hole massacre.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Consider the following statements with respect to the World Trade Organization (WTO):

1. It is the largest international economic organization in the world.

2. It replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that is concerned with the regulation of international trade between nations. It is the largest international economic organization in the world.
  • The WTO has 164 members and 25 observer governments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The WTO replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Match the following

Detailed Solution: Question 17

The correct answer is A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2.

Explanation
Sanghi Temple

  • Lord Venkateshwara Swamy is the deity in this temple.
  • It is located in the Sanghi nagar Rangareddy district.
  • This temple is built on the crest of Paramananda Giri hill.
  • It is built in the Chola-Chalukya architectural style.
  • Nandeeshwara temple and Jahangir Peer Dargah are two other temples in the Rangareddy district.

Surya Narayana Temple

  • This is a 100-pillar temple located in Domakonda village of Bodhan in Nizamabad district.
  • It was built in the eighth century by Indra Vallabha - 3.
  • As a result, it is known as the Indranarayana Temple.

Tirdala Sangameswara Swamy temple

  • Situated in Khammam's Tirdala Village.
  • This is close to the confluence of the three rivers Akeru, Munneru, and Buggeru.

Vemulawada Raja Rajeshwara temple

  • This is known as Dakshina Kasi.
  • It was built by Vemulawada Chalukya rulers.
  • The Chalukyas established Vemulawada as their capital and ruled from there.
  • The old names for vemulawada are Lemulawada and Lembalavatika.
  • Dharmakundam is a holy tank in this temple.
  • There is a special tradition known as Kode Mokku, which is a ritual of making Pradakshinam (Circumambulation) of the temple with a Kode (bull).
  • A Dargah is located within the temple building, indicating secularism.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Match the following:

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Explanation

Falaknuma Palace-1884:

  • Falaknuma palace in Hyderabad was originally belonged to Paigah family and was later owned by the Nizams of Hyderabad.
  • It was built in 1884 by NawabSir Viqar-ul-Umra the prime minister of Hyderabad and the uncle of sixth Nizam.
  • Falaknuma means Like the sky or Mirror sky in Urdu.
  • The Nizam used the palace as a guest house for the royal guests visiting the kingdom of Hyderabad.
  • The palace fell into disuse after 1950s.
  • It was restored after being leased by the Taj Group of Hotels.
  • The restoration began in 2000s, took ten years and renovated hotel opened in November, 2010.

Chanchalguda Jail-1882:

  • Chanchaguda jail is one of the oldest jails in the country located in Hyderabad.
  • The jails is in the old city of Hyderabad at Chanchalguda.
  • It was constructed in 1882 during the sixth Nizam Mir Mahabub Ali Khan rule and remains operational today.
  • The chief architect was Nawab Khan Bahadur Mirza Akbar Baig.

Secunderabad Railway Station-1874:

  • Secunderabad Railway Station was built in 1874 by the sixth Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Mahabub Ali Khan.
  • It was the main station of Nizam's Guaranteed State Railway until Kacheguda railway station opened in 1916.
  • The station was taken by Indian railways in 1951 when Nizam Guaranteed State Railway was nationalized.
  • The station is main portico and concourse were influenced by Nizam-era-architecture.

Nizamia Observatory-1890:

  • It was established in 1908 during 6th Nizams period.
  • It is the 3rd Observatory in the country.
  • It was established by Nawab Zafar Jung.
  • Initially it was established at Pisalbanda in 1901.
  • By this establishment, astronomical research started in Hyderabad.

Other Related Points

Mir Mahabub Ali Khan(1869-1911):

  • Mir Mahabub Ali Khan Siddiqi Bayafandi was the 6th Nizam of the Hyderabad state ruled between 1869-1911.
  • He established medical college in Hyderabad and commissioned chloroform.
  • He issued Royal Firman on 12 November, 1876 to abolish the practice of Sati, a Hindu tradition a women used to jump into the burning pyre of their husbands.
  • The following constructions were built during his period:
    • Secunderabad Railway Station
    • Chanchalguda Jail
    • Falaknuma Palace
    • Telephone system
    • Nizamia Observatory
    • Bollaram Golf Course
    • Parade Grounds
    • Monda Market

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Tartaric acid is found in

A. Lemons

B. Amla

C. Unripe mangoes

D. Grapes

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Explanation:

Tartaric acid: Tartaric acid is a white, crystalline organic acid that occurs naturally in many fruits, most notably in grapes, unripe mangoes, tamarinds.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Arrange the following in descending order according to the percentage of schools in Telangana state:

1. Aided schools

2. State Government schools.

3. Private schools

4. Local Body schools

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Correct answer is 2-3-4-1.

