All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

According to international law, what principle prohibits states from using force against another state's territorial integrity or political independence?
  • a)
    The principle of territorial sovereignty
  • b)
    The principle of non-intervention
  • c)
    The principle of self-defense
  • d)
    The principle of diplomatic immunity
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

According to international law, the principle that prohibits states from using force against another state's territorial integrity or political independence is the principle of self-defense. This principle is outlined in Article 2(4) of the United Nations Charter, which allows states to use force only in cases of self-defense or when authorized by the UN Security Council. Self-defense is a fundamental aspect of international law that aims to maintain peace and security among nations.

What key factor has led to Somaliland's elevation from a marginal territory to a pivotal player in great-power rivalries?
  • a)
    Establishment of a military base
  • b)
    Recognition by Israel as a sovereign state
  • c)
    Formation of alliances with Somalia
  • d)
    Cultural exchange programs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Somaliland's transformation from a marginal territory to a pivotal player in great-power rivalries can be attributed to Israel's recent recognition of it as a sovereign state. This recognition has significantly altered the geopolitical landscape in the Horn of Africa, raising concerns about escalating proxy rivalries and increased militarization in the region.This question tests your understanding of the recent diplomatic developments in the Horn of Africa and the impact of Israel's recognition of Somaliland on regional dynamics.

Consider the following statements regarding the European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and its implications for India's steel and aluminium exports:
1. The CBAM will impose a carbon-linked import tax on certain carbon-intensive products starting from January 1, 2026, with certificate payments beginning in 2027.
2. The CBAM primarily focuses on Scope 3 emissions, which include emissions from mining and transportation.
3. Indian steel and aluminium exporters are expected to experience reduced profit margins and increased compliance costs due to the CBAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The CBAM is set to impose a carbon-linked import tax beginning January 1, 2026. While the certificate payments begin in 2027, the financial impact of the mechanism will be felt immediately in 2026.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CBAM taxation is based on plant-level carbon emissions and focuses on Scope 1 (direct emissions) and Scope 2 (indirect emissions from electricity), not Scope 3 emissions, which include emissions from mining and transportation.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Indian exporters of steel and aluminium are anticipated to face reduced profit margins and increased compliance costs due to the CBAM. The mechanism's requirements for carbon efficiency and compliance present significant challenges for maintaining competitiveness in the EU market.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Shaksgam Valley, also known as the Trans Karakoram Tract, is strategically significant for India due to its proximity to the Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass.
Statement-II:
The Shaksgam Valley was ceded to China by Pakistan in a 1963 agreement, a move contested by India as illegal, claiming that the territory is inherently Indian.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
Both statements regarding the Shaksgam Valley highlight its strategic significance and the historical context of territorial disputes in the region.
Statement-I Explanation
- The Shaksgam Valley, also known as the Trans Karakoram Tract, is indeed strategically significant for India.
- Its proximity to key military areas like the Siachen Glacier and the Karakoram Pass makes it an area of interest for national security and geopolitical stability.
Statement-II Explanation
- The valley was ceded to China by Pakistan through the 1963 boundary agreement.
- India contests this agreement, asserting that the territory is inherently Indian based on historical claims and international law.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes the strategic importance of the Shaksgam Valley for India.
- Statement-II correctly states the controversial nature of the 1963 agreement between Pakistan and China, which India views as illegal.
- Furthermore, Statement-II provides a background that explains why the significance mentioned in Statement-I exists.
Thus, the correct option is: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

How has the recent shift in global economic dynamics impacted developing nations like India?
  • a)
    Provided them with increased opportunities and advantages
  • b)
    Limited their bargaining power and opportunities in global issues
  • c)
    Strengthened their position in international trade agreements
  • d)
    Enhanced their economic stability and growth prospects
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Impact of Global Economic Dynamics on Developing Nations
The evolving global economic landscape has notably influenced developing nations like India, primarily by limiting their bargaining power and opportunities in various global issues.
Shifts in Power Dynamics
- Emerging Economies vs. Developed Nations: The recent rise of emerging economies has shifted the balance of power, often sidelining developing nations in negotiations.
- Increased Competition: As more countries vie for investment and trade, developing nations find themselves in a more competitive environment, which can dilute their negotiating strength.
Challenges in Global Platforms
- Limited Representation: In international forums such as the WTO or G20, developing nations often struggle to have their voices heard, with decisions largely influenced by developed countries.
- Economic Vulnerabilities: Global economic fluctuations, such as inflation or recessions in developed nations, disproportionately affect developing countries, further limiting their negotiating power.
Trade Agreements and Market Access
- Unequal Trade Agreements: Many trade agreements favor developed nations, reducing the advantages for developing countries in accessing larger markets.
- Dependency on Foreign Aid: As developing nations rely on aid and investments from wealthier countries, their ability to assert themselves in global discussions diminishes.
Conclusion
Overall, while there are opportunities for growth, the recent shifts in global economic dynamics have primarily constrained the bargaining capabilities and opportunities for developing nations like India, making it challenging for them to assert their interests on the global stage.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The return of the Piprawaha relics has the potential to positively influence public attitudes towards India's museums.

