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All questions of Mock Test: Reading Comprehension for GMAT Exam

In the 1950s, reading was taught to young children primarily through the use of simple primers depicting the middle-class non-adventures of “Dick and Jane.” Rudolph Fletch’s bestselling 1955 book Why Johnny Can’t Read attacked these primers, calling them “horrible, stupid, insipid, … tasteless little readers” and asserting that such boring stories gave no incentive for children to read on their own and learn to “sound out” each word phonetically.
Fletch also bemoaned the fact that there was not a single book in bookstores that first and second graders could read by themselves.
In response, a publisher commissioned Theodore Geisel, who wrote children’s books under the pen name “Dr.
Seuss,” to write a book that “a first grader can’t put down.” Geisel was given a list of a few hundred words considered important and asked to make a book out of them. Nine months later, Geisel, using only 220 different words, delivered The Cat in the Hat, a whimsical story about two bored children left at home with their talking fish who are suddenly visited by a havoc-creating six-foot-tall talking cat. In addition, Geisel wrote the entire book in a rhyming verse, making it fun to read aloud. The Cat in the Hat was a tremendous success and vaulted Geisel into instant celebrity. Another publisher bet Geisel that he could not write an entire book using only 50 different words. Geisel won the bet by publishing the classic Green Eggs and Ham.
The Dr. Seuss books revolutionized the children’s book industry by proving that it was possible to create engaging books with a limited vocabulary. Geisel has been credited with killing off “Dick and Jane,” replacing them with clever rhymes, plot twists and rebellious heroes who do the unexpected. Now one in four American children receives a Dr. Seuss title as his or her first book.
Q.
The author provides a brief synopsis of the plot of The Cat in the Hat primarily in order to
  • a)
    introduce the reader to the various characters in the book
  • b)
    contrast the story of The Cat in the Hat with those of the “boring” primers of the era
  • c)
    demonstrate how bizarre the plot of the book is
  • d)
    assert that talking cats and fish exist
  • e)
    warn parents that leaving children home alone can be dangerous
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Synopsis of The Cat in the Hat
The author provides a brief synopsis of the plot of The Cat in the Hat primarily to:
Contrast the Story with Boring Primers
- The mention of The Cat in the Hat serves as a direct contrast to the traditional primers like "Dick and Jane."
- The author highlights the engaging and whimsical nature of Geisel's story, emphasizing its departure from the insipid tales of the past.
- By describing the chaotic visit of the talking cat, the author illustrates how Geisel's work captivates children's imaginations, unlike the mundane scenarios presented in older readers.
Highlighting the Success of Geisel's Approach
- The synopsis underscores Geisel's ability to create a captivating narrative using a limited vocabulary.
- It showcases the innovation in children's literature that Geisel brought about, changing how reading was approached in classrooms.
Engagement Through Characters and Plot
- The vivid characters, such as the mischievous cat and the talking fish, are introduced to demonstrate the fun and excitement that can arise from reading.
- The chaotic situations and rhyming verses invite children to engage with the text, promoting a love for reading that previous primers failed to inspire.
Conclusion
- Overall, the synopsis serves to highlight the stark difference between Geisel's creative storytelling and the dullness of prior educational materials, reinforcing the impact of The Cat in the Hat on children's literature.

In the 1950s, reading was taught to young children primarily through the use of simple primers depicting the middle-class non-adventures of “Dick and Jane.” Rudolph Fletch’s bestselling 1955 book Why Johnny Can’t Read attacked these primers, calling them “horrible, stupid, insipid, … tasteless little readers” and asserting that such boring stories gave no incentive for children to read on their own and learn to “sound out” each word phonetically.
Fletch also bemoaned the fact that there was not a single book in bookstores that first and second graders could read by themselves.
In response, a publisher commissioned Theodore Geisel, who wrote children’s books under the pen name “Dr.
Seuss,” to write a book that “a first grader can’t put down.” Geisel was given a list of a few hundred words considered important and asked to make a book out of them. Nine months later, Geisel, using only 220 different words, delivered The Cat in the Hat, a whimsical story about two bored children left at home with their talking fish who are suddenly visited by a havoc-creating six-foot-tall talking cat. In addition, Geisel wrote the entire book in a rhyming verse, making it fun to read aloud. The Cat in the Hat was a tremendous success and vaulted Geisel into instant celebrity. Another publisher bet Geisel that he could not write an entire book using only 50 different words. Geisel won the bet by publishing the classic Green Eggs and Ham.
The Dr. Seuss books revolutionized the children’s book industry by proving that it was possible to create engaging books with a limited vocabulary. Geisel has been credited with killing off “Dick and Jane,” replacing them with clever rhymes, plot twists and rebellious heroes who do the unexpected. Now one in four American children receives a Dr. Seuss title as his or her first book.
Q.
The main function of the first paragraph is
  • a)
    to introduce Fletch’s approach to writing children’s books
  • b)
    to describe the “Dick and Jane” primers used in most school
  • c)
    to advocate the increase of children’s books in bookstores
  • d)
    to establish the premise that the status quo in the early 1950s was not satisfactory for teaching children how to read
  • e)
    to praise Fletch’s 1955 book Why Johnny Can’t Read
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandita Yadav answered
In order to determine the main function of the first paragraph, it is helpful to analyze how this paragraph contributes to the entire article. The conclusion and main idea of the passage is that the Dr. Seuss books “revolutionized the children’s book industry”; i.e., they were a significant force of change. The first paragraph sets the stage for that conclusion by establishing the status quo of the early 1950s prior to that change. Be careful: an answer that is merely mentioned in the first paragraph, but does not describe the overall purpose of the paragraph does not qualify as its “main” or primary function. 
(A) The paragraph only describes Fletch’s criticism of the reading primers. It does not describe Fletch’s approach to writing children’s books.
(B) While the paragraph quotes Fletch’s strongly worded description of the “Dick and Jane” primers, this description is not the main or primary function of the paragraph; the description serves to support the more general criticism of the unsatisfactory state of children’s reading education in the early 1950s.
(C) While Fletch’s displeasure with the availability of first- and second-grade level books is mentioned, the paragraph does not directly advocate an increase in children’s books in bookstores. (D) CORRECT. The paragraph starts off by describing the preferred method of teaching reading in the 1950s, and then continues with some strong criticism of this method and the lack of available books in bookstores. By doing so, the author implies that the status quo was not satisfactory and sets the stage for the subsequent events which “revolutionized” the children's book industry. 
(E) While most of the paragraph describes Fletch’s point of view regarding the existing primers and lack of appropriate books in bookstores, the main purpose of the paragraph is not to praise Fletch; his opinions are used to support the overall premise that the status quo at the time was non-satisfactory. 

Antibiotics are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The success of antibiotics against disease-causing bacteria is one of modern medicine’s great achievements. However, many bacteria harmful to humans have developed ways to circumvent the effects of antibiotics, and many infectious diseases are now much more difficult to treat than they were just a few decades ago. Antibiotic resistance is an especially difficult problem for hospitals with critically ill patients who are less able to fight off infections without the help of antibiotics.
Bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance because they have the ability to adapt quickly to new environmental conditions. Most commonly, bacteria share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids; these shared plasmids, which contain the genetic code enabling antibiotic resistance, can spread throughout a bacterial population to create a strain of resistant bacteria. Less commonly, a natural mutation that enables antibiotic resistance takes place within the chromosome of the bacteria, and the resulting strain of bacteria can reproduce and become dominant via natural selection. In the absence of human involvement, however, bacteria in the wild rarely develop resistance to antibiotics.
In the United States, animals raised on industrial-scale factory farms are routinely administered low levels of antibiotics in their feed not as a cure for ongoing maladies, but primarily as a growth-enhancing agent to produce more meat and also as a prophylactic measure to compensate for overcrowded and unsanitary conditions.
Currently, several antibiotics that are used in human medical treatment are administered non-therapeutically to healthy livestock and poultry. Examples include tetracycline, penicillin and erythromycin. This long-term non-therapeutic feeding of antibiotics to animals creates the ideal conditions for the development of antibioticresistant bacteria, as it kills the susceptible bacteria while leaving the resistant strains to reproduce and flourish.
Europe is far ahead of the United States in the responsible use of antibiotics: On January 1, 2006, the European Union banned the feeding of all antibiotics to livestock for nontherapeutic purposes. This sweeping policy follows a 1998 ban on the non-therapeutic use of four medically-important antibiotics on animals. The time has come for the United States to follow Europe’s lead.
Q.
The passage is primarily concerned with
  • a)
    advocating the banning of a practice
  • b)
    explaining the mechanism of a process
  • c)
    explaining the practices of a particular industry
  • d)
    describing the history of a phenomenon
  • e)
    weighing the costs versus the benefits of a practice
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditya Sharma answered
Advocating the Banning of a Practice



Introduction: The passage discusses the issue of antibiotic resistance, particularly in the context of the non-therapeutic use of antibiotics in livestock.

Explanation:
- The passage highlights how the overuse of antibiotics in animals raised on factory farms contributes to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
- It emphasizes the difference in approach between the United States and Europe, with Europe having implemented bans on non-therapeutic antibiotic use in livestock.
- The passage argues for the United States to follow Europe's lead in banning the non-therapeutic use of antibiotics in livestock to combat antibiotic resistance.

Conclusion: The primary focus of the passage is to advocate for a change in practices regarding the use of antibiotics in animal agriculture, with the aim of addressing the growing issue of antibiotic resistance.

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about African American slaves in the late 1700s?
  • a)
    They could not own land without consent of local white landowners.
  • b)
    They were barred from practicing certain trades.
  • c)
    They could buy their freedom from their owners.
  • d)
    They sometimes had children with white women even while enslaved.
  • e)
    There were none in colonial New York or New Jersey
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Khanna answered
The eighteenth century is mentioned in the second paragraph, primarily to discuss the fact that “white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.” What this paragraph suggests about African American slaves at that time will be the correct answer. 
(A) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans, not whether they were permitted to own land. (B) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans, not what trades they were or were not allowed to practice.
(C) In the first paragraph, the passage states that in the 1600s, “some of these first African slaves became free, either through escape or through emancipation.” The passage did not discuss how slaves could become free in the late 1700s, or whether they could buy their freedom from their owners. In fact, the last sentence in the second paragraph states that “slaves could not be freed without legislative approval,” so even if slaves could buy freedom, additional legislative approval would have been required. 
(D) CORRECT. The end of the second paragraph states that "it is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations." This implies that the African American men were not free when they fathered children with these white women.
(E) The statement that there were no African American slaves in colonial New York or New Jersey is too extreme; it cannot be supported by the passage. In the third paragraph, the passage discusses free African Americans in New York and New Jersey, but we cannot say with certainty that there were no enslaved African Americans in these states in the late 1700s. 

