Practice Test for AP Biology - 5

Question 1

A phospholipid molecule in a cell membrane has a glycerol backbone with a phosphate group and two fatty acid tails. Which of the following correctly describes the interaction of these components with water?

Accepted Answer

The phosphate group is hydrophilic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic

Answer

Both the phosphate group and fatty acid tails are hydrophobic

Answer

The phosphate group is hydrophobic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophilic

Answer

Both the phosphate group and fatty acid tails are hydrophilic

Question 2

A researcher measures the activity of an enzyme extracted from the human stomach at pH values ranging from 1 to 10. The enzyme shows maximum activity at pH 2 and negligible activity at pH 8. A second researcher claims this enzyme would function optimally in the small intestine (pH ~7.5). Which of the following best evaluates this claim?

Accepted Answer

The claim is invalid because the enzyme's active site conformation is disrupted at pH 7.5, significantly reducing catalytic activity

Answer

The claim is valid because enzymes function equally well at any physiological pH

Answer

The claim is valid because the enzyme can denature and refold at higher pH values

Answer

The claim is invalid because the enzyme would increase substrate concentration at higher pH values

Question 3

A missense mutation in a gene encoding a metabolic enzyme results in the substitution of a nonpolar amino acid with a charged amino acid within the enzyme's active site. Which of the following best predicts the consequence of this mutation?

Accepted Answer

Altered chemical interactions at the active site may reduce substrate binding affinity and lower catalytic efficiency

Answer

The primary structure of the protein is unchanged, so enzyme function is unaffected

Answer

The mutation affects only the quaternary structure of the protein, leaving active site geometry intact

Answer

The ribosome will fail to translate the mRNA due to the codon change

Question 4

Water molecules at the surface of a plant's leaf form a continuous column extending from the roots to the leaves, enabling water transport against gravity. This property is best explained by which characteristic of water?

Accepted Answer

Cohesion resulting from hydrogen bonding between water molecules

Answer

High specific heat capacity of water

Answer

Water's ability to act as a universal solvent for polar molecules

Answer

The adhesion of water molecules to nonpolar surfaces

Question 5

A graph plots the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction (y-axis) against increasing substrate concentration (x-axis). At low substrate concentrations, the curve rises steeply; at high substrate concentrations, the curve plateaus at V_max. A competitive inhibitor is then added to the reaction at the same enzyme concentration. Which of the following describes how the graph changes with the inhibitor present?

Accepted Answer

The curve rises more slowly at low substrate concentrations, but the same V_max plateau is reached at higher substrate concentrations

Answer

The maximum reaction rate (V_max) decreases permanently and the curve plateaus at a lower level

Answer

The curve becomes perfectly linear with no plateau at any substrate concentration

Answer

Both the plateau level and the initial slope of the curve remain entirely unchanged

Question 6

During digestion, a polysaccharide is hydrolyzed into monosaccharides absorbed into the bloodstream. Inside a muscle cell, these monosaccharides are used to produce ATP. Which sequence of processes best describes the complete pathway from polysaccharide ingestion to ATP production?

Accepted Answer

Hydrolysis → glycolysis → Krebs cycle → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP synthesis

Answer

Dehydration synthesis → glycolysis → fermentation → ATP synthesis

Answer

Hydrolysis → translation → Krebs cycle → ATP synthesis

Answer

Dehydration synthesis → Calvin cycle → glycolysis → ATP synthesis

Question 7

A sodium ion moves across the plasma membrane from a region of low concentration to high concentration through a membrane protein, with energy input from ATP hydrolysis. This process is best described as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Active transport, because movement occurs against the concentration gradient and requires ATP

Answer

Facilitated diffusion, because a membrane protein is involved in the transport

Answer

Osmosis, because ions are moving through a selectively permeable membrane

Answer

Endocytosis, because the cell is using energy to internalize ions

Question 8

A student places red blood cells into three solutions: Solution X, Solution Y, and Solution Z. After 30 minutes, cells in Solution X are shrunken (crenated), cells in Solution Y are normal in size, and cells in Solution Z have lysed (burst). Which of the following correctly identifies the tonicity of each solution relative to the cells?