Statement-II:
India's share of global rice production rose from 21.95% in 2011 to approximately 28% in 2024, positioning it ahead of China and other significant producers like Bangladesh and Indonesia.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Tiwari answered
Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's break them down one by one.
Statement-I: Positive Influence on Public Attitudes
- The return of the Piprawaha relics, which are significant Buddhist artifacts, is likely to enhance the cultural heritage of India.
- This act can foster a sense of pride and appreciation for Indian history among the public.
- By bringing back such relics, museums can attract more visitors and engage the community, thereby positively influencing public attitudes.
Statement-II: Rice Production Statistics
- India's rice production share rising from 21.95% in 2011 to approximately 28% in 2024 indicates a substantial increase.
- This places India ahead of other major rice-producing countries, such as China, Bangladesh, and Indonesia.
- The increase in production signifies improvements in agricultural practices, technology, and government policies, which may indirectly tie back to the country's cultural pride, including aspects related to heritage and food security.
Relationship Between Statements
- Both statements are indeed correct. Statement-I discusses the cultural and public sentiment aspect, while Statement-II provides statistical evidence of India's agricultural achievements.
- The connection lies in the broader theme of national pride and identity. The return of relics can enhance appreciation for India's cultural heritage, which complements the pride in its agricultural success.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- The positive public attitude towards museums and cultural artifacts can be seen as part of a larger narrative of national pride, which is also reflected in agricultural success.

Consider the following statements:
1. Illegal online gambling operators exploit regulatory loopholes by frequently changing their website URLs to avoid detection and blocking efforts.
2. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, imposes a nationwide ban on all forms of online gaming in India.
3. A 28% Goods and Services Tax (GST) is applicable to both online gaming and gambling activities in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's evaluate each one individually.
Statement 1: Illegal online gambling operators exploit regulatory loopholes.
- This statement is correct. Illegal online gambling operators often evade detection by regularly changing their website URLs and utilizing various tactics to bypass regulatory scrutiny and blocking measures. This behavior complicates enforcement efforts against illegal activities.
Statement 2: The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, imposes a nationwide ban on all forms of online gaming in India.
- This statement is incorrect. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, does not impose a blanket ban on all online gaming. Instead, it aims to regulate and promote responsible online gaming practices, ensuring a safe environment for players while allowing certain forms of online gaming to operate legally.
Statement 3: A 28% Goods and Services Tax (GST) is applicable to both online gaming and gambling activities in India.
- This statement is correct. The Indian government has implemented a 28% GST on various forms of online gaming and gambling activities, aligning them with other forms of entertainment and ensuring tax compliance.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only).

Consider the following statements regarding the "One District One Product (ODOP)" initiative:
1. The ODOP initiative was launched in 2018 in Uttar Pradesh and aims to promote one unique product from each district across India.
2. The initiative is primarily focused on transforming local products into global brands by supporting artisans, farmers, and small enterprises.
3. PM Ekta Malls, developed as part of the ODOP initiative, are solely funded by the government without any private partnership.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The ODOP initiative was indeed launched in 2018 in Uttar Pradesh. The program seeks to promote one unique product from each district to enhance local economic development and support local entrepreneurship across India.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The initiative's primary goal is to transform local specialties into global brands. It supports artisans, farmers, and small enterprises, thereby safeguarding India's cultural heritage and traditional skills.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. PM Ekta Malls are developed under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, which means they are not solely funded by the government. This model allows for collaboration between public and private sectors to create retail hubs that promote ODOP products, Geographical Indication (GI)-tagged items, and handicrafts.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to Quantum Technology:
1. Quantum Communication: Uses quantum properties to enhance security and improve healthcare diagnostics.
2. Quantum Simulation: Involves using a quantum system to replicate the behavior of another quantum system.
3. Quantum Computation: Focuses on using quantum mechanics principles to perform certain calculations more efficiently than traditional computers.
4. Quantum Sensing and Metrology: Applies quantum mechanics to achieve highly accurate measurements.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Quantum Communication: This is incorrectly matched. Quantum communication primarily focuses on enhancing security and improving long-distance communication, not healthcare diagnostics. Quantum properties are utilized in communication to ensure secure data transmission through techniques such as quantum key distribution.
2. Quantum Simulation: This pair is correctly matched. Quantum simulation involves using a quantum system to replicate the behavior of another quantum system, which is crucial for understanding complex quantum phenomena that are difficult to study directly.
3. Quantum Computation: This pair is correctly matched. Quantum computation uses principles of quantum mechanics to perform computations more efficiently than classical computers. This includes solving problems that are currently intractable with traditional computing methods.
4. Quantum Sensing and Metrology: This pair is correctly matched. Quantum sensing and metrology apply quantum mechanics to achieve highly accurate measurements. These technologies have applications in developing precise sensors and improving the accuracy of measurements in various fields.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched, making Option C the correct choice.

What is the top-ranked risk according to the Global Risks Report 2026?
  • a)
    State-based armed conflict
  • b)
    Economic downturn
  • c)
    Misinformation and disinformation
  • d)
    Geoeconomic confrontation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
According to the Global Risks Report 2026, the top-ranked risk is geoeconomic confrontation. This risk is characterized by the use of tariffs, sanctions, investment restrictions, and control over critical minerals. Geoeconomic confrontation has been identified as the most significant immediate global risk in the report, reflecting the current state of global affairs where economic factors play a crucial role in international relations and potential conflicts.