The golden toad of Costa Rica, whose beauty and rarity inspired an unusual degree of human interest from a public generally unconcerned about amphibians, may have been driven to extinction by human activity nevertheless. In the United States, a public relations campaign featuring the toad raised money to purchase and protect the toad’s habitat in Costa Rica, establishing the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve in 1972. Although this action seemed to secure the toad’s future, it is now apparent that setting aside habitat was not enough to save this beautiful creature. The toad’s demise in the late 1980s was a harbinger of further species extinction in Costa Rica. Since that time, another twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads known to once inhabit a 30 square kilometer area near Monteverde have disappeared.
The unexplained, relatively sudden disappearance of amphibians in Costa Rica is not a unique story. Populations of frogs, toads, and salamanders have declined or disappeared the world over. Scientists hypothesize that the more subtle effects of human activities on the world’s ecosystems, such as the build-up of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather patterns due to global warming, are beginning to take their toll. Perhaps amphibians - whose permeable skin makes them sensitive to environmental changes - are the “canary in the coal mine,” giving us early notification of the deterioration of our environment. If amphibians are the biological harbingers of environmental problems, humans would be wise to heed their warning.
Q. 
It can be inferred from the passage that
  • a)
    only thirty species of frogs and toads remain in Costa Rica
  • b)
    humans do not have permeable skin
  • c)
    the build-up of pollutants in the atmosphere causes a decrease in atmospheric ozone
  • d)
    humans do not usually take signals of environmental deterioration seriously
  • e)
    Costa Rica suffers from more serious environmental problems than many other countries
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Moumita Sen answered
The correct answer to an inference question on the GMAT must be supported by evidence from the text without need for external information.
(A) The passage states that twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads known to once inhabit a 30-square-kilometer area near Monteverde have disappeared. Nothing is implied about the areas of Costa Rica farther from Monteverde.
(B) CORRECT. The passage suggests that amphibians are able to offer humans early notification of the deterioration of the environment because of the amphibians’ permeable skin. Thus, permeable skin must be a characteristic that humans do not possess.  
(C) No causal relationship between the build-up of pollutants in the atmosphere and a decrease in atmospheric ozone is suggested in the passage.
(D) The author states that humans would be wise to heed the warning offered by the decline of amphibious populations, but nothing suggests that humans normally do not take signals of environmental deterioration seriously.
(E) The passage does not compare Costa Rica’s environmental problems to those of other countries. 

Film scholars agree that Hollywood portrayals of America at war follow a cyclical pattern. During and immediately after a conflict, important films trumpet glory and sacrifice. Ten to fifteen years later, questioning and sometimes pacifistic movies about the conflict dominate. In the late 1960’s, “the raging bulls” of Hollywood—the young trendsetters rising to prominence—proclaimed this pattern obsolete. However, the passage of time has demonstrated this cultural pattern to be more resilient than it seemed in those days of social change.
Throughout the majority of the last century, evidence of the cyclical portrayal of war in film abounds. After America declared war against Germany during World War I, the still infant film industry glorified the fight against “the Hun.” By the early 1930’s, major releases had changed their tone; for example, All Quiet on the Western Front put forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of combat. After World War II began, the industry shifted gears. Suddenly, important pictures again portrayed glories and courage without the questioning or despair. For example, Guadalcanal Diary, produced during the war, showed “the ultimate sacrifice” as a noble and undoubted good. Once again, though, by 1957, films such as The Bridge on the River Kwai won awards for depicting the moral confusion of war.
Those who later declared this pattern dead based their conviction on their hearts rather than their minds. During the Vietnam War, the only major film about that conflict was The Green Berets, starring John Wayne and far closer in tone to Guadalcanal Diary than to The Bridge on the River Kwai. Similarly, years went by before more complex visions of war, such as Apocalypse Now, and then Platoon, emerged.
While today’s film industry is more diverse and its audience more culturally fragmented, this cycle largely continues. Jarhead, a layered depiction of the first gulf war, premiered more than ten years after that conflict. Further evidence of this pattern can be seen in the release of Apocalypse Now Redux, which contained additional footage that the producers originally thought would repel audiences. Thus, the famous aphorism “The more things change, the more they stay the same” certainly applies to this aspect of the film industry.
Q.
According to the passage, Apocalypse Now Redux  differed from Apocalypse Now in which of the following ways?
  • a)
    The added footage made it less appealing to a moreculturally diverse audience.
  • b)
    The added footage made its portrayal of war lessglorified and more ambiguous.
  • c)
    The added footage made its portrayal of war lessharsh and more glorified.
  • d)
    The added footage made it more similar in tone toother war movies.
  • e)
    The removed footage made its portrayal of war lessglorified and less appealing.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Sharma answered
Explanation:

Apocalypse Now Redux vs. Apocalypse Now
- Added Footage: Apocalypse Now Redux differed from Apocalypse Now in that it included additional footage.
- Portrayal of War: The added footage in Apocalypse Now Redux made its portrayal of war less glorified and more ambiguous.
- Tone: The additional footage added complexity to the film's depiction of war, moving away from a straightforward glorification of combat.
- Audience Appeal: Contrary to the producers' initial concerns that the added footage would repel audiences, it actually enhanced the film's depth and resonated with viewers seeking a more nuanced exploration of war.
- Overall Impact: This change in portrayal, brought about by the added footage, set Apocalypse Now Redux apart from its predecessor by offering a more layered and thought-provoking examination of the subject matter.

The golden toad of Costa Rica, whose beauty and rarity inspired an unusual degree of human interest from a public generally unconcerned about amphibians, may have been driven to extinction by human activity nevertheless. In the United States, a public relations campaign featuring the toad raised money to purchase and protect the toad’s habitat in Costa Rica, establishing the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve in 1972. Although this action seemed to secure the toad’s future, it is now apparent that setting aside habitat was not enough to save this beautiful creature. The toad’s demise in the late 1980s was a harbinger of further species extinction in Costa Rica. Since that time, another twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads known to once inhabit a 30 square kilometer area near Monteverde have disappeared.
The unexplained, relatively sudden disappearance of amphibians in Costa Rica is not a unique story. Populations of frogs, toads, and salamanders have declined or disappeared the world over. Scientists hypothesize that the more subtle effects of human activities on the world’s ecosystems, such as the build-up of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather patterns due to global warming, are beginning to take their toll. Perhaps amphibians - whose permeable skin makes them sensitive to environmental changes - are the “canary in the coal mine,” giving us early notification of the deterioration of our environment. If amphibians are the biological harbingers of environmental problems, humans would be wise to heed their warning.
Q. 
The passage implies that
  • a)
    many amphibians are not considered beautiful.
  • b)
    the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve was not large enough to protect the golden toad.
  • c)
    only Costa Rican amphibians living near Monteverde have disappeared since the 1980s.
  • d)
    amphibians sometimes live in coal mines.
  • e)
    no humans yet consider the decline of amphibious populations an indication of a threat to human populations.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

This question is really just a disguised inference question. The correct answer to an inference question must be directly supported by evidence from the text. 
(A) CORRECT. The first sentence of the passage states that the beauty of Costa Rica’s golden toad was one factor that generated interest from a public normally unconcerned with amphibians. Thus, many amphibians must not be considered beautiful.
(B) The passage indicates that habitat preservation in isolation - no matter the size of the habitat - was not enough to save the golden toad. Instead, scientists theorize that broader ecological issues are harming the world’s amphibious populations
(C) The second paragraph tells us that amphibian populations have been declining around the world. 
(D) This is a misinterpretation of the analogy used in the second paragraph. The author is implying that amphibians may provide humans an early warning for detrimental changes to the environment, just as canaries provide humans an indication of detrimental conditions in coal mines.
(E) The final sentence of the passage indicates that humans would be wise to recognize the potential environmental deterioration signified by declining amphibious population, but it is too extreme to infer that no humans consider this decline a threat to humans. In fact, the author of the passage seems to consider it a threat!

In the past decade, rapid technological progress and a greater demand for high-quality digital imaging have led to dramatic advances in video display technology. The dominant technology currently used in most consumer product displays is the active matrix liquid crystal diode display (LCD).
LCDs apply thin-film transistors (TFTs) of amorphous or polycrystalline silicon sandwiched between two glass plates. The TFTs supply voltage to liquid-crystal-filled cells, or pixels, between the sheets of glass. When hit with an electric charge, the liquid crystals untwist to an exact degree to filter white light generated by a lamp. This filtered light shines directly on the viewing screen or, in the case of projection televisions, is projected through a small chip that acts as a lens. LCDs that are capable of producing color images, such as in televisions and computers, reproduce colors through a process of subtraction, blocking out particular color wavelengths from the spectrum of white light until only the desired color remains. It is the variation of the intensity of light permitted to pass through the matrix of liquid crystals that enables LCD displays to present images full of gradations of different colors.
The nature and functioning of LCD displays present many advantages relative to other display technologies. The amount of power required to untwist the crystals to display images, even dark ones, is much lower than that required for analogous processes using other technologies, such as plasma. The dense array of crystals displays images from computer or other video graphics sources extremely well, with full color detail, no flicker, and no screen burnin. Moreover, the number of pixels per square inch on an LCD display is typically higher than that for other display technologies, so LCD monitors are particularly good at displaying large amounts of data with exceptional clarity and precision. As a result, LCD TVs are considered the best display platform for video games, high definition television, movie special effects, and other graphicsintensive uses.
Q.
The tone of the passage could best be described as
  • a)
    supportive advocacy
  • b)
    historical discussion
  • c)
    Objective explanation
  • d)
    intellectual exploration
  • e)
    qualified support
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Malik answered
This is a general question that asks about the tone of the passage. In order to answer this question, it is useful to briefly examine and summarize the respective paragraphs.  
Paragraph 1: LCDs have become the dominant display technology in the past decade.
Paragraph 2: LCDs function by channeling electricity to untwist crystals to block light in order to form colors.
Paragraph 3: LCDs present advantages relative to other display technologies, particularly for certain uses.  
The correct answer will effectively identify the tone adopted in these paragraphs.
(A) It is too strong to categorize the author's tone as "advocacy," as the first two paragraphs are purely explanatory. The third paragraph, though listing advantages of LCD displays, does not advocate their use.
(B) Although the first paragraph does mention the time frame and context of the development of LCD displays, neither the second nor third paragraph could be classified as part of a historical discussion, and no contrast is drawn. Thus, it would be inaccurate to characterize the tone of the passage as that of a historical discussion.  
(C) CORRECT. The passage objectively explains the background, functioning, and advantages of LCD displays. 
(D) The passage does not indicate any questioning, skepticism, or exploration in its text, and is more technical than intellectual in tone.
(E) Although one could argue that the passage implicitly approves of the development of this new technology, the passage does not advocate for a particular point of view, and there is no evidence of any qualification in its explanation of the functioning and advantages of LCD displays. 

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
  • a)
    Although American football was derived from the English sports of soccer and rugby, it should be called a purely American sport because it was first played in America.
  • b)
    Because American football was derived from the English sports of soccer and rugby, it should not be called an American sport.
  • c)
    Most sports scholars deny the English origins of American football.
  • d)
    What makes American football essentially American is that it was derived from the convergence of English soccer and rugby.
  • e)
    Because the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots, American football should not be called an American sport.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Dey answered
This is a general question. In order to determine with which statement the author would be most likely to agree, we must determine the author’s main point in writing the passage. A breakdown of the purpose of each paragraph will help. The first paragraph highlights two differing views concerning the roots of jazz music, the second paragraph discusses the diverse origins of jazz, and the third paragraph states the author’s view concerning the origins of jazz: namely, that jazz is truly American because it is rooted in the confluence of West African and European music. More generally, the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots,” or that to be American is to have a diverse background.
(A) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form, but not because it was first played in America.  Furthermore, the author believes that because of its origins in Europe and West Africa, not despite these origins. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins, not despite these origins.
(B) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form because of its origins in Europe and West Africa. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins.  Thus, this choice is backward. (C) We have no information about the beliefs of sports scholars.
(D) CORRECT. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe that the diverse origins of American football make it essentially American.
(E) Because the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots,” and because American football has diverse origins, the author would be likely to believe that American football should be called an American sport. Thus, this choice is backward. 