Explanation

  • There are 41,369 schools in the Telangana state by the year 2021-22.
  • Among them 59% schools are run by the state government.
  • 12% schools are run by the local bodies.
  • 26% of schools are run by the Private schools.
  • The schools which are aided by the government are 2%.
  • Remaining 1% schools are unrecognized/madrasas/NCLP etc.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Match the following minerals with their corresponding districts of Telangana:

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Correct answer is a-2, b-3, c-1.

Explanation

  • Coal:
    • The reserves are located in Godavari and Pranahita regions of Telangana.
    • They are presents in the districts of Adilabad, Karimnagar, Khammam, Warangal etc.
    • The coal mines in Telangana are generally mined by Singareni Colleries Company limited.
    • The coalfields of Telangana is divided into separate units. They are:
      • North Wardha
      • Asifabad
      • North Godavari
      • Singareni
      • Kothgudem etc.
  • Iron Ore:
    • They mainly occurs in the following states:
      • Odisha
      • Jharkhand
      • Chhattisgarh
      • Goa
      • Telangana
      • Andhra Pradesh
      • Tamil Nadu
    • In Telangana they mainly occur in the districts of Mahabubabad, Jagityala, Peddapalli etc.
  • Limestone:
    • It is mainly produced by the following states:
      • Madhya Pradesh
      • Rajasthan
      • Andhra Pradesh
      • Telangana
      • Chhattisgarh etc.
    • In the state of Telangana, it is produced in the districts of Jagityal, Jogulamba Gadwal, Komaram Bheem, Mancherial etc.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Arrange the following sub-sectors of Industries according to the contribution of GSVA at current prices for the year 2022-2023 in descending order:

1.Manufacturing

2.Mining and quarrying

3.Construction

4. Electricity & Utilities

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Correct answer is 1-3-2-4.

Explanation

  • Industries refer to the economic activity which includes the following:
    • Production of goods
    • Extraction of minerals etc.
  • Some of the major industries are:
    • Iron and steel industry
    • Textile industries
    • Information Technology Industry
  • The sub-sectors of industries are as follows:
    • Manufacturing
    • Mining and quarrying
    • Construction
    • Electricity & Utilities

Important Points

  • Among the sub-sectors of industries Manufacturing Industry accounts for the highest GSVA.
  • In the state of Telangana, it accounts for approximately 59% of GSVA.
  • It is followed by construction with 19.04% of GSVA.
  • Mining and quarrying stood at 3rd place with 12.33% of GSVA.
  • It is followed by electricity and utilities with 9.65% of GSVA.

Other Related Points

  • Gross State Value Added:
    • It is defined as the value of output subtracted by the value of intermediate consumption.
    • It is the measure of contribution to GDP that is made by an industry or any sector.
    • It is the source of the primary incomes of the System of National Accounts.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding Temperature Distribution in Oceans:

1. The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles.

2. The temperature of the water steadily decreases with increasing depth.

3. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The correct answer is option 4.

Temperature Distribution of Oceans:

  • Horizontal Distribution:
    • The average temperature of surface water of the oceans is about 27°C and it gradually decreases from the equator towards the poles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing latitude is generally 0.5°C per latitude.
    • The average temperatures become 22°C at 20° latitude, 14°C at 40° latitude, and 0°C near the poles.
    • The average annual temperatures for the northern and southern hemispheres are 19.4°C and 16.1°C respectively.
    • The oceans in the northern hemisphere record rela­tively higher average temperatures than in the southern hemisphere.
    • This variation is because of the unequal distribution of land and ocean water. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Vertical Distribution:
    • The maximum tempera­ture of the oceans is always at their surface because it directly receives the insolation
    • The heat is transmit­ted to the lower sections of the oceans through the mechanism of conduction.
    • In fact, solar rays very effectively penetrate up to 20m depth and they seldom go beyond 200m depth.
    • Consequently, the temperature decreases from the ocean surface with increasing depth.
    • But the rate of decrease of tempera­ture with increasing depth is not uniform everywhere. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of 200m and thereafter the rate of decrease of temperature is slowed down.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Arrange the following countries in descending order according to their imports from the state of Telangana:

1. China

2. Russia

3. Bangladesh

4. USA

5. UK

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Correct answer is 4-1-3-2-5.