What is the main focus of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation, and Resettlement Act, 2013 in India?
  • a)
    Ensuring free land acquisition for all development projects
  • b)
    Emphasizing fair compensation, consent, and transparency in land acquisition processes
  • c)
    Exempting all development projects from compensation regulations
  • d)
    Ignoring rehabilitation and resettlement provisions for affected families
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation, and Resettlement Act, 2013 in India primarily emphasizes fair compensation, consent, and transparency in land acquisition processes. This Act aims to provide a more transparent and humane framework for land acquisition, focusing on fair compensation and rehabilitation for affected families. Consent is made mandatory, and there are specific provisions for rehabilitation and resettlement, ensuring that affected individuals are fairly compensated and supported during the acquisition process.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Risks Report 2026 identifies geoeconomic confrontation as the top immediate global risk, characterized by the use of tariffs, sanctions, and control over critical minerals.
2. Economic downturn and inflation are the top two economic risks in the Global Risks Report 2026, ranked 11th and 21st, respectively.
3. Misinformation and disinformation are ranked as the highest technological risks in both the short-term and long-term outlooks of the Global Risks Report 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is correct. The Global Risks Report 2026 indeed identifies geoeconomic confrontation as the top immediate global risk. This risk is characterized by the use of tariffs, sanctions, investment restrictions, and control over critical minerals, reflecting significant geopolitical tensions and economic weaponization.
Statement 2 is correct. The report outlines that economic downturn is now ranked 11th, and inflation has moved up to the 21st position. These rankings indicate significant concerns over economic stability and are highlighted as major economic risks in the report.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While misinformation and disinformation are significant technological risks, they are specifically ranked 2nd in the short-term outlook, not in both short-term and long-term outlooks. In the long-term, adverse outcomes of AI technologies take precedence, ranking 5th in the 10-year outlook.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's (BEE) Standards and Labelling Programme:
1. The BEE's Standards and Labelling Programme was launched in 2006 under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, to promote energy efficiency across a variety of appliances.
2. The programme uses a star labelling system, where appliances rated with one star are the most energy-efficient within their category.
3. The programme has contributed to reducing approximately 60 million tonnes of CO₂ annually by enhancing India's energy security and consumer savings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The BEE's Standards and Labelling Programme was indeed launched in 2006 as part of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. This programme was established to promote energy efficiency across a wide range of appliances by providing consumers with information that would help them make informed choices.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The star labelling system under the BEE programme rates appliances on a scale of one to five stars, where five stars indicate the most energy-efficient products, not one star. This is a key feature of the programme that allows consumers to identify and purchase more energy-efficient appliances easily.
- Statement 3 is correct. The programme plays a significant role in reducing national electricity demand, lowering consumer power bills, and has been reported to contribute to the reduction of approximately 60 million tonnes of CO₂ annually. This impact illustrates the programme's effectiveness in enhancing India's energy security and promoting sustainable consumption.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

What has been a key strategy employed by India to enhance its seafood export profile in recent times?
  • a)
    Focusing solely on increasing shrimp exports to the U.S.
  • b)
    Relying heavily on a single market for seafood exports.
  • c)
    Emphasizing market diversification to reduce dependency on one market.
  • d)
    Decreasing overall seafood exports to ensure quality control.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Verma answered
Key Strategy for India's Seafood Exports
India has been actively working to enhance its seafood export profile through a variety of strategic approaches. One of the most significant strategies has been market diversification.
Market Diversification
- Reducing Dependency: By emphasizing market diversification, India aims to reduce its reliance on any single market, such as the U.S. This strategy helps in mitigating risks associated with fluctuations in demand or trade barriers in specific countries.
- Exploring New Markets: India has been targeting emerging markets in Southeast Asia, the Middle East, and Europe. This broadens its customer base and opens up new revenue streams.
Quality and Sustainability
- Focus on Quality Control: While increasing exports, India is also ensuring that quality standards are met. This includes adhering to international quality certifications and sustainable fishing practices, which enhance the reputation of Indian seafood in global markets.
- Sustainable Practices: By promoting sustainable fishing and aquaculture methods, India aims to position itself as a responsible supplier, which is increasingly important to consumers and importers worldwide.
Innovation and Technology
- Utilizing Technology: The use of technology in processing, packaging, and logistics is another crucial aspect of enhancing the seafood export profile. Improved supply chain management ensures that products reach international markets in optimal condition.
- Value-Added Products: India is also focusing on producing value-added seafood products, which can attract premium prices and cater to diverse consumer preferences.
In summary, India's approach to enhancing its seafood export profile through market diversification, quality control, sustainable practices, and technological advancements is paving the way for a robust and resilient seafood export industry.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Finke River is considered the oldest river system in the world and flows approximately 600 kilometers from the MacDonnell Ranges to the Simpson Desert.
Statement-II:
The Finke River holds cultural significance for the Indigenous Arrernte people and features prominently in their "Dreaming" stories.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Understanding the Statements
The question presents two statements regarding the Finke River and its significance. Let's break down each statement to clarify their correctness.
Analysis of Statement-I
- The Finke River is indeed recognized as one of the oldest river systems in the world, with estimates suggesting it may have been flowing for over 300 million years.
- It flows approximately 600 kilometers from the MacDonnell Ranges to the Simpson Desert, accurately reflecting its geographical course.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Finke River holds substantial cultural significance for the Indigenous Arrernte people.
- It features prominently in their "Dreaming" stories, which are integral to their cultural identity and spiritual beliefs. These stories often explain the landscape's features and the connection of the people to the land.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct and provide complementary information about the Finke River.
- Statement-I establishes the river's geological significance, while Statement-II highlights its cultural importance.
Correct Answer Justification
- The answer is option 'A' because both statements are accurate, and Statement-II explains the cultural implications of Statement-I, thereby enriching the understanding of the Finke River's significance in both natural and cultural contexts.
In summary, the Finke River is not only an ancient river system but also a vital part of the Indigenous Arrernte people's heritage, making both statements true and interrelated.