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be less inclined to label jazz an American art form if which of the following were true?
  • a)
    New Orleans was not the place where jazz music was first played.
  • b)
    Jazz music was first created in New Orleans when four avant-garde musicians from different musical backgrounds came together to experiment with unprecedented musical concepts.
  • c)
    With the influx of West Africans to the Americas came a very specific West African musical style that was later renamed “jazz” by Americans who heard this style of music being played in New Orleans.
  • d)
    Jazz music actually draws more of its character from South American and Native American traditions than from those of Europe or West Africa.
  • e)
    West African musical styles are heavily influenced by the musical traditions of a variety of Middle Eastern cultures.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Yadav answered
To answer this question, we must determine why the author currently DOES believe jazz is an American art form. We can find the criterion the author uses in the third paragraph: “…the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.” So, the author believes the “plurality of roots” makes jazz undeniably American. The author would probably be less inclined to label jazz an American art form if jazz did NOT come from a diverse set of musical and cultural traditions. (A) This does not speak to the roots of jazz music.
(B) This statement, if true, would indicate that jazz music was derived from the confluence of four different musical styles, or a “plurality of roots.” Therefore, the author would still be likely to label jazz an American art form.
(C) CORRECT. This statement would indicate that jazz in fact did not come from a diverse set of musical traditions. The lack of “plurality” would most likely make the author less inclined to label jazz an American art form.
(D) If this statement were true, jazz would still have been derived from a “plurality of roots,” regardless of what these roots were.
(E) This statement would only further illustrate that jazz has a rich and complex history, formed from the confluence of many different musical styles and traditions. 

Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose interest. Other problems may also result from the emotional relationship between a dog and its owner.
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess biological detection mechanisms that are at least as effective as those of mammals.
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla.
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an odorant binding protein. This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for easy detection by researchers.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s response. A technique developed by German biologist Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response. The recent developments in this direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.
Q.
Which of the following most accurately describes the primary purpose of the passage?
  • a)
    To advocate a wider use for the biological detection mechanisms of dogs and other mammals.
  • b)
    To describe possible disadvantages involved in the use of dogs’ biological detection mechanisms.
  • c)
    To describe biological detection mechanisms of insects and suggest that they may provide a viable alternative to those of mammals.
  • d)
    To discuss the process used by insects to detect odors.
  • e)
    To discuss the methods used by biologists to explore insects’ olfactory organs.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Joshi answered
On questions asking about the main idea of the passage, be sure to refer to the opening paragraph, which usually discusses the main theme of the passage. Also, when selecting your answer, avoid extreme answer choices that describe only a part of the passage or mention information that is beyond the scope of the text. 
(A) This answer choice is directly contradicted by the text. The passage provides an argument for a wider use of the detection mechanisms of insects rather than dogs.
(B) While possible disadvantages involved in using detection mechanisms of dogs are mentioned in the second paragraph, their discussion appears only in one paragraph and thus does not reflect the main idea of the passage.
(C) CORRECT. This answer choice accurately describes the main idea of the passage. Note that this idea permeates the entire passage and conveys the main intention of the author. Also, note that this theme is mimicked in the opening paragraph of the passage: “… recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity.”
(D) While the second paragraph of the passage is devoted to the discussion of the biological process used by insects to detect odors, this theme is discussed only in one paragraph and fails to reflect the content of the entire passage.
(E) First, the passage mentions only one method (rather than multiple methods): the technique developed by Dietrich Schneider. Secondly, this method is mentioned only in the concluding paragraph of the passage and does not reflect the main theme of the entire text.  

The recruitment and development of talent is a growing priority for many organizations, and is increasingly regarded as an important competitive advantage. One example of this emphasis on talent development is the creation of so-called ‘C’ level executive roles—Chief Talent or Personnel Officer—that represent the interests of the Human Resources department. This is a significant change from past years, during which Human Resources was generally considered a lower priority, even a necessary evil, and a destination for executives that did not thrive in other departments.
This change has had an important beneficiary—women.
An extraordinarily high proportion of Human Resources departments are run by women, reflecting the composition of the departments themselves. For better or worse, Human Resources positions have long been perceived as natural roles for women, as women are generally regarded as more nurturing and service-oriented than their male counterparts. As these traits are considered core to the functioning of effective Human Resources personnel, the advancement of women within HR departments has been routine and that, in turn, has attracted more women. Additionally, the lifestyle of workers in the Human Resources department is often not as demanding in terms of hours and weekends worked as it is for workers in other departments; many women with children find this appealing.
The preponderance of female heads of Human Resources departments and the higher prioritization of talent development have combined to give many female executives increased authority and influence. Many women, after performing well in a Human Resources capacity, have been given additional responsibilities in other departments. Also, more female executives have been asked to represent their organizations at industry conferences, further increasing their visibility.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about the “additional responsibilities” cited in the second sentence of the third paragraph?
  • a)
    They are probably in areas not as traditionally associated with female leadership.
  • b)
    They are in departments that used to be run by a man.
  • c)
    They are similar to responsibilities that these women have already successfully undertaken.
  • d)
    They include speaking at industry conferences on behalf of these women’s organizations.
  • e)
    They are more important than these women’s prior responsibilities in the Human Resources area.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Ghoshal answered
This question asks us to infer something about the “additional responsibilities” described in the third paragraph of the passage. The only information we are given about these “additional responsibilities” is that they are awarded to women who have performed well in a Human Resources capacity, and that they lie outside of the Human Resources department itself. The correct answer choice will be closely tied to one or both of these facts. 
(A) CORRECT. The passage explains, in paragraph two, that women have been strongly associated with the traits and characteristics valued in a Human Resources capacity.  If the "additional responsibilities" are in "other departments," then those responsibilities are likely to be in areas that are less traditionally associated with women than is HR. 
(B) We know only that the departmental responsibilities are not in the Human Resources area; we do not know that the women are taking over, or even merely expanding their responsibilities into, departments that "used to" be run by a man.
(C) The passage indicates that the “additional responsibilities” are given as a reward for strong performance; they may or may not be similar to those that these women have already performed. Indeed, they could very well be new types of responsibilities that are meant to stretch and challenge these executives.
(D) The activity of speaking at industry conferences is explicitly described later in the paragraph as an additional way that women have gained authority and influence.  The wording ("Also...") indicates a new thought compared to the “additional responsibilities” of the previous sentence, rather than an example of those responsibilities.
(E) The passage describes the increasing emphasis on the importance of Human Resources activities to many organizations. The new responsibilities in other departments may or may not be more important, particularly as they are in addition to these women’s prior responsibilities. For example, a successful Human Resources executive could be given the additional responsibility of producing marketing materials for the Company, which may or may not be more crucial to the Company’s success than her earlier responsibilities. 

One often hears that biographies are autobiographies, that the biographer is always writing about himself. On the contrary, serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar, however troublesome to account for. Ron Chernow, the author of rich biographies of the American businessmen J.P. Morgan and John D. Rockefeller, remarks that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, uncomfortable facts strewn in their paths.” Such encounters with the unaccountable are opportunities for breaking out and breaking through, in new directions, to fresh understanding.
One also often hears that biographers must like their subjects. That would of course rule out such vastly important subjects as Hitler or Stalin. In practice, the biographer must like the subject not as a person but as a subject. Some are good subjects for the author, some bad. And what makes one subject better than another for any particular biographer varies dramatically. Some of the reasons are purely practical. Does the subject need a biography? Are the materials available? How much time is needed? A biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice. Great scientists are great subjects, but can one write about their achievements with insight and authority? Personal idiosyncrasies matter, too.
Biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits, whether they be ambition, cruelty, ingenuity, or any other characteristic that separates a potential subject from the multitudes.
In choosing a subject, the biographer’s main question should be, “Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?” Day after day for years, the biographer will try to untangle chronology, compress relationships without distorting them, and keep the main narrative clear while carrying forward several intricate strands of the subject’s life. What pushes most biographers on in this endeavor is not necessarily affection for the subject but the feeling that they are writing a good book.
Q.
The author mentions Ron Chernow most probably in order to
  • a)
    provide a counterexample to a general claim about biography
  • b)
    illustrate a questionable assertion regarding biography
  • c)
    establish a favorable comparison with an established biographer
  • d)
    underscore the importance of research in biography
  • e)
     challenge a new approach to biography
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Explanation of the Correct Answer
The mention of Ron Chernow in the passage serves a specific purpose related to the general claims about biographers and their subjects. Here's a detailed breakdown:
Counterexample to General Claims
- The passage begins with the assertion that biographers often write about themselves through their subjects.
- Ron Chernow’s perspective challenges this notion by emphasizing that serious biographers confront “hard, uncomfortable facts.”
- By highlighting Chernow’s statement, the author illustrates that biographers can embrace unfamiliar and troubling aspects of their subjects rather than merely reflecting their own views or biases.
Reinforcement of Biographical Approach
- Chernow’s comment that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, uncomfortable facts” supports the idea that depth and complexity in subjects are essential for a compelling biography.
- This reinforces the notion that effective biographies require more than personal affinity for the subject; they also depend on the richness of the subject's life and the challenges it presents.
Conclusion
- In essence, referencing Chernow serves to provide a counterexample to the general claim that biographers are self-referential and only choose subjects they inherently like.
- Instead, it illustrates that biographers, like Chernow, are motivated by the potential for insightful storytelling and understanding, regardless of their personal feelings towards the subject itself.
Thus, option 'A' is the correct answer as it effectively demonstrates a counterexample to the broader claim about the nature of biographies.

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
Which of the following provides the best example of the scatting technique used in jazz performance?
  • a)
    A female vocalist attempting to vocalize the tone and melodic line just played by a trumpet
  • b)
    A male vocalist using the European harmonic system to derive a melodic line
  • c)
    A trombone player attempting to imitate the sound of a male vocalist
  • d)
    A vocalist improvising a melodic line
  • e)
    A call and response between two or more instruments in the ensemble
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

In the second paragraph, “scatting” is described as “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments.” 
(A) CORRECT. A vocalist attempting to vocalize the tone and melodic line just played by a trumpet is an example of a singer mimicking “the sounds of instruments.”
(B) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments.” 
(C) This is an example of an instrumentalist attempting to imitate the sounds of a vocalist. Scatting is the exact opposite: a vocalist attempting to imitate the sounds of an instrument. 
(D) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments.”
(E) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments.” 