Accepted Answer

X = hypertonic, Y = isotonic, Z = hypotonic

Answer

X = hypotonic, Y = hypertonic, Z = isotonic

Answer

X = isotonic, Y = hypotonic, Z = hypertonic

Answer

X = hypertonic, Y = hypotonic, Z = isotonic

Question 9

Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of mitochondria?

Accepted Answer

Mitochondria contain their own circular DNA and replicate independently by binary fission

Answer

Mitochondria are found in both plant and animal eukaryotic cells

Answer

Mitochondria are surrounded by a double membrane

Answer

Mitochondria produce ATP through oxidative phosphorylation using oxygen

Question 10

A researcher models cells as cubes and calculates the surface area-to-volume (SA:V) ratio for cubes with side lengths of 1 μm, 2 μm, 4 μm, and 8 μm. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratio, and its biological significance?

Accepted Answer

SA:V ratio decreases as cell size increases, limiting the ability of larger cells to exchange materials with the environment

Answer

SA:V ratio increases as cell size increases, allowing larger cells to exchange materials more efficiently

Answer

SA:V ratio remains constant regardless of cell size, so all sizes are equally efficient at exchange

Answer

SA:V ratio increases as cell size increases, but this has no measurable effect on cellular metabolism

Question 11

A cell is treated with a drug that specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium (Na⁺/K⁺) pump. Which of the following best predicts the sequence of consequences inside the cell?

Accepted Answer

ATP hydrolysis at the pump is blocked → intracellular Na⁺ accumulates → membrane potential is disrupted → cellular functions dependent on the Na⁺ gradient are impaired

Answer

The pump reverses direction → K⁺ is actively exported → Na⁺ enters by active transport at an increased rate

Answer

Facilitated diffusion of Na⁺ increases to compensate → membrane potential is maintained → cellular function continues normally

Answer

Osmosis draws water out of the cell immediately &rarr; the cell shrinks &rarr; apoptosis is triggered within minutes

Question 12

A researcher constructs an artificial lipid bilayer that contains no protein channels or carriers. The researcher then tests permeability to four substances: oxygen (O₂), glucose, sodium ions (Na⁺), and water (H₂O). Based on the fluid mosaic model, which substance would cross the bilayer most readily without protein assistance?

Accepted Answer

O₂, because it is small and nonpolar, allowing it to diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer

Answer

Glucose, because it is a relatively small organic molecule

Answer

Na⁺, because ions are highly mobile in aqueous solution

Answer

H₂O, because it is essential for all biological processes

Question 13

Unlike eukaryotic cells, bacterial cells lack a nuclear membrane. Which of the following best describes a functional consequence of this structural difference for gene expression in bacteria?

Accepted Answer

In bacteria, translation can begin on an mRNA molecule while transcription is still occurring, because both processes occur in the same cellular compartment

Answer

Bacteria cannot perform transcription because they lack a nucleus to house DNA

Answer

Bacteria require post-transcriptional modification of mRNA, including intron splicing, before translation can occur

Answer

The absence of a nuclear membrane prevents bacteria from regulating gene expression at any level

Question 14

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following correctly identifies the source of the oxygen (O₂) released into the atmosphere?

Accepted Answer

Water molecules are split (photolysis) at Photosystem II, releasing oxygen into the atmosphere

Answer

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is split by light energy, releasing oxygen as a byproduct

Answer

ATP is broken down during the light reactions, releasing oxygen as a byproduct

Answer

NADPH donates electrons to the electron transport chain, releasing oxygen as a byproduct

Question 15

A researcher incubates yeast cells in sealed containers with varying concentrations of glucose and measures CO₂ production over 60 minutes. Container 1 has no glucose, Container 2 has 0.5% glucose, and Container 3 has 2% glucose. All containers lack oxygen. Which of the following best identifies the metabolic pathway producing CO₂ in this experiment and the correct role of Container 1?