Consider the following pairs regarding the geopolitical dynamics and strategic interests in Latin America:
1. Regime Seduction: A strategy aimed at engaging with existing power structures rather than pushing for regime change.
2. Venezuela's Geopolitical Significance: Primarily significant due to its large oil reserves alone.
3. India's Cautious Diplomacy: Reflects a high level of engagement and active economic investment in Latin America.
4. US-Venezuela Relations: The recent US intervention underlines a move towards cooperation with interim leaders in Venezuela.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Regime Seduction: Correctly matched. This strategy involves engaging with existing power structures, like the Maduro regime in Venezuela, rather than attempting to dismantle them. This reflects a shift in US strategy towards engaging rather than imposing regime change.
2. Venezuela's Geopolitical Significance: Incorrectly matched. While Venezuela’s large oil reserves contribute to its geopolitical significance, its importance is also due to the challenge it poses to US dominance and the influence of powers like China and Russia, not solely its oil reserves.
3. India's Cautious Diplomacy: Incorrectly matched. India’s cautious diplomacy in Latin America mirrors its limited stakes and engagement, rather than a high level of active investment or engagement.
4. US-Venezuela Relations: Correctly matched. The US intervention indicates a shift towards potentially cooperating with interim leaders in Venezuela, signaling a change in policy from confrontation to possible cooperation.
In summary, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements regarding the role and impact of the Supreme Court of India in environmental governance:
1. The Supreme Court has consistently relied on expert committees when issuing directives related to environmental protection, ensuring stability and predictability in policy implementation.
2. The Supreme Court has taken proactive actions in environmental governance due to perceived regulatory shortcomings, sometimes leading to governance challenges.
3. The Court's intervention in environmental matters has occasionally resulted in an unpredictable governance framework, potentially undermining institutional accountability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court's reliance on expert committees has not been consistent, which has led to rapid changes in recommendations and policy instability. The Court's interventions have sometimes been marked by inconsistency rather than stability and predictability.
- Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court has indeed taken proactive actions in environmental governance, often stepping in due to perceived regulatory shortcomings. This proactive approach aims to fill governance vacuums but also introduces challenges.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Court's intervention has at times created an unpredictable governance framework. This unpredictability can undermine institutional accountability and clarity, affecting the rule of law and creating governance challenges.
In conclusion, statements 2 and 3 accurately describe the Supreme Court's role and its impacts in environmental governance, aligning with the complexities and challenges of its interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Sports Authority of India (SAI) - Established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Dust Experiment (DEX) - Developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
3. Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in the Bargur Hills of Erode district
4. National Centres of Excellence (NCOE) - A scheme under Sports Authority of India (SAI)
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Sports Authority of India (SAI) - Established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Sports Authority of India (SAI) operates under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. Dust Experiment (DEX) - Developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO): This pair is incorrectly matched. While the Dust Experiment (DEX) was launched by ISRO, it was actually developed by the Physical Research Laboratory in Ahmedabad.
3. Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in the Bargur Hills of Erode district: This pair is correctly matched. The Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is indeed located in the Bargur Hills of Erode district, Tamil Nadu.
4. National Centres of Excellence (NCOE) - A scheme under Sports Authority of India (SAI): This pair is correctly matched. The National Centres of Excellence (NCOE) is a scheme under the Sports Authority of India (SAI) aimed at nurturing talented sportspersons.
The correctly matched pairs are 3 and 4. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

What is the key feature of the Suryastra Rocket Launcher System recently procured by the Indian Army?
  • a)
    It is the world's fastest rocket launcher system.
  • b)
    It is the first rocket launcher system with hypersonic capabilities.
  • c)
    It is India's first indigenous universal multi-caliber rocket launcher system.
  • d)
    It is designed to strike targets up to 500 kilometers away.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Suryastra Rocket Launcher System stands out as India's first indigenous universal multi-caliber rocket launcher system. This system, developed by NIBE Limited in collaboration with Elbit Systems from Israel, enhances India's defense capabilities with its advanced features, including the ability to engage multiple targets simultaneously at varying distances and achieve a high degree of accuracy with a circular error probable (CEP) of less than five meters during trials.

Consider the following pairs:
1. NATGRID: A system developed for enhancing counter-terrorism efforts in India.
2. Algorithmic Bias: The tendency of surveillance systems to reflect societal biases disproportionately affecting vulnerable groups.
3. Biomaterials: Materials derived entirely from petroleum sources intended for environmental sustainability.
4. Silver: Primarily mined independently, with its demand driven solely by industrial uses.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. NATGRID: Correctly matched. NATGRID was indeed developed as a centralized data infrastructure to enhance counter-terrorism efforts in India, especially after the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
2. Algorithmic Bias: Correctly matched. Algorithmic bias refers to the tendency of surveillance and other algorithm-based systems to reflect and sometimes amplify existing societal biases, disproportionately affecting vulnerable groups.
3. Biomaterials: Incorrectly matched. Biomaterials are materials that are either wholly or partially derived from biological sources or are created through biological processes, not petroleum sources. They are intended to replace or interact with traditional materials to promote environmental sustainability.
4. Silver: Incorrectly matched. Silver is predominantly mined as a byproduct of other metals like lead, zinc, and copper, rather than being mined independently. Its demand spans various sectors, including industrial applications, investment, and ornamental uses.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