Film scholars agree that Hollywood portrayals of America at war follow a cyclical pattern. During and immediately after a conflict, important films trumpet glory and sacrifice. Ten to fifteen years later, questioning and sometimes pacifistic movies about the conflict dominate. In the late 1960’s, “the raging bulls” of Hollywood—the young trendsetters rising to prominence—proclaimed this pattern obsolete. However, the passage of time has demonstrated this cultural pattern to be more resilient than it seemed in those days of social change.
Throughout the majority of the last century, evidence of the cyclical portrayal of war in film abounds. After America declared war against Germany during World War I, the still infant film industry glorified the fight against “the Hun.” By the early 1930’s, major releases had changed their tone; for example, All Quiet on the Western Front put forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of combat. After World War II began, the industry shifted gears. Suddenly, important pictures again portrayed glories and courage without the questioning or despair. For example, Guadalcanal Diary, produced during the war, showed “the ultimate sacrifice” as a noble and undoubted good. Once again, though, by 1957, films such as The Bridge on the River Kwai won awards for depicting the moral confusion of war.
Those who later declared this pattern dead based their conviction on their hearts rather than their minds. During the Vietnam War, the only major film about that conflict was The Green Berets, starring John Wayne and far closer in tone to Guadalcanal Diary than to The Bridge on the River Kwai. Similarly, years went by before more complex visions of war, such as Apocalypse Now, and then Platoon, emerged.
While today’s film industry is more diverse and its audience more culturally fragmented, this cycle largely continues. Jarhead, a layered depiction of the first gulf war, premiered more than ten years after that conflict. Further evidence of this pattern can be seen in the release of Apocalypse Now Redux, which contained additional footage that the producers originally thought would repel audiences. Thus, the famous aphorism “The more things change, the more they stay the same” certainly applies to this aspect of the film industry.
Q.
The passage implies that the combat depicted in All Quiet on the Western Front least resembles the
depiction of combat in which of the following?
  • a)
    Jarhead
  • b)
    Apocalypse Now
  • c)
    The Bridge on the River Kwai
  • d)
    Platoon
  • e)
    Guadalcanal Dairy
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditya Sharma answered
The theme of the passage is that the glories of war were emphasized in films made during the conflict but questioned in those made years afterward. In the second paragraph, All Quiet on the Western Front is cited as an example from the latter category. Therefore, its portrayal of combat would have the least in common with a film made during a conflict.
(A) In the last paragraph, Jarhead is listed as a film that was made years after the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front. Remember that any information gleaned from seeing the film is outside knowledge. If this information cannot be deduced from the passage, it cannot be used to answer a question.
(B) In the third paragraph, Apocalypse Now is listed as a film that was made years after the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front.
(C) In the second paragraph, The Bridge on the River Kwai is described as a film that was made years after the conflict it portrayed and showed the moral confusion of war. Thus, it can be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front.
(D) In the third paragraph, Platoon is described as a film that was made years after the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front. 
(E) CORRECT. In both the second and third paragraphs, Guadalcanal Diary is mentioned as a film made in wartime. In the second paragraph, it is listed as an example of a film that portrayed the “’the ultimate sacrifice’ as a noble and undoubted good.” In contrast, the first paragraph states that “All Quiet on the Western Front put forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of combat.” Thus, Guadalcanal Diary must be the portrayal of combat that least resembles that in All Quiet on the Western Front.  

Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles.
Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival.
Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.
Q.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
  • a)
    Javan rhinos are one of the most endangered animals on the planet.
  • b)
    More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino than is known about its mating patterns.
  • c)
    Hunters killed more Javan rhinos in Vietnam than in Indonesia.
  • d)
    Most animal extinctions are the result of human actions.
  • e)
    Genetic diversity is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Joshi answered

Explanation:

Overview:
- The passage discusses the Javan rhinoceros, its habitat, population, and the threats it faces due to human actions.

Inference:
- The passage does not provide information to support options a, c, d, and e.
- Option b can be inferred from the passage because it mentions that most scientific work on Javan rhinos has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung, indicating that more is known about their genetics than their mating patterns.

The golden toad of Costa Rica, whose beauty and rarity inspired an unusual degree of human interest from a public generally unconcerned about amphibians, may have been driven to extinction by human activity nevertheless. In the United States, a public relations campaign featuring the toad raised money to purchase and protect the toad’s habitat in Costa Rica, establishing the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve in 1972. Although this action seemed to secure the toad’s future, it is now apparent that setting aside habitat was not enough to save this beautiful creature. The toad’s demise in the late 1980s was a harbinger of further species extinction in Costa Rica. Since that time, another twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads known to once inhabit a 30 square kilometer area near Monteverde have disappeared.
The unexplained, relatively sudden disappearance of amphibians in Costa Rica is not a unique story. Populations of frogs, toads, and salamanders have declined or disappeared the world over. Scientists hypothesize that the more subtle effects of human activities on the world’s ecosystems, such as the build-up of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather patterns due to global warming, are beginning to take their toll. Perhaps amphibians - whose permeable skin makes them sensitive to environmental changes - are the “canary in the coal mine,” giving us early notification of the deterioration of our environment. If amphibians are the biological harbingers of environmental problems, humans would be wise to heed their warning.
Q. 
The author uses the adjective “subtle” in the second paragraph most probably to emphasize that
  • a)
    these effects are not easily recognized b y sophisticated testing equipment
  • b)
    these effects are difficult to notice because they take place over time on a global scale
  • c)
    these effects are so minimal that they affect only small animal species such as amphibians
  • d)
    these slight effects of human activity are rarely discussed by scientists
  • e)
    these effects are infrequently observed because they affect only specific world regions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajdeep Nair answered
In the second paragraph, the author mentions “the more subtle effects of human activity on the world's ecosystems,” and then lists three of these effects: the build-up of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather patterns due to global warming, all of which, scientists hypothesize, “are beginning to take their toll.” The key to answering this question correctly is to recognize, in context, what these effects have in common.
(A) Nowhere does the passage suggest or imply that these changes are not easily recognized by sophisticated testing equipment.  
(B) CORRECT. All of these effects happen on a global scale, so their immediate consequences on specific ecosystems are difficult to recognize. Furthermore, the passage states these effects are “beginning to take their toll,” indicating that the effects happen over time.
(C) Scientists hypothesize that these effects do affect amphibians, but nothing in the passage indicates that only small animal species such as amphibians are affected. In fact, the final sentence of the passage indicates that humans too might be affected by these environmental changes.
(D) The passage states that scientists hypothesize about the consequences of these subtle effects; this indicates that scientists do in fact discuss these effects
(E) The passage indicates that the consequences of these effects are global, causing disruptions in amphibious populations “the world over.” 

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the use of pay-per-click search engines ads?
  • a)
    Most consumers that respond to these ads translate directly into paying customers.
  • b)
    Companies will incur relatively little cost for ads that attract minimal interest from consumers.
  • c)
    Companies with the most impressive websites will draw the most attention to their ads.
  • d)
    Companies with the best brands benefit the most from the ads.
  • e)
    Companies that use these ads always have webanalytic technology on their websites.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sonal Banerjee answered
The second paragraph of the passage describes pay-per-click search engines as an example of the trend towards "campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments." The correct answer will stick very closely to the text that describes pay-per-click search engines.
(A) The passage states that upon clicking an ad, a consumer “is directed to the company’s website.” This does not mean, however, that the consumer will necessarily purchase something on the company’s website. While some consumers may translate into paying customers, nothing in the passage suggests that this is the case for “most” consumers. 
(B) CORRECT. Ads that attract minimal interest will lead to minimal consumer clicks. Since “a company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad,” it follows that this company will incur relatively little cost for these few clicks.
(C) Since consumers do not actually see the websites of companies until after they have clicked on an ad, the relative merits of a company's website have no bearing on an individual’s interest in a particular ad.
(D) The passage provides no information about how a company’s brand impacts the benefit it receives from pay-per-click ads.
(E) While the passage states that companies “can track a consumer’s online behavior” using web-analytic technology, this technology is not a prerequisite for companies to advertise on pay-per-click search engines. The word “always” renders this choice incorrect. 

Film scholars agree that Hollywood portrayals of America at war follow a cyclical pattern. During and immediately after a conflict, important films trumpet glory and sacrifice. Ten to fifteen years later, questioning and sometimes pacifistic movies about the conflict dominate. In the late 1960’s, “the raging bulls” of Hollywood—the young trendsetters rising to prominence—proclaimed this pattern obsolete. However, the passage of time has demonstrated this cultural pattern to be more resilient than it seemed in those days of social change.
Throughout the majority of the last century, evidence of the cyclical portrayal of war in film abounds. After America declared war against Germany during World War I, the still infant film industry glorified the fight against “the Hun.” By the early 1930’s, major releases had changed their tone; for example, All Quiet on the Western Front put forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of combat. After World War II began, the industry shifted gears. Suddenly, important pictures again portrayed glories and courage without the questioning or despair. For example, Guadalcanal Diary, produced during the war, showed “the ultimate sacrifice” as a noble and undoubted good. Once again, though, by 1957, films such as The Bridge on the River Kwai won awards for depicting the moral confusion of war.
Those who later declared this pattern dead based their conviction on their hearts rather than their minds. During the Vietnam War, the only major film about that conflict was The Green Berets, starring John Wayne and far closer in tone to Guadalcanal Diary than to The Bridge on the River Kwai. Similarly, years went by before more complex visions of war, such as Apocalypse Now, and then Platoon, emerged.
While today’s film industry is more diverse and its audience more culturally fragmented, this cycle largely continues. Jarhead, a layered depiction of the first gulf war, premiered more than ten years after that conflict. Further evidence of this pattern can be seen in the release of Apocalypse Now Redux, which contained additional footage that the producers originally thought would repel audiences. Thus, the famous aphorism “The more things change, the more they stay the same” certainly applies to this aspect of the film industry.
Q.
Which one of the following does the author believe is true about The Bridge on the River Kwai?
  • a)
    it deserved the awards that it won.
  • b)
    It is a more intelligent and well-crafted movie than The Green Berets.
  • c)
    It was the first movie to portray the moral confusion of war.
  • d)
    Its portrayal of war is more ambivalent than that in Guadalcanal Diary.
  • e)
    It was more financially successful than any war movie that came before it.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

In the second paragraph, The Bridge on the River Kwai is mentioned as a post-WWII example of the continuing pattern of war movies becoming more ambivalent years after the conflict. The phrases “once again” and “for example” highlight this. In the third paragraph, the movie is again mentioned as an example of a more complex view of war. Thus, the correct answer must follow from these points.
(A) This is incorrect; the author does not discuss the quality of the movie or the merit of any awards. 
(B) The passage does not compare the intelligence or crafting of these, or any, films; it merely discusses their tone and approach to the depiction of war.  A movie could present a glorified depiction of war and also be very intelligent and well-crafted.
(C) This is incorrect. The passage indicates that there were movies with ambivalent perspectives produced after the first war, citing All Quiet on the Western Front as an example. Furthermore, the phrase “once again” indicates that it was not the first to have such a tone. 
(D) CORRECT. The third paragraph states that Guadalcanal Diary was much closer in tone to The Green Berets and contrasts those two to The Bridge on the River Kwai. This contrast is in terms of the greater ambivalence and moral confusion shown in The Bridge on the River Kwai.
(E) The passage does not mention the financial success, or lack thereof, of any of the movies it discusses. 

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg?
  • a)
    Attempts to cultivate nutmeg trees outside of the Banda Islands had failed.
  • b)
    Few people lived in New Amsterdam before it was ceded to the British.
  • c)
    The British controlled trade in other valuable spices, such as cloves.
  • d)
    New Amsterdam served as a trading center for furs exported to Europe.
  • e)
    The Netherlands controlled no North American territories other than New Amsterdam
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Analysis:
New Amsterdam was ceded to the British in exchange for the Banda Islands due to the conflict over nutmeg. To strengthen the claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the nutmeg conflict, we need to find a statement that directly links the conflict over nutmeg to the decision to cede New Amsterdam.