Accepted Answer

Alcoholic fermentation produces CO₂; Container 1 serves as the negative control to establish baseline CO₂ production

Answer

Aerobic cellular respiration produces CO₂; Container 1 serves as the positive control

Answer

The Krebs cycle produces CO₂; Container 1 determines the effect of oxygen concentration on the pathway

Answer

Glycolysis produces CO₂ and H₂O; Container 1 measures the baseline ATP level in yeast

Question 16

A graph shows net O₂ exchange (y-axis, μmol/hour) versus light intensity (x-axis) for a C3 plant. At light intensity = 0, net O₂ exchange = −2 μmol/hour. At light intensity = 10, net exchange = 0. At light intensity = 40, exchange plateaus at +8 μmol/hour. Which of the following best interprets the data at light intensity = 0?

Accepted Answer

The plant consumes 2 μmol O₂/hour through cellular respiration in the complete absence of photosynthesis

Answer

The plant performs only the Calvin cycle, consuming 2 μmol O₂/hour in carbon fixation

Answer

The plant produces no ATP because no light is available for the light reactions

Answer

The plant produces 2 μmol O₂/hour through residual light reaction activity in darkness

Question 17

A researcher treats isolated mitochondria with a chemical that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane freely permeable to H⁺ ions (protons). Which of the following best predicts the effect on ATP synthesis?

Accepted Answer

ATP synthesis decreases because the proton gradient across the inner membrane is dissipated, preventing ATP synthase from functioning via chemiosmosis

Answer

ATP synthesis increases because more protons are available in the mitochondrial matrix

Answer

ATP synthesis is unaffected because substrate-level phosphorylation in the matrix compensates for the loss

Answer

ATP synthesis increases because electron transport chain activity accelerates to compensate for proton leakage

Question 18

During cellular respiration, ATP is produced by two distinct mechanisms. Which of the following correctly distinguishes substrate-level phosphorylation from oxidative phosphorylation?

Accepted Answer

Substrate-level phosphorylation involves direct transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate to ADP, while oxidative phosphorylation uses the energy of a proton gradient to synthesize ATP via ATP synthase

Answer

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, while oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the cytoplasm

Answer

Substrate-level phosphorylation requires molecular oxygen, while oxidative phosphorylation does not

Answer

Substrate-level phosphorylation produces only NADH, while oxidative phosphorylation converts NADH directly into ATP without involving a membrane

Question 19

C4 plants, such as corn, have a biochemical adaptation that concentrates CO₂ around RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells. Which of the following best explains the evolutionary advantage of this adaptation in hot, dry environments?

Accepted Answer

By concentrating CO₂ near RuBisCO, C4 plants reduce photorespiration, allowing more efficient carbon fixation when stomata are partially closed to conserve water

Answer

C4 plants produce more NADPH than C3 plants, allowing the light reactions to run faster at high temperatures

Answer

C4 plants bypass the Calvin cycle entirely by fixing carbon directly in mesophyll cells without RuBisCO

Answer

Concentrating CO₂ increases water potential in the leaves, directly reducing water loss through transpiration

Question 20

Muscle cells subjected to intense exercise under anaerobic conditions show a marked increase in lactate concentration. Which of the following best explains the production of lactate under these conditions?

Accepted Answer

Pyruvate is reduced by NADH to form lactate, regenerating NAD⁺ to allow glycolysis to continue producing ATP under anaerobic conditions

Answer

Lactate is produced when the Krebs cycle cannot process all available acetyl-CoA under high workload

Answer

Lactate is a direct product of the electron transport chain when oxygen availability is insufficient

Answer

Glucose is converted directly to lactate without generating ATP or NADH during the process

Question 21

The table below shows the approximate ATP yield from each stage of aerobic cellular respiration per glucose molecule:

Stage	ATP Yield
Glycolysis	2 ATP (net, substrate-level)
Pyruvate Oxidation	0 ATP (direct)
Krebs Cycle	2 ATP (substrate-level)
Oxidative Phosphorylation	~32 ATP

A student claims that the majority of ATP produced during aerobic respiration comes from substrate-level phosphorylation. Which of the following correctly evaluates this claim?