What is the primary reason behind the US interest in Greenland, as highlighted in the text?
  • a)
    Economic opportunities
  • b)
    Historical significance
  • c)
    Strategic and resource-related reasons
  • d)
    Cultural exchange
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The US interest in Greenland primarily revolves around strategic and resource-related reasons. Greenland's strategic importance, particularly as a crucial military base during the Cold War, and its rich reserves of critical minerals essential for technology and defense systems make it an attractive prospect for the US. Control or influence over Greenland would enhance the US position in the Arctic security landscape, especially in the context of increasing military activities by nations like Russia and China in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Suryastra Rocket Launcher System:
1. The Suryastra Rocket Launcher System is capable of engaging surface targets with precision at a range of up to 300 kilometers.
2. It is the first indigenous universal multi-caliber rocket launcher system developed solely by NIBE Limited in Pune.
3. The system employs Elbit Systems' PULS technology, which includes a modern fire control system with GPS, inertial navigation, and digital ballistic computation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Suryastra Rocket Launcher System is designed to strike surface targets with precision at ranges of 150 and 300 kilometers. This demonstrates its long-range capability, which is a key feature of the system.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Suryastra is indeed India's first indigenous universal multi-caliber rocket launcher system, it was not developed solely by NIBE Limited. It was developed in collaboration with Elbit Systems from Israel, making this statement partially inaccurate.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Suryastra Rocket Launcher System utilizes Elbit Systems' PULS (Precise & Universal Launching System) technology. This technology includes a modern fire control system that incorporates GPS, inertial navigation, and digital ballistic computation, which are essential for its precision and effectiveness.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding India's space programme:
1. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and GSLV LVM-3 have transitioned from experimental missions to operational reliability over the past decade.
2. The absence of a comprehensive national space law in India leads to regulatory ambiguities and burdens the national space agency with responsibilities better suited for specialized bodies.
3. India's competitiveness in the global space sector is primarily reliant on technological innovation without significant need for investment in advanced manufacturing systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct: Over the past decade, India has indeed transitioned from conducting experimental missions to achieving operational reliability with the successful launches of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and GSLV LVM-3. This indicates a significant advancement in India's space capabilities, moving towards consistent and reliable space missions.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The absence of a comprehensive national space law in India has led to regulatory ambiguities. This situation imposes additional burdens on the national space agency, which is tasked with roles that might be better handled by specialized regulatory bodies. The lack of clear legislation creates challenges in governance and oversight within the space sector.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect: While technological innovation is crucial for competitiveness in the global space sector, significant investment in advanced manufacturing systems is also essential. The global space economy demands cost-efficiency and robust production capabilities, which require substantial investment in advanced manufacturing, not just reliance on technological innovation alone.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not.

What does the Phaltan case highlight regarding the criminal justice system in India?
  • a)
    Its flawless protection of victims
  • b)
    The success of legal reforms in safeguarding victims' dignity
  • c)
    The systemic failure in safeguarding women's dignity
  • d)
    The absence of societal biases in handling cases
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Phaltan case underscores a systemic failure in the Indian criminal justice system to safeguard women's dignity, despite progressive reforms. It accentuates the need for a shift in both legal practice and societal mindset to ensure better protection and support for victims.

Consider the following statements:
1. The United States has declared groups like Tren de Aragua and Cartel de los Soles as Foreign Terrorist Organizations (FTOs) due to their alleged involvement in narco-terrorism.
2. India has openly condemned the US military actions in Venezuela, citing violations of international law and sovereignty.
3. The US government claims that Venezuela is a crucial transit point for cocaine, contributing to the fentanyl crisis in the US.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Let's analyze each statement one by one:
1. Statement 1 is correct. The United States has indeed declared groups such as Tren de Aragua and Cartel de los Soles as Foreign Terrorist Organizations (FTOs), accusing them of involvement in narco-terrorism. These designations are part of the US government's justification for its actions against Nicolás Maduro and his regime.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has not openly condemned the US military actions in Venezuela. Instead, it finds itself in a diplomatic dilemma, balancing its stance on international law and sovereignty with its relations with the US. India remains cautious and has not taken a definitive public stance condemning the US actions.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The US government has alleged that Venezuela serves as a crucial transit point for cocaine, which exacerbates the fentanyl crisis in the US. This forms part of the narrative justifying the US's actions against the Venezuelan government.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only. This solution accurately reflects the information provided and aligns with the correct option.

Consider the following pairs regarding the National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) and the National Population Register (NPR):
1. NATGRID - Designed for real-time intelligence sharing for counter-terrorism and criminal investigations.
2. NPR - Serves as a preliminary step for the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
3. NATGRID - Initially restricted to state police officers of the rank of Superintendent or higher.
4. NPR - Updated during the 2027 Census.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. NATGRID - Designed for real-time intelligence sharing for counter-terrorism and criminal investigations.
This pair is correctly matched. NATGRID is indeed designed as a secure and integrated platform to assist law enforcement and security agencies in accessing various databases in real-time for purposes such as counter-terrorism and criminal investigations.
2. NPR - Serves as a preliminary step for the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
This pair is correctly matched. The NPR is intended to serve as the preliminary step for establishing a nationwide National Register of Citizens (NRC).
3. NATGRID - Initially restricted to state police officers of the rank of Superintendent or higher.
This pair is incorrectly matched. NATGRID was initially restricted to ten central agencies and later expanded to include Superintendent-rank officers of State police, which is not the initial restriction.
4. NPR - Updated during the 2027 Census.
This pair is incorrectly matched. As per the provided information, NPR data was last updated in 2015, and there are no plans to update this data during the upcoming Census in 2027.
Only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. Venezuela holds the largest proven oil reserves in the world, yet contributes less than 1% to global oil production.
2. The U.S. intervention in Venezuela's oil sector aims to significantly increase global oil supply in the short term.
3. India's oil companies stand to recover substantial pending dividends if U.S. sanctions on Venezuela are eased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct: Venezuela indeed has the largest proven oil reserves globally, estimated at over 300 billion barrels. However, it contributes less than 1% to global oil production due to various factors, including U.S. sanctions, prolonged economic crises, and underinvestment in its oil infrastructure.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the U.S. intervention aims to revitalize Venezuela's oil sector with significant investments, the process is expected to be lengthy. The infrastructure has suffered extensive damage, and experts warn that increasing global oil supply in the short term may not be feasible. Thus, the aim to significantly increase global oil supply in the short term is not accurate.
3. Statement 3 is correct: India's oil companies, such as ONGC Videsh, have investments in Venezuela. If U.S. sanctions are eased, these companies could benefit by recovering substantial pending dividends, potentially over $500 million, from their projects in Venezuela.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding India's seafood exports:
1. India is the largest producer of aquaculture products globally.
2. Shrimp constitutes the largest portion of India's seafood exports, particularly in frozen varieties.
3. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) is responsible for promoting exports and ensuring quality control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1: Incorrect. India is the second largest producer of aquaculture products globally, not the largest. This distinction is crucial in understanding India's position in the global aquaculture industry.
- Statement 2: Correct. Shrimp, particularly in frozen varieties, indeed constitutes the largest portion of India's seafood exports. This highlights the importance of shrimp in India's seafood export strategy and its significant contribution to export volumes and values.
- Statement 3: Correct. The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) plays a crucial role in promoting seafood exports and ensuring quality control. This governmental body is essential for maintaining the standards and facilitating the growth of India's seafood export industry.
Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, the correct answer is Option D.