Explanation:

Key Point: New Amsterdam was ceded to the British in exchange for the Banda Islands because the Dutch were more interested in controlling the nutmeg trade.
- Option D: New Amsterdam served as a trading center for furs exported to Europe.
- By highlighting that New Amsterdam played a crucial role as a trading center for furs, this option strengthens the claim that the Dutch were more focused on the spice trade, particularly nutmeg, rather than the fur trade. This suggests that if not for the conflict over nutmeg, the Dutch may have been less inclined to cede New Amsterdam to the British in exchange for the Banda Islands.
Therefore, option D is the most relevant statement that strengthens the claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Banda Islands?
  • a)
    Increased economic competition with Britain
  • b)
    Disappointment with the economic development of New Amsterdam
  • c)
    Frustration with the practices of Venetian spice merchants
  • d)
    Failure to cultivate nutmeg in other locations
  • e)
    Desire to restrict access to a commodity
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

We are asked to find a stated reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Banda Islands. The correct answer will have been explicitly mentioned in the passage, though perhaps in different words from those in the answer choice. 
(A) The passage does not mention increased competition with Britain as a reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Bandas
(B) The passage does not state that the Dutch were disappointed with the economic development of New Amsterdam. Instead, it simply states that the Netherlands was more interested in the Bandas.
(C) The passage does not mention any frustration with Venetian spice merchants.
(D) The passage does not mention any attempts to cultivate nutmeg outside the Banda Islands. 
(E) CORRECT. The Netherlands attacked the Bandas in order to control trade in nutmeg, a valuable commodity at that time. It hoped to establish a monopoly in the spice, thus restricting access to it. 

Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose interest. Other problems may also result from the emotional relationship between a dog and its owner.
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess biological detection mechanisms that are at least as effective as those of mammals.
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla.
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an odorant binding protein. This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for easy detection by researchers.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s response. A technique developed by German biologist Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response. The recent developments in this direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.
Q.
It can be inferred from the passage that dogs could be used more effectively in detecting drugs if which of the following were true?
  • a)
    They could last without food for longer periods of time.
  • b)
    They could visually recognize the drugs they are supposed to detect.
  • c)
    They could not only smell but also taste the drugs they are asked to detect.
  • d)
    They could use finger-like protuberances for detecting odors.
  • e)
    They could not develop emotional relationships with people
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Sen answered
Understanding the Key Issue
The passage discusses the effectiveness of dogs compared to insects in drug detection. It highlights the limitations of dogs, particularly their emotional attachments and susceptibility to boredom, which can hinder their performance in detecting drugs.
Why Option E is Correct
- Emotional Attachments: The passage indicates that dogs, like humans, can develop emotional relationships with their handlers, which may distract them and affect their ability to focus on the task of drug detection. If dogs could not form these attachments, they would likely maintain a more consistent level of interest and performance.
- Focus on Detection: Without emotional distractions, dogs could potentially enhance their concentration and efficiency in detecting drugs, making them more effective biological detection systems.
Why Other Options are Less Relevant
- Option A: Dogs lasting longer without food does not address their focus or interest levels during detection tasks.
- Option B: Visual recognition of drugs is not a primary mechanism for detection; dogs rely on their sense of smell.
- Option C: While tasting could theoretically help, the primary detection method for drugs is olfaction, not taste.
- Option D: Dogs do not have the anatomical features (like finger-like protuberances) that insects use for detection, so this option is not applicable.
Conclusion
In summary, if dogs could not develop emotional relationships with people, they would likely perform more effectively in drug detection, making option E the most logical choice based on the passage's content.

New research by Paul Fildes and K. Whitaker challenges the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate by withholding a metabolite necessary for their regular function. In particular, they consider the case of bacteria typhosum, which needs tryptophan in order to reproduce. Earlier researchers had grown the bacteria in a medium somewhat deficient in tryptophan and observed the growth of mutant strains of the bacteria which did not need tryptophan in order to reproduce.
Fildes and Whitaker argue that the withholding of tryptophan did not induce these mutant strains of bacteria.
Rather, these mutants were already present in the original sample of bacteria typhosum, albeit in a concentration too small to detect. In experimenting with the bacteria grown in agar cultures, they found that by plating out huge quantities of the bacteria, one could locate mutant strains. Because of the possibility that the lack of uniformity of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant strains, they conducted similar experiments with liquid cultures and again found that mutant strains of the bacteria were present in the original sampling. From these experiments, Fildes and Whitaker conclude that the mutants are of genetic origin and are not induced by environmental training. They asserted that the concentration of tryptophan is unrelated to the appearance of these mutants in the bacteria.
To confirm these results, Fildes and Whitaker used an innovative plating technique using pile fabrics, such as velvet or velveteen, to accurately imprint the growth found on an original agar plate to a series of replica agar plates.
The process entails taking the original agar plate, inverting it onto the velvet while using light finger pressure to transfer growth, and then imprinting the fabric, with its pattern of growth, on the new agar plates. By using this replica plating method, Fildes and Whitaker demonstrated that the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted, as the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate.
Q.
It can be inferred from the passage that the replica plating method is effective for which of the following reasons?
  • a)
    It allows researchers to determine the relative sizes of different populations of bacteria.
  • b)
    It shows that no new mutant strains developed after transfer from the original agar plate.
  • c)
    It eliminates the possibility that the agar culture was contaminated by a different type of bacteria.
  • d)
    It demonstrates that no tryptophan was present in the original agar culture.
  • e)
    It establishes that the original agar culture contained the necessary metabolites for bacterial reproduction.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
The replica plating method is discussed in the third paragraph. The first two sentences describe the process, while the third sentence explains what was learned by using this method. The correct inference about the effectiveness of the replica plating method will be a virtual rephrasing of the facts presented in the third paragraph.  
(A) We cannot infer that the replica plating method allows researchers to determine the relative sizes of different populations of bacteria. The population sizes of various bacteria populations were never discussed.
(B) CORRECT. The last sentence of the passage states that “the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate,” citing this as proof that “the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted.” In other words, the mutant strains did not develop after transfer from the original agar plate.
(C) The only type of bacteria mentioned in the passage was bacteria typhosum, so we cannot infer that the replica plating method eliminates the possibility that the agar culture was contaminated by a different type of bacteria.
(D) The role of tryptophan is discussed in the first and second paragraphs. This answer choice goes too far by asserting that “no tryptophan was present in the original agar culture.” We do not have enough information to make that inference.
(E) According to the first paragraph, “the necessary metabolites for bacterial reproduction” are defined as the substances “necessary for their (bacteria’s) regular function.” In the case of bacteria typhosum, that substance is tryptophan. We do not have enough information to infer that the replica plating method establishes that the original agar culture contained tryptophan. If fact, the presence of mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates would contradict this statement rather than support it.  

Scientific advances in the latter half of the twentieth century have allowed researchers to study the chemical activities taking place in the human brain during the sleep cycle in more detail. In the 1970s, Jacobs employed these advances to postulate that dreams and hallucinations share a common neurochemical mechanism with respect to the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine that accounts for the observable similarities between the two states of mind. To test the theory, researchers attempted to elucidate the role of these transmitters in the normal sleep cycle and the effect of hallucinogenic drugs on them.
Although scientists still have much to discover about the chemical complexities of the brain, serotonin appears important for managing sleep, mood, and appetite, among other important functions, while neurons release norepinephrine to facilitate alertness and mental focus.
Both are discharged in high quantities only during waking states. At the onset of sleep, the activity levels of neurons that release both the neurotransmitters drop, allowing the brain first to enter the four non-rapid eye movement (Non-REM) stages of sleep. When the brain is ready to enter the fifth stage, REM, which is associated with dreaming, the levels of these two chemicals drop virtually to zero. The Jacobs hypothesis held that the absence of norepinephrine was required to enable the brain to remain asleep, while the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur.
Lysergic acid diethylamide, or LSD, is a semi-synthetic psychedelic drug which causes significant alteration of the senses, memories and awareness; at doses higher than 20 micrograms, it can have a hallucinogenic effect.
LSD mimics serotonin well enough to be able to bind at most of the neurotransmitter’s receptor sites, largely inhibiting normal transmission. In addition, the drug causes the locus ceruleus, a cluster of neurons containing norepinephrine, to greatly accelerate activity. If the drug stimulates norepinephrine, thereby precluding sleep, and inhibits serotonin, which Jacobs had postulated was a necessary condition for dreaming, then the resulting hallucinations could merely be “dreaming while awake.” The research thus far is promising but inconclusive; future scientific advances should allow this theory to be tested more rigorously.
Q.
According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT
  • a)
    Norepinephrine and serotonin are discharged only during waking states.
  • b)
    Ingesting more than 20 micrograms of LSD will cause some people to hallucinate.
  • c)
    Rapid eye movement is the stage of sleep during which people dream.
  • d)
    LSD causes neurons to increase the rate at which they discharge norepinephrine.
  • e)
    The absence of serotonin seems to be necessary in order to enable the brain to dream.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Isha Sen answered
"Except" questions require us to test the five answer choices to determine the "odd one out." It is beneficial to use the True / False technique: label each answer choice with a T or an F and look for the odd one out (which, in this case, we should expect to be an F).
(A) CORRECT. False. The second sentence of the second paragraph says of the chemicals that "Both are discharged in high quantities only during waking states." Later sentences tell us that the chemical levels drop during non-REM sleep, not that they disappear completely. 
(B) True. The first sentence of the third paragraph says that "at doses higher than 20 micrograms, [LSD] can have a hallucinogenic effect." This is equivalent to the statement that the dosage will cause hallucinations in some people (otherwise, we could not say that it "can have" a hallucinogenic effect).
(C) True. Sentence four in paragraph two tells us that REM (rapid eye movement sleep) "is associated with dreaming."
(D) True. The third sentence of paragraph three says that the neurons containing norepinephrine "greatly accelerate activity" when LSD is in someone's system. Sentence one of paragraph two tells us that "neurons release norepinephrine" - so if this neuronal activity is increased, then the rate at which norepinephrine is released must also increase. 
(E) True. The last sentence of the second paragraph says that Jacobs hypothesized that "the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur." 