Accepted Answer

The claim is incorrect because oxidative phosphorylation accounts for the vast majority (~32 of ~36 ATP) of total ATP production per glucose molecule

Answer

The claim is correct because glycolysis and the Krebs cycle together produce more ATP than oxidative phosphorylation

Answer

The claim is correct because NADH and FADH₂ produced during substrate-level reactions are the ultimate source of most ATP

Answer

The claim is incorrect because fermentation, rather than substrate-level phosphorylation, is responsible for the majority of ATP in aerobic cells

Question 22

Epinephrine binds to a receptor on a liver cell surface, triggering a cascade that activates adenylyl cyclase, which converts ATP to cAMP. cAMP then activates protein kinase A, which phosphorylates enzymes involved in glycogen breakdown. Which of the following correctly matches each component to its role in signal transduction?

Accepted Answer

Epinephrine = signal/ligand; cAMP = second messenger; glycogen breakdown = cellular response

Answer

Epinephrine = transduction; cAMP = reception; protein kinase A = response

Answer

Receptor = response; adenylyl cyclase = reception; cAMP = transduction

Answer

cAMP = reception; epinephrine = second messenger; receptor = response

Question 23

A researcher identifies a mutation in a human cell line that causes the protein product of a tumor suppressor gene to be completely nonfunctional. Cells carrying this mutation divide continuously without responding to cell cycle checkpoints. Which of the following best explains why this mutation promotes uncontrolled cell division?

Accepted Answer

Tumor suppressor proteins normally inhibit cell cycle progression at checkpoints; loss of their function removes this inhibition, allowing cells to bypass checkpoint controls and divide continuously

Answer

Tumor suppressor genes encode cyclins that accelerate the cell cycle; loss of function paradoxically increases cyclin activity and division rate

Answer

Nonfunctional tumor suppressor proteins directly bind to proto-oncogene promoters, constitutively activating them

Answer

The mutation prevents apoptosis by increasing the concentration of second messengers such as cAMP in the cytoplasm

Question 24

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and begin moving toward opposite poles of the cell?

Accepted Answer

Anaphase, when cohesins are cleaved and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by spindle fibers

Answer

Prophase, when the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle fibers begin to form

Answer

Metaphase, when chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial (metaphase) plate

Answer

Telophase, when nuclear envelopes reform around each set of chromosomes at the poles

Question 25

A diploid organism (2n = 4) undergoes meiosis. During meiosis I, one pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate (nondisjunction). Which of the following best predicts the chromosome number in the resulting gametes?

Accepted Answer

Two gametes have n = 3 and two gametes have n = 1, because the nondisjunction event in meiosis I distributes both homologs to one cell

Answer

All four gametes have n = 2, the normal haploid number, because nondisjunction errors are corrected

Answer

All four gametes have n = 3 due to duplication of the affected chromosome pair during meiosis II

Answer

Two gametes have n = 2 and two gametes have n = 2, because meiosis II corrects the meiosis I nondisjunction error

Question 26

During vertebrate limb development, cells between the developing digits undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis). A researcher discovers a mutation that prevents this apoptosis from occurring. Which of the following best predicts the developmental outcome in organisms carrying this mutation?

Accepted Answer

Webbing persists between the digits because the interdigital cells are not eliminated by programmed cell death

Answer

The digits develop normally because neighboring cells compensate by increasing their rate of division

Answer

The organism develops extra digits because the absence of apoptosis allows unregulated cell division in the limb bud

Answer

The limb fails to form entirely because morphogen gradients required for limb patterning are disrupted by the absence of apoptosis

Question 27

A graph shows the relative concentration of cyclin B (y-axis) over the stages of the cell cycle (x-axis: G1 → S → G2 → M → G1). Cyclin B levels rise through G2, peak at M phase, then drop sharply as the cell exits mitosis. Which of the following best explains the sharp decrease in cyclin B at the end of M phase?

Accepted Answer

Cyclin B is targeted for degradation by the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway, causing CDK1 to become inactive and allowing the cell to exit mitosis

Answer

Cyclin B is phosphorylated by CDK1 at high concentrations, which increases its own activity and drives continued mitosis

Answer

Cyclin B is enzymatically converted to cyclin A at the end of M phase to initiate DNA synthesis in the next S phase

Answer

The decrease in cyclin B directly triggers DNA replication to begin again within the same cell cycle

Question 28

A hydrophilic hormone is released from an endocrine gland and travels through the bloodstream to a target cell. The hormone cannot cross the plasma membrane. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism by which this hormone produces a cellular response?