What is the primary focus of Frédéric Sorrieu's vision of a world made up of democratic and Social Republics?
  • a)
    The rise of absolutist institutions in Europe and America
  • b)
    The emergence of the nation-state through nationalism in the 19th century
  • c)
    The symbolic representation of fraternity among different nations
  • d)
    The artistic portrayal of the Storming of Bastille in France
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Frédéric Sorrieu's vision of a world composed of democratic and Social Republics primarily aims to symbolize fraternity among different nations. This vision is depicted in his print where individuals from various nations are shown moving together, guided by symbols of liberty and enlightenment, with Christ, saints, and angels observing the scene. This representation underscores the artist's aspiration for unity, peace, and collaboration among nations.

What is the primary focus of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) in India?
  • a)
    Enhancing urban infrastructure
  • b)
    Promoting digital literacy
  • c)
    Ensuring universal access to toilets
  • d)
    Implementing agricultural reforms
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) in India primarily aims at ensuring universal access to toilets. This initiative has significantly transformed India's rural sanitation landscape by constructing over 12 crore household toilets, leading to every village in India achieving Open Defecation Free (ODF) status. The mission has played a crucial role in enhancing public health, improving living conditions, and reducing the disease burden, especially for women and vulnerable communities.
This question assesses the students' understanding of the primary objective of the Swachh Bharat Mission and its impact on rural sanitation in India.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) operates the Standards and Labelling Programme to promote energy efficiency in India by rating appliances on a scale of one to five stars.
Statement-II:
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India was established in 2009 under the NIA Act, 2008, and has the authority to investigate and prosecute cases related to terrorism and national security crimes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's Standards and Labelling Programme, which rates appliances on a scale of one to five stars based on their energy efficiency, empowering consumers to make informed choices and promoting energy-efficient technologies.
Statement-II accurately outlines the establishment and mandate of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India, established in 2009 under the NIA Act, 2008, with the authority to investigate and prosecute cases related to terrorism and national security crimes.
While both statements are factually correct in their respective contexts, they address different entities and programs without any explanatory relationship, making option (b) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) was proposed in 2009 following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks to eliminate information silos among security agencies.
Statement-II:
The National Population Register (NPR) serves as the preliminary step for establishing a nationwide National Register of Citizens (NRC).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I is correct because NATGRID was indeed proposed in 2009 after the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks to enhance information sharing among security agencies. Statement-II is also correct as the NPR does serve as the initial step for creating the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in India. The NPR collects demographic and family-related information, a fundamental requirement for establishing the NRC. Therefore, both statements are factually accurate, and Statement-II logically explains the need for the NPR in the larger context of the NRC establishment.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) - Reduces Water Usage and Methane Emissions
2. Methane Emissions - Lower Global Warming Potential than Carbon Dioxide
3. Circular Economy - Focuses on Waste Reduction and Resource Recovery
4. Traditional Rice Cultivation - Involves Continuous Flooding for Weed Suppression
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) - Reduces Water Usage and Methane Emissions: Correct. AWD is a rice cultivation technique that involves alternating between flooding and drying the fields, which reduces water usage and methane emissions compared to continuous flooding.
2. Methane Emissions - Lower Global Warming Potential than Carbon Dioxide: Incorrect. Methane emissions have a higher global warming potential than carbon dioxide. Methane is about 28 times more potent than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period.
3. Circular Economy - Focuses on Waste Reduction and Resource Recovery: Correct. The circular economy model emphasizes reducing waste and recovering resources, turning waste into a resource, which aligns with sustainable practices and climate commitments.
4. Traditional Rice Cultivation - Involves Continuous Flooding for Weed Suppression: Correct. Traditional rice cultivation typically involves keeping the fields continuously flooded to suppress weeds, which also creates conditions for higher methane emissions.
The three correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4. Therefore, Option C: Only three pairs is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) has primarily focused on toilet construction in rural areas to achieve Open Defecation Free (ODF) status.
Statement-II:
Urban-rural partnerships are crucial for sustainable sanitation solutions, including faecal waste management and decentralized infrastructure.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I is correct as the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) did indeed focus significantly on toilet construction in rural areas to achieve Open Defecation Free (ODF) status. This initiative aimed to provide universal access to toilets and improve sanitation conditions in rural India.
Statement-II is also correct as urban-rural partnerships play a crucial role in implementing sustainable sanitation solutions. Collaborations between urban and rural areas can lead to innovative approaches for faecal waste management, decentralized infrastructure, and the sharing of resources and expertise.
Furthermore, Statement-II explains Statement-I because without effective urban-rural partnerships, the objective of achieving ODF status through toilet construction alone would not suffice for long-term sanitation success. Sustainable solutions like faecal waste management and decentralized infrastructure are essential components that urban-rural partnerships can help address.