A recent ball-catching experiment conducted in space by astronauts on board a space shuttle has led neuroscientists to conclude that the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent. At the same time, the experiment provided evidence that the brain can adapt to environments in which the force of downward acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth.
The experiment’s outcomes suggested that an individual’s understanding of motion is hard-wired from an earthcentric perspective. In the experiment, the astronauts were asked to catch balls released from a spring-loaded cannon.
Analyzing data gathered from infrared tracking cameras and electrodes placed on the astronauts’ arms, McIntyre, the experiment’s principal designer, noticed that the astronauts’ anticipation of the ball’s motion was slightly off. Though they were able to catch the ball, the astronauts expected the ball to move faster than it did. He theorized that this over-anticipation is due to the fact that the brain expects the force of the earth’s gravity to act on the ball.
The experiment also demonstrates the brain’s ability to adjust to conditions that run counter to its pre-set wiring.
While the astronauts did not adapt to the conditions in space for some time, by day 15 of the experiment, the amplitude of the premature arm movements decreased and a new well-timed arm movement immediately preceded the catch. Upon returning to earth, the astronauts again mis-anticipated the ball’s motion, though this time the ball moved faster than anticipated. However, the astronauts were able to adjust back to the earth’s gravitational effect on the balls much more quickly than they had been able to adapt to the conditions in space.
Many scientists view the findings as a first step in research that could have serious practical benefits. The ability of astronauts to safely explore space and investigate other planets is dependent on understanding the differences between our physical reactions on earth and elsewhere.
On another level, understanding timing processes in the body might lead to the development of treatments for coordination problems experienced by individuals with certain types of brain damage.
Q.
The primary purpose of the passage is to:
  • a)
    describe a recent space experiment and present its conclusions
  • b)
    detail the practical applications of recent research findings
  • c)
    correct a misunderstanding about how the brain functions
  • d)
    present a summary of how gravity works
  • e)
    outline the benefits of conducting experiments in space
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The first paragraph of the passage presents two conclusions drawn from the ballcatching experiment:
(1) "the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent and
(2) "the brain can adapt" to environments where gravity is less pronounced than it is on earth. The second paragraph describes the experiment in-depth and demonstrates how scientists arrived at the first conclusion. The third paragraph demonstrates how scientists came to the second conclusion. The fourth and final paragraph identifies some practical benefits that the experiment might have. The correct answer choice must relate to most of the four paragraphs and, since this is a long passage, it must be closely tied to the all-important first paragraph.
(A) CORRECT. This choice directly relates to the first paragraph, which presents the experiment's conclusions, and to the second and third paragraphs, which describe the experiment in-depth.
(B) The practical applications of the experiment are described only in the fourth paragraph of the passage. This does not represent the primary purpose of the passage.
(C) The passage does not mention any misunderstanding about how the brain functions. Instead, it presents new insight about the brain's internal workings.
(D) While gravity is mentioned in the passage, there is no description of how gravity works. Moreover, the passage is focused on responses to different gravitational forces, not on gravity itself.
(E) The passage describes only one experiment in space; as such, it never alludes to space experiments in general. Additionally, while the passage implies that the ballcatching experiment was beneficial, it never explicitly outlines the benefits of conducting experiments in space. 

Antibiotics are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The success of antibiotics against disease-causing bacteria is one of modern medicine’s great achievements. However, many bacteria harmful to humans have developed ways to circumvent the effects of antibiotics, and many infectious diseases are now much more difficult to treat than they were just a few decades ago. Antibiotic resistance is an especially difficult problem for hospitals with critically ill patients who are less able to fight off infections without the help of antibiotics.
Bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance because they have the ability to adapt quickly to new environmental conditions. Most commonly, bacteria share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids; these shared plasmids, which contain the genetic code enabling antibiotic resistance, can spread throughout a bacterial population to create a strain of resistant bacteria. Less commonly, a natural mutation that enables antibiotic resistance takes place within the chromosome of the bacteria, and the resulting strain of bacteria can reproduce and become dominant via natural selection. In the absence of human involvement, however, bacteria in the wild rarely develop resistance to antibiotics.
In the United States, animals raised on industrial-scale factory farms are routinely administered low levels of antibiotics in their feed not as a cure for ongoing maladies, but primarily as a growth-enhancing agent to produce more meat and also as a prophylactic measure to compensate for overcrowded and unsanitary conditions.
Currently, several antibiotics that are used in human medical treatment are administered non-therapeutically to healthy livestock and poultry. Examples include tetracycline, penicillin and erythromycin. This long-term non-therapeutic feeding of antibiotics to animals creates the ideal conditions for the development of antibioticresistant bacteria, as it kills the susceptible bacteria while leaving the resistant strains to reproduce and flourish.
Europe is far ahead of the United States in the responsible use of antibiotics: On January 1, 2006, the European Union banned the feeding of all antibiotics to livestock for nontherapeutic purposes. This sweeping policy follows a 1998 ban on the non-therapeutic use of four medically-important antibiotics on animals. The time has come for the United States to follow Europe’s lead.
Q.
Which of the following best describes what the phrase “prophylactic measure” in the third paragraph means?
  • a)
    a measure to cure the animals of any existing infectious diseases
  • b)
    a contraceptive measure to prevent the animals from spreading genetic diseases
  • c)
    a pre-emptive measure to kill bacteria in the animals before the animals become ill
  • d)
    an antiseptic measure to kill surface bacteria in the surrounding environment
  • e)
    a measure that creates a physical barrier that protects the animals from the bacteria in the surrounding environment
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Chawla answered
While it is helpful to know that the dictionary definition of the adjective “prophylactic” is “acting to defend against or prevent something, especially disease; protective,” this knowledge is not necessary; the intended meaning of the phrase “prophylactic measure” can be inferred from the context of the passage. The beginning of the first sentence of the third paragraph specifically points out that the antibiotics are used “not as a cure for ongoing maladies” and the last sentence of the paragraph describes such use as “non-therapeutic.” In addition, the phrase “to compensate for … unsanitary conditions” implies that the antibiotics were used to counteract an environment replete with bacteria. Hence, it is reasonable to infer that the antibiotics were applied as a preventive measure to protect the animals from catching an infectious disease in such an environment.
(A) The passage specifically points out that the antibiotics are not used “as a cure for ongoing maladies” and describes such use as “non-therapeutic.”
(B) The passage is not concerned with genetic diseases.
(C) CORRECT. Since the use of antibiotics in the farm industry is specifically described to be “non-therapeutic,” it cannot be used as a curative measure and, therefore, is most likely used as a pre-emptive measure in order to prevent or protect the animals from developing infectious diseases.
(D) The passage states that the antibiotics are administered to the animals in their feed. Hence, it is clearly not used as a surface disinfectant.
(E) The antibiotics are orally administered to the animals in their feed. There is nothing in the passage to suggest that a “physical barrier” is involved in any way.

One often hears that biographies are autobiographies, that the biographer is always writing about himself. On the contrary, serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar, however troublesome to account for. Ron Chernow, the author of rich biographies of the American businessmen J.P. Morgan and John D. Rockefeller, remarks that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, uncomfortable facts strewn in their paths.” Such encounters with the unaccountable are opportunities for breaking out and breaking through, in new directions, to fresh understanding.
One also often hears that biographers must like their subjects. That would of course rule out such vastly important subjects as Hitler or Stalin. In practice, the biographer must like the subject not as a person but as a subject. Some are good subjects for the author, some bad. And what makes one subject better than another for any particular biographer varies dramatically. Some of the reasons are purely practical. Does the subject need a biography? Are the materials available? How much time is needed? A biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice. Great scientists are great subjects, but can one write about their achievements with insight and authority? Personal idiosyncrasies matter, too.
Biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits, whether they be ambition, cruelty, ingenuity, or any other characteristic that separates a potential subject from the multitudes.
In choosing a subject, the biographer’s main question should be, “Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?” Day after day for years, the biographer will try to untangle chronology, compress relationships without distorting them, and keep the main narrative clear while carrying forward several intricate strands of the subject’s life. What pushes most biographers on in this endeavor is not necessarily affection for the subject but the feeling that they are writing a good book.
Q.
It can be inferred that the author makes which of the following assumptions about biographies?
  • a)
    Their main purpose is to inform readers about key aspects of the subjects’ personalities.
  • b)
    Only subjects who share traits with biographers make good subjects for biographies.
  • c)
    Compelling biographies cannot be written about ordinary citizens.
  • d)
    The biographer’s credibility with readers is a factor in the critical success of a biography.
  • e)
    Practical considerations are most important in the selection of a subject for a biography.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Khanna answered
The question asks us to identify an assumption that the author makes about biographies. The best approach to this question is simply to evaluate the choices one-by-one. Since an assumption is an unstated piece of evidence that is necessary to complete the logic of an argument, we are looking for an answer choice that completes the logic of the passage.
(A) While the author mentions in the second paragraph that “biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits,” informing readers of these traits is never implied to be the “main” purpose of biographies.
(B) In the first paragraph, the author writes that “serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar.” The author states in the second paragraph that “the biographer must like the subject not as a person, but as a subject.” Thus, the author probably disagrees with this answer choice. (C) The author concludes in the third paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the biographer’s main question should be, ‘Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?’” The author most likely believes the opposite of this answer choice: that compelling biographies can be written about ordinary citizens.
(D) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the author discusses the elements of a good biography, stating that “a biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice” of subject. If the author did not assume that the biographer's credibility with readers is a factor in the critical success of a biography, then this part of the second paragraph would be meaningless.
(E) In the second paragraph, the author discusses the practical considerations a biographer faces when selecting a subject, though such considerations are never presented as “most” important. In addition, the author goes on to add in the third paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the biographer’s main question should be, ‘Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?’” An adequate answer to this suggested question goes beyond practical considerations.  

Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose interest. Other problems may also result from the emotional relationship between a dog and its owner.
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess biological detection mechanisms that are at least as effective as those of mammals.
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla.
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an odorant binding protein. This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for easy detection by researchers.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s response. A technique developed by German biologist Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response. The recent developments in this direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.
Q.
Which of the following statements can be most reasonably inferred from the passage above?
  • a)
    Some police departments have already tested using insects to detect smuggling.
  • b)
    The use of dogs to detect smuggling dates back to the nineteenth century.
  • c)
    Detection of signals sent by the receptors to the central nervous system is easier in insects than in mammals.
  • d)
    In the first half of the twentieth century, there was no reliable method for recording the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identifying the compounds that trigger a behavioral response.
  • e)
    The position of the insect olfactory organs on its body varies between flying insects and crawling insects
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Saha answered
When answering inference questions, make sure to look for an answer that can be inferred strictly based on the information given in the passage and without making any additional assumptions. Typically, the correct answer will be closely connected to the actual text and directly supported by one or two sentences. 
(A) This statement is directly contradicted by the text of the passage. In the concluding paragraph, the author states that “the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future,” thus suggesting that they have not been applied in practice to date. (B) The passage provides no information about the time when dogs were first used in the detection of smuggling.
(C) While the last sentence of the second paragraph mentions that signals sent by insects’ receptors allow for “easy detection by researchers,” the passage provides no information about the ease or difficulty of such detection in mammals.
(D) CORRECT. The second sentence of the concluding paragraph states that the technique developed by Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s “became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response.” Since this technique became the first method, we can infer that no reliable methods had existed prior to the development of this technique, i.e. in the first half of the twentieth century or earlier. 
(E) The passage provides no information regarding the distinctions between flying and crawling insects. 

Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose interest. Other problems may also result from the emotional relationship between a dog and its owner.
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess biological detection mechanisms that are at least as effective as those of mammals.
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla.
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an odorant binding protein. This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for easy detection by researchers.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s response. A technique developed by German biologist Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response. The recent developments in this direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.
Q.
According to the passage, which of the following roles is played by an odorant binding protein?
  • a)
    It sends a signal to the central nervous system.
  • b)
    It carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid and attaches it to a receptor.
  • c)
    It passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum.
  • d)
    It picks up the signal from the olfactory sensilla.
  • e)
    It transmits odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Nambiar answered
This is a detail question. On questions of this type, use detail words, such as “an odorant binding protein” to locate the answer in the text. Those words are found in the sentence in the second paragraph that describes the role of this protein: “This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell.”
(A) This answer choice describes the role played by a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell rather than that played by the odorant binding protein.  
(B) CORRECT. The third sentence in the second paragraph states that “This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell.”
(C) This answer choice describes the role of played by the odorant molecule rather than that played by the odorant binding protein.
(D) This answer choice provides information about the odorant binding protein that is not mentioned in the passage.
(E) While the passage mentions finger-like protuberances in the third paragraph, nothing in the text suggests that it is the odorant binding protein that transmits odors via these protuberances. 