Explanation

  • Globally there is a demand for the goods that are produced by the Telangana state.
  • The exports of Telangana command high value among 170 countries in the world.
  • So, it has ranked 4th in the international market among all the states in our country.
  • More imports from Telangana are done by the following states:
    • United States of America
    • China
    • Bangladesh
    • Russia
    • United Kingdom etc.
  • USA receives the exports share of 28.13% from the state of Telangana.
  • It is followed by China with 7.3% of exports share.
  • Bangladesh stood at 3rd place with 3.64% of exports share from Telangana.
  • It is further followed by Russia and United Kingdom with 2.66% and 2.05% respectively.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

286, 192, 263, 176, 240, 160, 217, 144, ?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The pattern followed in the given series is:

The difference between odd terms is - 23

The difference between even terms is - 16.

So, '194' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Directions: The following items feature one part of the sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentences by choosing the correct alternative.

A photograph is

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is 'worth more than a thousand arguments.'

Explanation

  • According to the above-mentioned points, the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank is the word 'more than'.
  • Here, we require a comparative degree of adjective which can only be shown by "more than".​
  • All the other options are eliminated because of this reason.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Important Points

  • An adjective is a part of speech that modifies a noun or a pronoun.
    • Example: What a pale girl Mandhira is?
  • In the positive degree, some special quality of a thing is pointed out, not the degree of the special quality.
    • Example: Rima is a brave girl.
  • In the comparative degree, the second lower or higher degree of the quality is suggested, and in it, there is a sense of comparison of the same quality in two things.
    • Example: Rupali's work is far better than Dipa's work.
  • In the superlative degree, the third and the highest degree of the same quality amongst at least three or more things.
    • Example: Ranu is the best girl in the class.

Other Related Points

  • Option 1 is wrong because we require a comparative degree and it is neither a comparative nor superlative degree. Hence, it can't be the answer.
  • Option 2 is wrong as it is contextually wrong because it doesn't show what is it comparing. Hence, it can't be the answer.
  • Option 4 is wrong as it is not a comparative degree. Hence, it can't be the answer.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Directions: In the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is 'Sovereignty.'Explanation

  • The correctly spelled word among the words is 'Sovereignty.'
  • The meaning of the word 'Sovereignty' is the power that a country has to control its own government.
  • ('Sovereignty' का अर्थ है राष्‍ट्र की स्‍वयं अपना शासन चलाने की शक्ति; संप्रभुता, प्रभुसत्ता।))
    • Example: Talks are being held about who should have sovereignty over the island.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.​

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is: The children's toys are scattered all over the room. Option 2 is correct as the apostrophe indicates possession, showing the toys belong to the children.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Choose the word which is most opposite meaning to the word “pacify”

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct answer is 'Enrage'.

Explanation

  • Pacify means to bring peace or quell the anger, agitation, or excitement of.
    • Ex: He resigned from his position to pacify his accusers.
  • The meanings of the given options are as follows:
    • Enrage - make someone very angry.
      • Ex: His thoughtless behavior enraged us.
    • Appease - pacify or placate someone by acceding to their demands.
      • Ex: They made sacrifices to appease the gods.
    • Calm - make (someone) tranquil and quiet; soothe.
      • Ex: I tried to calm him down.
    • Mollify - appease the anger or anxiety of someone.
      • Ex: He tried to mollify his critics with an apology.
  • From the above meanings it is evident that enrage is the only option which is most opposite meaning to the word pacify.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

TSPSC AEE Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Fill up the blank, with the correct option

The old man fell ______ the ladder.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct solution is 'off'.

Explanation

  • In the given question above, we have to fill in the blank with an adverb since we have to qualify the verb 'fell'.
  • Since the verb 'fell' means 'move from a higher to a lower level', the most appropriate adverb would be 'off' which means 'so as to be removed or separated.'
    • Option 1, 'in' would be inorrect as the suject is aflling from the ladder and the sentence is not talking about the place where the subject is falling into.
    • Option 3, 'of' is incorrect as it is a preposition used to express the relationship between two things.
    • Option 4, 'for' is also an incorrect answer as it is also a preposition indicating the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

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