What is the core message conveyed by the Somnath temple's endurance over a millennium?
  • a)
    Triumph of faith over adversity
  • b)
    Architectural superiority
  • c)
    Economic prosperity
  • d)
    Political dominance
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The enduring legacy of the Somnath temple symbolizes the triumph of faith over adversity. Despite facing destruction and multiple reconstructions over the centuries, the temple's resilience reflects the unyielding spirit of Indian civilization and the victory of faith over challenges.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Real GDP Growth for 2025-26: 7.4%
2. Nominal GDP Growth for 2025-26: 10%
3. Somnath Temple Location: Prabhas Patan, Gujarat
4. Main Cause of AMR: Microorganisms developing resistance to antibiotics due to misuse
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Real GDP Growth for 2025-26: 7.4% - This is correctly matched. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) projected a real GDP growth of 7.4% for 2025-26.
2. Nominal GDP Growth for 2025-26: 10% - This is incorrectly matched. The projected nominal GDP growth for 2025-26 is 8%, which is the lowest in five years excluding the pandemic year.
3. Somnath Temple Location: Prabhas Patan, Gujarat - This is correctly matched. The Somnath Temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, is indeed located in Prabhas Patan, Gujarat.
4. Main Cause of AMR: Microorganisms developing resistance to antibiotics due to misuse - This is correctly matched. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) is primarily caused by the misuse and overuse of antibiotics, leading microorganisms to develop resistance.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs related to the recent events and topics discussed:
1. Phaltan Case: Highlights systemic failures in protecting women’s dignity through legal inadequacies and societal biases.
2. UNFCCC: The United States remains committed to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, enhancing global cooperation.
3. International Solar Alliance (ISA): The US fully supports and funds the ISA's initiatives on renewable energy.
4. Judicial Interpretation: The Supreme Court of India maintains that a woman’s prior sexual history does not affect her credibility as a witness.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Phaltan Case: Correctly matched. The Phaltan case does indeed highlight systemic failures in protecting women's dignity due to inadequacies in the criminal justice system and societal biases. It underscores the need for both legal reform and a cultural shift toward dignity and empathy for victims.
2. UNFCCC: Incorrectly matched. The United States has declared its withdrawal from the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change under the Trump administration, indicating disengagement rather than commitment to global climate cooperation.
3. International Solar Alliance (ISA): Incorrectly matched. While the US joined the ISA in 2021, it did not fully support or fund the ISA's initiatives. There were concerns about future funding and engagement from the US side.
4. Judicial Interpretation: Correctly matched. The Supreme Court of India has emphasized that a woman's prior sexual history should not be used to undermine her credibility as a witness, aligning with the principles of protecting victim dignity.
Thus, two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1 and 4.

Consider the following pairs:
1. National Culture Fund (NCF) - Established in 1996
2. SHINE Scheme - Focuses on empowering women in heritage management
3. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) - Oversees conservation work under PPP model
4. International Solar Alliance (ISA) - Partnership between India and France
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. National Culture Fund (NCF) - Established in 1996 Correct. The National Culture Fund was indeed established in 1996 to facilitate the conservation of India's cultural heritage by engaging public-private partnerships.
2. SHINE Scheme - Focuses on empowering women in heritage management Incorrect. The SHINE Scheme aims to empower women by enhancing their knowledge of safety, quality standards, and consumer protection, not directly focused on heritage management.
3. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) - Oversees conservation work under PPP model Correct. The ASI retains oversight of conservation work, even as the government shifts towards involving private sector participation through a Public-Private Partnership model.
4. International Solar Alliance (ISA) - Partnership between India and France Correct. The International Solar Alliance is indeed a partnership initiated by India and France to promote solar energy use globally.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The recent actions taken by the United States against Venezuela violate international legal norms, including the prohibition on the use of force as established in Article 2(4) of the UN Charter.
Statement-II:
The right to disconnect in an 'always-on' economy can help restore work-life balance and improve overall productivity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly highlights the violation of international legal norms by the United States in its actions against Venezuela, including the breach of the prohibition on the use of force as per Article 2(4) of the UN Charter. On the other hand, Statement-II discusses the potential benefits of implementing a 'right to disconnect' in an 'always-on' economy, emphasizing the restoration of work-life balance and enhanced productivity. While both statements are factually correct based on the provided information, they address distinct topics and do not have a direct explanatory relationship, leading to the conclusion that option (b) is the correct answer.

Which mission achieved India’s first-ever soft landing near the lunar south pole?
  • a)
    Chandrayaan-1
  • b)
    Chandrayaan-2
  • c)
    Chandrayaan-3
  • d)
    Gaganyaan
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Chandrayaan-3 successfully achieved the first-ever soft landing near the Moon’s south pole, marking a historic milestone for India’s space programme

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Global Security Initiative (GSI) aims to promote peace through dialogue and consultation, respecting sovereign development paths.
Statement-II:
The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) focuses on climate justice, affordable energy access, and sustainable development for developing countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes the aim of the Global Security Initiative (GSI) put forward by China, which indeed seeks to promote peace through dialogue and consultation while respecting sovereign development paths. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly attributes the focus of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) to climate justice, affordable energy access, and sustainable development for developing countries. The CDRI actually emphasizes promoting resilient infrastructure to protect livelihoods and reduce disaster risks, especially in vulnerable regions. Therefore, Statement-I is correct in its description, while Statement-II is inaccurate in its representation of the CDRI's objectives.