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
Which of the following elements of jazz most likely has its origin in West African musical traditions?
  • a)
    the emphasis on a tonal harmonic structure
  • b)
    the use of the guitar as one of the primary rhythm instruments
  • c)
    melodic lines rooted in the dorian scale
  • d)
    the use of many instruments in a jazz ensemble
  • e)
    an i mpro mptu call-and-respo ns e between two instruments in the ensemble
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Sonal Banerjee answered
Origin of Jazz Elements in West African Music
An essential element of jazz that has its origin in West African musical traditions is the impromptu call-and-response between two instruments in the ensemble.

Explanation:
- **Call-and-response:** This musical technique, where one musician or group of musicians initiates a phrase that is answered or echoed by another musician or group, is a fundamental aspect of West African music.
- **Improvization:** The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music also finds its roots in West African music traditions, where musicians often engage in spontaneous musical creation during performances.
- **Group participation:** In West African music, the community aspect of music-making is highly valued, with group participation and collaboration being common practices. This communal approach to music is reflected in jazz ensembles where musicians interact and respond to each other's musical expressions.
These elements highlight the strong influence of West African musical traditions on the development of jazz, showcasing the rich cultural exchange that shaped this uniquely American art form.

Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles.
Until recently, scientists debated whether females even have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on DNA garnered from dung.
The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival.
Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment.
Q.
The purpose of the first paragraph is to
  • a)
    discuss the different types of rhinoceroses that populate the world
  • b)
    describe the ways in which human actions have brought the Javan rhino close to extinction
  • c)
    outline the few known facts about the Javan rhino
  • d)
    discuss the steps taken to save the Javan rhino
  • e)
    highlight the differences between the sub-species of Javan rhinos in Vietnam and Indonesia
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saumya Shah answered
The first paragraph describes the Javan rhino and indicates how little is known about it. This should be reflected in the answer. It is the second paragraph that relates the effects of human activity on the rhinos and their chances for survival.
(A) This choice is too broad, as the paragraph focuses on the Javan rhino and only mentions its differences from some other rhinos to distinguish the species from others.  
(B) This answer choice describes the topic of the second paragraph, not the first.
(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph provides the known facts about the Javan rhino and indicates that much remains unknown.
(D) The steps taken to save the Javan rhino are only mentioned in the second paragraph; they do not appear in the first paragraph.
(E) The first paragraph only indicates the respective number of rhinos in Indonesia and Vietnam in passing, and does not mention the differences between the two groups. The fact that the two have evolved into separate sub-species is mentioned only in the second paragraph.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
The second paragraph perfo rms which of the following functions in the passage?
 
  • a)
    It offers specific information to complete the logic of the author’s claims.
  • b)
    It summarizes and evaluates the evidence given thus far.
  • c)
    It presents the author’s main point to explain a unique situation.
  • d)
    It cites a particular case to demonstrate the importance of historical change
  • e)
    It discusses the necessary outcome of the author’s assertions.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

We are asked to determine the role that the second paragraph plays in the passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, the author introduces his main point -- that commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development -- and begins a discussion about nutmeg. However, this discussion is incomplete at the end of the first paragraph. It is not until the second paragraph that we learn how nutmeg affected world development.
(A) CORRECT. The second paragraph offers specific information -- namely, the role that nutmeg played in the history of New York -- to support the claim that commonplace items play surprising roles in world history.
(B) The second paragraph does not summarize the evidence.
(C) The second paragraph does not present the author's main point - that commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. Also, the author's main point does not explain the importance of nutmeg as discussed in the second paragraph; rather, the importance of nutmeg is used as an example to illustrate the author's main point.
(D) The second paragraph demonstrates the relative importance of nutmeg in an event of historical significance, but it does not demonstrate the importance of historical change itself.
(E) The second paragraph does not discuss the outcomes, necessary or otherwise, of the author's claims. Instead, it offers evidence to support those claims. 

Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose interest. Other problems may also result from the emotional relationship between a dog and its owner.
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess biological detection mechanisms that are at least as effective as those of mammals.
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla.
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an odorant binding protein. This protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for easy detection by researchers.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s response. A technique developed by German biologist Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger a behavioral response. The recent developments in this direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.
Q.
Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude towards the prospects of using insects’ biological detection systems in practice?
  • a)
    Moderately optimistic
  • b)
    Completely neutral
  • c)
    Highly doubtful
  • d)
    Largely uninterested
  • e)
    Mildly pessimistic
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

When answering questions about the overall tone of the passage or attitude of the author, make sure to avoid extreme answer choices. Also, pay close attention to the qualifying words such as “moderately,” “mildly” or “slightly.” These words tone down the following adjective, thus making it more likely to be the correct answer.
(A) CORRECT. The whole passage provides an argument for the increased use of insects’ detection mechanisms. For example, in the second sentence of the first paragraph, the author states that “… insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity.” Also, the author concludes the passage by saying that “… the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.” These statements and the overall tone of the passage suggest that the author is generally optimistic about the use of the detection mechanisms of insects.  
(B) Since the whole passage makes an argument for a wider use of the biological detection systems of insects and discusses their advantages over mammals, the attitude of the author towards them is positive rather than completely neutral.
(C) Throughout the entire passage, the author discusses the advantages of insects’ detection systems and expresses optimism about their potential use in practice. For example, in the second sentence of the first paragraph, the author states that “… insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity.” Therefore, the attitude of the author cannot be described as highly doubtful.
(D) This answer is likely to be incorrect for the vast majority of GMAT passages. By definition, if the author writes a passage on a certain subject, she is unlikely to be uninterested in the subject area.
 (E) Throughout the entire passage, the author discusses the advantages of insects’ detection systems and expresses optimism about their potential use in practice. For example, the author concludes the passage by saying that “… the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.” Therefore, the attitude of the author cannot be described as mildly pessimistic. 

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about the Banda Islands?
  • a)
    The British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
  • b)
    Nutmeg was the only spice that grew on the islands.
  • c)
    Natives of the islands produced nutmeg from the nuts of the nutmeg tree.
  • d)
    The Banda Islands are still in the possession of the Dutch.
  • e)
    The local economy of the islands depended completely on nutmeg.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Background on the Banda Islands:
The passage provides information about the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific, and their significance in the nutmeg trade.

Explanation of the Correct Answer - Option A:
- The passage mentions that one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British, indicating that the British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
- The conflict between the Netherlands and England over control of the islands further supports the idea that the British were present in the Banda Islands prior to the Dutch.
Therefore, based on the information provided in the passage, option A is the correct answer as it is supported by the historical context presented.

In the early to mid-1980s, a business practice known as a “leveraged buyout” became popular as a method for companies to expand without having to spend any of their own assets. The leveraged buyout was not without its problems, however, and in time it came to represent in the public imagination not only corporate ingenuity and success, but also excess and greed. Many of the main corporate figures of the 1980s saw spectacular rises and, perhaps inevitably, spectacular falls as they abused the leveraged buyout as a means to extraordinary financial gain.
A leveraged buyout entails one company purchasing another using the assets of the purchased company as the collateral to secure the funds needed to buy that company. The leveraged buyout allows companies to take on debt that their own assets would have been insufficient to secure in order to finance expansion. The benefit of the leveraged buyout is obvious: companies with insufficient funds can still expand to compete with larger competitors. The drawbacks, however, became apparent only after the fact: the purchased company must perform extraordinarily well in order to generate the capital to pay off the loans that made the purchase possible in the first place. When the purchased company underperforms, the buyer must somehow find the money to pay off the loans. If such funds are not obtained, the buyer may be forced to sell off the company, or parts thereof, for less than the purchase price. In these cases, the buyer is still responsible for repaying the debt that is not covered by the sale price. Many of these deals resulted in the evisceration of the purchased companies, as subparts were sold to pay down the loans and employees were laid off to reduce costs and increase profits.
The most famous leveraged buyout is probably the 1988 purchase of RJR Nabisco by Kohlberg Kravis Roberts (“KKR”). The purchase price for the corporate giant RJR Nabisco was $25 billion, almost all of which was borrowed money. The takeover was “hostile,” meaning that RJR Nabisco resisted any overtures from potential buyers. KKR ultimately succeeded by buying a controlling interest in RJR Nabisco, thereby obtaining voting control over the company. By the mid-1990s, though, KKR had seen a reversal of fortune and was forced to sell off RJR Nabisco in order to relieve itself of the crushing debt load.
The 1980s were the heyday of the leveraged buyout, as lending institutions were willing to loan money for these ventures. When the deals turned out to be much riskier in life than on paper, the lenders turned away from the buyouts and returned to the notion that borrowers must possess adequate collateral of their own.
Q.
The author mentions the RJR Nabisco case most probably in order to emphasize which of the following points?
  • a)
    Leveraged buyouts are employed only by high-profile financiers.
  • b)
    Leveraged buyouts can be successfully utilized to purchase large companies.
  • c)
    RJR Nabisco could have resisted the hostile takeover.
  • d)
    Leveraged buyouts carry major risks in addition to their benefits.
  • e)
    Kohlberg Kravis Roberts was a lea der in the development of the leveraged buyout.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Ghoshal answered
RJR Nabisco Case Significance
The mention of the RJR Nabisco case in the context of leveraged buyouts serves to highlight the inherent risks associated with this financial strategy.
Key Points Supporting Option D:
- Illustration of Major Risks:
The RJR Nabisco buyout exemplifies how leveraged buyouts, while potentially lucrative, can lead to significant financial instability. KKR's initial success in acquiring the company was overshadowed by the crushing debt that followed.
- Debt Dependency:
The purchase was largely financed through borrowed money, indicating that the success of the buyout hinged on the company's ability to generate sufficient revenue to service that debt. When RJR Nabisco underperformed, KKR faced dire financial consequences.
- Consequences of Underperformance:
The eventual need for KKR to sell off RJR Nabisco due to its inability to manage the debt illustrates the vulnerability of companies involved in leveraged buyouts. This reinforces the idea that the potential for financial gain must be balanced against the risks of underperformance.
- Shift in Lending Practices:
The case also reflects a broader trend in the financial industry. After witnessing the risks associated with these buyouts, lenders became more cautious, emphasizing the need for borrowers to have adequate collateral.
In summary, the RJR Nabisco case serves as a cautionary tale about the potential pitfalls of leveraged buyouts, reinforcing the notion that they carry major risks alongside their benefits. This is why option D is the most appropriate answer.