Accepted Answer

The hormone binds to a cell-surface receptor, triggering a signal transduction cascade that may involve second messengers such as cAMP, ultimately producing a cellular response

Answer

The hormone diffuses through the lipid bilayer and binds to a receptor in the nucleus, directly activating gene transcription

Answer

The hormone is taken into the cell by endocytosis and then directly activates cytoplasmic enzymes

Answer

The hormone binds to a receptor on the inner surface of the plasma membrane, which then translocates to the nucleus

Question 29

In pea plants, the allele for yellow seed color (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seed color (y). A cross between two heterozygous plants (Yy × Yy) is performed. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of yellow to green seeds in the offspring?

Accepted Answer

3 yellow : 1 green

Answer

1 yellow : 1 green

Answer

1 yellow : 2 blended : 1 green

Answer

All offspring are yellow because yellow is the dominant allele

Question 30

A student crosses two heterozygous pea plants and observes 72 yellow and 28 green seeds out of 100 offspring. The expected Mendelian ratio is 3:1 (75 yellow : 25 green). The calculated χ² value is 0.853. The critical value for 1 degree of freedom at p = 0.05 is 3.841. Which of the following is the correct conclusion?

Accepted Answer

The null hypothesis is not rejected; the deviation from the expected 3:1 ratio is likely attributable to chance

Answer

The null hypothesis is rejected; the observed ratio significantly deviates from the expected 3:1 ratio

Answer

The χ² value exceeds the critical value, confirming that Mendelian inheritance is occurring

Answer

The results prove the trait is controlled by more than one gene because the data do not perfectly match 3:1

Practice Test for AP Biology - 5 Grade 10 MCQs & solutions - Free

MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Practice Test for AP Biology - 5 (60 Questions)

A phospholipid molecule in a cell membrane has a glycerol backbone with a phosphate group and two fatty acid tails. Which of the following correctly describes the interaction of these components with water?

A missense mutation in a gene encoding a metabolic enzyme results in the substitution of a nonpolar amino acid with a charged amino acid within the enzyme's active site. Which of the following best predicts the consequence of this mutation?

Water molecules at the surface of a plant's leaf form a continuous column extending from the roots to the leaves, enabling water transport against gravity. This property is best explained by which characteristic of water?

During digestion, a polysaccharide is hydrolyzed into monosaccharides absorbed into the bloodstream. Inside a muscle cell, these monosaccharides are used to produce ATP. Which sequence of processes best describes the complete pathway from polysaccharide ingestion to ATP production?

A sodium ion moves across the plasma membrane from a region of low concentration to high concentration through a membrane protein, with energy input from ATP hydrolysis. This process is best described as which of the following?

Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of mitochondria?

A researcher models cells as cubes and calculates the surface area-to-volume (SA:V) ratio for cubes with side lengths of 1 μm, 2 μm, 4 μm, and 8 μm. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratio, and its biological significance?

A cell is treated with a drug that specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium (Na⁺/K⁺) pump. Which of the following best predicts the sequence of consequences inside the cell?

Unlike eukaryotic cells, bacterial cells lack a nuclear membrane. Which of the following best describes a functional consequence of this structural difference for gene expression in bacteria?

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following correctly identifies the source of the oxygen (O₂) released into the atmosphere?

A researcher treats isolated mitochondria with a chemical that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane freely permeable to H⁺ ions (protons). Which of the following best predicts the effect on ATP synthesis?

During cellular respiration, ATP is produced by two distinct mechanisms. Which of the following correctly distinguishes substrate-level phosphorylation from oxidative phosphorylation?

C4 plants, such as corn, have a biochemical adaptation that concentrates CO₂ around RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells. Which of the following best explains the evolutionary advantage of this adaptation in hot, dry environments?

Muscle cells subjected to intense exercise under anaerobic conditions show a marked increase in lactate concentration. Which of the following best explains the production of lactate under these conditions?

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and begin moving toward opposite poles of the cell?

A diploid organism (2n = 4) undergoes meiosis. During meiosis I, one pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate (nondisjunction). Which of the following best predicts the chromosome number in the resulting gametes?