Consider the following statements:
1. The 84th Constitutional Amendment froze the redistribution of Lok Sabha seats until after the first Census post-2026 to reward states for effective family planning.
2. The mixed formula for Lok Sabha allocation proposes to allocate 50% of seats based on population and 50% based on population-control performance, similar to the EU's degressive proportionality model.
3. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) CAT IIIB allows aircraft to land with visibility as low as 50 metres, which is crucial for safe operations during fog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The 84th Constitutional Amendment indeed froze the redistribution of Lok Sabha seats until after the first Census after 2026. This was a move intended to reward states that had implemented effective family planning measures, thereby controlling their population growth.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mixed formula proposed for Lok Sabha allocation suggests allocating 60% of seats based on population and 40% based on population-control performance, inspired by the EU's degressive proportionality model, not a 50-50 split.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) CAT IIIB is a critical technology that allows aircraft to land in conditions where visibility is as low as 50 metres. This capability is essential for maintaining safe operations at airports during dense fog conditions, particularly in northern India.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. India’s trade deficit with its FTA partners increased by over 50% in the period from April to June last year compared to the previous year.
2. The NITI Aayog report highlights a shift in India’s export strategy towards electronics, which grew by 47% year-on-year.
3. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) was originally enacted to specifically address terrorism-related activities in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. According to the provided details, India's trade deficit with its FTA partners increased by 59.2% from April to June last year compared to the previous year. This aligns with the statement that mentions the deficit increased by over 50%.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The NITI Aayog report indeed highlights a structural shift towards electronics exports, which grew significantly by 47% year-on-year. This indicates a strategic move towards sunrise sectors to enhance export diversity and integration into global value chains.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) was not originally enacted to address terrorism. It was enacted in 1967 to combat "unlawful activities" threatening India's sovereignty, with a focus on national integration rather than terrorism. The focus on terrorism was integrated later through amendments, notably after the repeal of POTA in 2004.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only. Statement 3 does not accurately reflect the original intent of the UAPA, thereby making only statements 1 and 2 correct.

Why is the Shaksgam Valley strategically significant for India?
  • a)
    Due to its location near the Thar Desert
  • b)
    Due to its proximity to the Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass
  • c)
    Due to its connection to the Ganges River
  • d)
    Due to its dense forest cover
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The Shaksgam Valley holds strategic importance for India primarily because of its proximity to the Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass. These locations are crucial for India's military operations and monitoring activities on two fronts - against Pakistan along the Line of Control (LoC) and against China along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). India's security concerns are heightened by China's construction activities in the region, raising alarms about potential security challenges.
(Note: This question tests the understanding of the strategic significance of the Shaksgam Valley for India in the context of military operations and security concerns.)

Consider the following statements:
1. Forever chemicals are known for their high persistence and toxicity because they contain chains of carbon and fluorine atoms with exceptionally strong bonds.
2. PFAS are primarily found in natural environments and are not used in consumer products due to their hazardous nature.
3. The Stockholm Convention classifies some PFAS as persistent organic pollutants, highlighting the need for regulatory action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Forever chemicals are known for their high persistence and toxicity because they contain chains of carbon and fluorine atoms with exceptionally strong bonds. This statement is correct. The durability and persistence of forever chemicals, specifically PFAS, are largely due to the carbon-fluorine bond, which is one of the strongest in chemistry. This makes them resistant to degradation.
2. PFAS are primarily found in natural environments and are not used in consumer products due to their hazardous nature. This statement is incorrect. PFAS are widely used in various consumer products due to their water-repellent and non-stick properties, despite their hazardous nature. They are found in products such as cosmetics, firefighting foams, and food packaging.
3. The Stockholm Convention classifies some PFAS as persistent organic pollutants, highlighting the need for regulatory action. This statement is correct. The Stockholm Convention has indeed classified some PFAS, such as PFOS and PFOA, as persistent organic pollutants, which underscores the need for regulatory measures to control these substances due to their persistence and potential harm to the environment and human health.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is the primary objective of the Draft IT (Digital Code) Rules, 2026 proposed by the Union government in India?
  • a)
    Regulating online content for political bias
  • b)
    Implementing mandatory age-based classification for digital content
  • c)
    Banning the use of social media platforms
  • d)
    Promoting unrestricted access to digital content
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary objective of the Draft IT (Digital Code) Rules, 2026 is to implement mandatory age-based classification for all digital content. This initiative aims to regulate obscenity online and ensure that digital content is categorized based on age suitability, providing clear age ratings and content descriptors. By doing so, the rules aim to address concerns related to protecting children and maintaining public decency in the rapidly expanding digital ecosystem of India.

Consider the following pairs related to the National Pension System (NPS):
1. Dr. M. S. Sahoo - Chairperson of the High-Level Committee for Assured Payouts
2. Assured Payout Framework - Draft regulations for unstructured pension payouts
3. Market-Based Assurance - Includes legally enforceable guarantees for payouts
4. Consumer Protection - Establishes a standardized disclosure framework
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


1. Dr. M. S. Sahoo - Chairperson of the High-Level Committee for Assured Payouts: Correct. Dr. M. S. Sahoo is indeed the chairperson of the high-level committee set up by PFRDA to develop guidelines for assured pension payouts under the NPS.
2. Assured Payout Framework - Draft regulations for unstructured pension payouts: Incorrect. The Assured Payout Framework is tasked with drafting regulations for structured and assured pension payouts, not unstructured.
3. Market-Based Assurance - Includes legally enforceable guarantees for payouts: Correct. The committee is tasked with exploring innovative settlement mechanisms, including legally enforceable guarantees for assured payouts.
4. Consumer Protection - Establishes a standardized disclosure framework: Correct. The initiative aims to establish a standardized disclosure framework to prevent mis-selling and manage subscriber expectations, enhancing consumer protection.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

What is the main focus of the Responsible Nations Index (RNI) recently launched by India?
  • a)
    Evaluating countries based on military strength
  • b)
    Assessing countries based on GDP performance
  • c)
    Promoting ethics and responsible governance in the international arena
  • d)
    Ranking countries based on population growth
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) launched by India primarily aims to promote ethics, responsibility, and sustainability in global governance. Unlike traditional metrics that emphasize military strength or GDP, the RNI focuses on evaluating countries based on their responsible governance and ethical conduct in the international arena. This index seeks to encourage dialogue on critical global issues such as food security, environmental stewardship, and responsible leadership in international relations.

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