During vertebrate limb development, cells between the developing digits undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis). A researcher discovers a mutation that prevents this apoptosis from occurring. Which of the following best predicts the developmental outcome in organisms carrying this mutation?

A hydrophilic hormone is released from an endocrine gland and travels through the bloodstream to a target cell. The hormone cannot cross the plasma membrane. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism by which this hormone produces a cellular response?

In pea plants, the allele for yellow seed color (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seed color (y). A cross between two heterozygous plants (Yy × Yy) is performed. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of yellow to green seeds in the offspring?

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Practice Test for AP Biology - 5 Grade 10 MCQs & solutions - Free

MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Practice Test for AP Biology - 5 (60 Questions)

A phospholipid molecule in a cell membrane has a glycerol backbone with a phosphate group and two fatty acid tails. Which of the following correctly describes the interaction of these components with water?

A missense mutation in a gene encoding a metabolic enzyme results in the substitution of a nonpolar amino acid with a charged amino acid within the enzyme's active site. Which of the following best predicts the consequence of this mutation?

Water molecules at the surface of a plant's leaf form a continuous column extending from the roots to the leaves, enabling water transport against gravity. This property is best explained by which characteristic of water?

During digestion, a polysaccharide is hydrolyzed into monosaccharides absorbed into the bloodstream. Inside a muscle cell, these monosaccharides are used to produce ATP. Which sequence of processes best describes the complete pathway from polysaccharide ingestion to ATP production?

A sodium ion moves across the plasma membrane from a region of low concentration to high concentration through a membrane protein, with energy input from ATP hydrolysis. This process is best described as which of the following?

Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of mitochondria?

A researcher models cells as cubes and calculates the surface area-to-volume (SA:V) ratio for cubes with side lengths of 1 μm, 2 μm, 4 μm, and 8 μm. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratio, and its biological significance?

A cell is treated with a drug that specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump. Which of the following best predicts the sequence of consequences inside the cell?

Unlike eukaryotic cells, bacterial cells lack a nuclear membrane. Which of the following best describes a functional consequence of this structural difference for gene expression in bacteria?

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following correctly identifies the source of the oxygen (O2) released into the atmosphere?

A researcher treats isolated mitochondria with a chemical that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane freely permeable to H+ ions (protons). Which of the following best predicts the effect on ATP synthesis?

During cellular respiration, ATP is produced by two distinct mechanisms. Which of the following correctly distinguishes substrate-level phosphorylation from oxidative phosphorylation?

C4 plants, such as corn, have a biochemical adaptation that concentrates CO2 around RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells. Which of the following best explains the evolutionary advantage of this adaptation in hot, dry environments?

Muscle cells subjected to intense exercise under anaerobic conditions show a marked increase in lactate concentration. Which of the following best explains the production of lactate under these conditions?

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and begin moving toward opposite poles of the cell?

A diploid organism (2n = 4) undergoes meiosis. During meiosis I, one pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate (nondisjunction). Which of the following best predicts the chromosome number in the resulting gametes?

During vertebrate limb development, cells between the developing digits undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis). A researcher discovers a mutation that prevents this apoptosis from occurring. Which of the following best predicts the developmental outcome in organisms carrying this mutation?

A hydrophilic hormone is released from an endocrine gland and travels through the bloodstream to a target cell. The hormone cannot cross the plasma membrane. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism by which this hormone produces a cellular response?

In pea plants, the allele for yellow seed color (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seed color (y). A cross between two heterozygous plants (Yy × Yy) is performed. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of yellow to green seeds in the offspring?

AP Biology

AP Biology

Top Courses for Grade 10

About this Grade 10 Practice Test

Explore more Grade 10 Study Resources

A cell is treated with a drug that specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium (Na⁺/K⁺) pump. Which of the following best predicts the sequence of consequences inside the cell?

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which of the following correctly identifies the source of the oxygen (O₂) released into the atmosphere?

A researcher treats isolated mitochondria with a chemical that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane freely permeable to H⁺ ions (protons). Which of the following best predicts the effect on ATP synthesis?

C4 plants, such as corn, have a biochemical adaptation that concentrates CO₂ around RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells. Which of the following best explains the evolutionary advantage of this adaptation in hot, dry environments?