Antibiotics are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The success of antibiotics against disease-causing bacteria is one of modern medicine’s great achievements. However, many bacteria harmful to humans have developed ways to circumvent the effects of antibiotics, and many infectious diseases are now much more difficult to treat than they were just a few decades ago. Antibiotic resistance is an especially difficult problem for hospitals with critically ill patients who are less able to fight off infections without the help of antibiotics.
Bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance because they have the ability to adapt quickly to new environmental conditions. Most commonly, bacteria share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids; these shared plasmids, which contain the genetic code enabling antibiotic resistance, can spread throughout a bacterial population to create a strain of resistant bacteria. Less commonly, a natural mutation that enables antibiotic resistance takes place within the chromosome of the bacteria, and the resulting strain of bacteria can reproduce and become dominant via natural selection. In the absence of human involvement, however, bacteria in the wild rarely develop resistance to antibiotics.
In the United States, animals raised on industrial-scale factory farms are routinely administered low levels of antibiotics in their feed not as a cure for ongoing maladies, but primarily as a growth-enhancing agent to produce more meat and also as a prophylactic measure to compensate for overcrowded and unsanitary conditions.
Currently, several antibiotics that are used in human medical treatment are administered non-therapeutically to healthy livestock and poultry. Examples include tetracycline, penicillin and erythromycin. This long-term non-therapeutic feeding of antibiotics to animals creates the ideal conditions for the development of antibioticresistant bacteria, as it kills the susceptible bacteria while leaving the resistant strains to reproduce and flourish.
Europe is far ahead of the United States in the responsible use of antibiotics: On January 1, 2006, the European Union banned the feeding of all antibiotics to livestock for nontherapeutic purposes. This sweeping policy follows a 1998 ban on the non-therapeutic use of four medically-important antibiotics on animals. The time has come for the United States to follow Europe’s lead.
Q.
Based on the information in the passage, to which of the following practices would the author most likely be opposed?
  • a)
    Hospitals are hiring higher numbers of infectious disease specialists than ever before.
  • b)
    provide specific examples of animals that are often eaten by catsMany health insurance policies do not or only partially reimburse patients for prescriptions of the newest and most effective antibiotics.
  • c)
    The industrial farm industry contributes more than $100 million to incumbent members of Congress each year.
  • d)
    Physicians routinely prescribe antibiotics to patients with viral diseases, even though antibiotics have no effect on viruses.
  • e)
    Hospitals are enforcing more stringent “hand-hygiene” standards in an effort to reduce infections.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Malik answered
1. 
This question is an example of a GMAT “application” question. An application question is a specialized case of an inference question that asks you to discern the relationship between situations or ideas presented by the author and other situations or ideas that are outside the scope of the passage; in this case, the question asks you to recognize an idea that the author would be likely to agree or disagree with based on the statements made in the passage. Unlike questions that test your ability to grasp specific portions of the passage, an application question usually requires you to grasp or infer the essential idea behind the author’s point of view, then apply this idea to something outside the scope of the passage. (Note: Application questions are usually among the more difficult GMAT reading comprehension questions.). The key to answering this question is recognizing that the author believes the “non-therapeutic” use of antibiotics is a major factor contributing to the spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria, that he does not consider this to be a responsible use of antibiotics, and that he takes a stand strongly opposing the practice. 
(A) The passage does not make any statements regarding the practice of hospitals hiring infectious diseases specialists so this answer choice is not relevant to the passage. If anything, since the author is concerned with the spread of anti-resistant bacteria, he would probably support this practice more than oppose it.
(B) The degree of reimbursement for newer antibiotics does not address the topic of the spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria and its causes. Hence, this answer is not relevant.
(C) There is nothing in the passage that directly links the amount of contributions made by the farming industry to Congress with anything that promotes the spread of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. The argument that such contributions might be linked to the level of government-imposed sanitary standards which might in turn be linked to the level of “preventive” use of antibiotics requires too many assumptions to make this the best answer. 
(D) CORRECT. Since antibiotics have no medically curative effect on patients with viral diseases, doctors prescribing such to a patient with a viral illness are administering the drugs in a “non-therapeutic” manner. The author specifically points out that the “non-therapeutic” or non-curative use of antibiotics creates conditions favorable for antibiotic-resistant bacteria to develop and implies that such use is not a "responsible" one. Therefore, this is a practice to which the author would very likely be opposed. (Note: Many doctors prescribe antibiotics to patients with viral diseases simply because they are asked to or expected to (do something) by the patient.)
(E) Since the author is generally concerned with bacterial infection and responsible use of antibiotics, this is a practice with which he or she would probably agree.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
  • a)
    tracing the history of a major city
  • b)
    discussing the role of spices in world development
  • c)
    offering a specific example to support a general claim
  • d)
    arguing for continued research into political history
  • e)
    presenting an innovative view of a commonplace item
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Focus of the Author:
The author is primarily interested in offering a specific example to support a general claim.

Explanation:
- The passage discusses the historical significance of nutmeg and how it played a surprising role in world development.
- The author uses the example of nutmeg to illustrate how this commonplace item had a significant impact on political history, specifically in the conflict between the Dutch and the British over control of the spice trade.
- By detailing the events surrounding the control of the Banda Islands and the exchange of New Amsterdam for the nutmeg trade, the author supports the general claim that commonplace items can have unexpected implications on global events.
- Through this specific example, the author highlights the broader idea that seemingly ordinary items can influence major historical developments.

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
According to the passage, all of the follow ing statements about jazz music are true EXCEPT:
  • a)
    Jazz music was first played in the twentieth century.
  • b)
    Jazz music was first played in New Orleans.
  • c)
    The instrumentation used in jazz music includes horns as well as stringed instruments.
  • d)
    Impromptu elements are a common characteristic of jazz performance.
  • e)
    There is disagreement among musicologists as to whether jazz music should be called an American art form.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Yash Rane answered
This is a specific question. We should be able to find evidence in the passage to support the truth of four of the answer choices. The “odd man out” will be the correct answer. 
(A) The second paragraph states “the jazz first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s…” 
(B) The third paragraph states “proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans …” (C) The second paragraph states “jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano.” The trumpet, trombone, and saxophone are horns, and the piano is a stringed instrument.
(D) The second paragraph states that there is an “emphasis on improvisation in jazz music.” 
(E) CORRECT. The passage clearly indicates that some musicologists believe jazz is “the only purely American form of music” while others “argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.” The point of disagreement is not whether jazz should be called American, but rather whether jazz should be called “purely” American. The author’s viewpoint is a good example. The author believes jazz comes from a complex convergence of traditions and cultures (not “purely” American). However, the author still believes jazz should be called an American art form: “to deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.”  

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
Which of the following best outlines the general structure of the passage?
  • a)
    The first paragraph presents two sides of an issue; the second paragraph subjectively presents background information relevant to the issue; the third paragraph summarizes the points made earlier in the passage.
  • b)
    The first paragraph introduces two differing viewpoints on an issue; the second paragraph objectively presents relevant information; the third paragraph describes the author’s opinion on the issue.
  • c)
    The first paragraph introduces two differing viewpoints on an issue; the second paragraph gives a comprehensive history of the debate; the third paragraph describes one person’s perspective on the debate.
  • d)
    The first paragraph presents two sides of an issue; the second paragraph presents newly discovered information relevant to the issue; the third paragraph summarizes the main points presented earlier in the passage.
  • e)
    The first paragraph introduces a controversy; the second paragraph presents background information relevant to the controversy; the third paragraph settles the controversy.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipanjan Mehra answered
The first paragraph introduces two sides of an issue, the second paragraph provides information relevant to the issue, but in a completely objective (or unbiased) manner, and the third paragraph concludes the passage by presenting the author’s take on the issue. 
(A) While the second paragraph presents background information relevant to the issue, it does so in an objective (or unbiased) way, not subjectively. The third paragraph does not “summarize points made earlier in the passage.”
(B) CORRECT. This answer choice correctly describes the structure of the passage.  The first paragraph introduces two differing viewpoints on an issue, the second paragraph objectively presents relevant information, and the third paragraph describes the author’s opinion on the issue.
(C) The second paragraph does not “give a comprehensive history of the debate.” This paragraph gives a brief history of jazz music, but not a history of the debate over the origins of jazz music. Also, “comprehensive” implies a complete and thorough history, an inaccurate description given the brief nature of this passage.
(D) We do not know that the information presented in the second paragraph is “newly discovered information.” Further, the third paragraph does not summarize points made earlier in the passage.
(E) While the first paragraph does present differing viewpoints, it does not necessarily introduce a “controversy.” “Controversy” implies a heated disagreement over an issue; this is a bit too strong given the tone of the passage. Further, even if it were a controversy, the last paragraph doesn’t “settle” anything; it merely gives the author’s opinion on the issue. 

For years, U.S. employers have counted on a steady flow of labor from Mexico willing to accept low-skilled, low paying jobs. These workers, many of whom leave economically depressed villages in the Mexican interior, are often more than willing to work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line.
However, thanks to a dramatic demographic shift currently taking place in Mexico, the seemingly inexhaustible supply of workers migrating from Mexico to the United States might one day greatly diminish if not cease.
Predictions of such a drastic decrease in the number of Mexican immigrants, both legal and illegal, are driven by Mexico’s rapidly diminishing population growth. As a result of a decades-long family planning campaign, most Mexicans are having far fewer children than was the norm a generation ago. The campaign, organized around the slogan that “the small family lives better,” saw the Mexican government establish family-planning clinics and offer free contraception. For nearly three decades, the government’s message concerning population hasn’t wavered. In fact, the Mexican Senate recently voted to extend public school sex education programs to kindergarten.
The result of Mexico’s efforts to stem population growth is nothing short of stunning. In 1968, the average Mexican woman had just fewer than seven children; today, the figure is slightly more than two. For two primary reasons, Mexico’s new demographics could greatly impact the number of Mexicans seeking work in the U.S. First, smaller families by their nature limit the pool of potential migrants.
Second, the slowing of Mexico’s population growth has fostered hope that Mexico will develop a healthy middle class of people content to make their livelihoods in their home country.
Though the former of these factors is all but assured, the growth of a healthy middle class is far from a foregone conclusion. The critical challenge for Mexico is what it does with the next 20 years. Mexico must invest in education, job training, and infrastructure, as well as a social-security system to protect its aging population.  If Mexico is willing to step forward and meet this challenge, America may one day wake up to find that, like cheap gasoline, cheap Mexican labor has become a thing of the past.
Q.
One function of the final paragraph of the passage is to
  • a)
    relate why the number of Mexican immigrants seeking work in the United States is certain to decline.
  • b)
    detail the successes of Mexico’s family planning campaign
  • c)
    explain why the number of Mexican immigrants seeking work in the United States may not dramatically decrease.
  • d)
    specify the types of infrastructure in which Mexico must invest.
  • e)
    notify American employers that they will soon need to find alternative sources of labor.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Yadav answered
Explanation:
Why the number of Mexican immigrants seeking work in the United States may not dramatically decrease:
- The final paragraph of the passage discusses the challenges that Mexico faces in developing a healthy middle class.
- It highlights the need for Mexico to invest in education, job training, infrastructure, and social security to support its population.
- This suggests that while the decrease in Mexican immigrants seeking work in the U.S. is possible, it is not guaranteed.
- If Mexico successfully addresses these challenges, it may not lead to a dramatic decrease in the number of Mexican immigrants seeking work in the United States.
Conclusion:
- Therefore, the function of the final paragraph is to explain why the number of Mexican immigrants seeking work in the United States may not dramatically decrease, emphasizing the importance of Mexico's actions in the coming years.

Scientific advances in the latter half of the twentieth century have allowed researchers to study the chemical activities taking place in the human brain during the sleep cycle in more detail. In the 1970s, Jacobs employed these advances to postulate that dreams and hallucinations share a common neurochemical mechanism with respect to the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine that accounts for the observable similarities between the two states of mind. To test the theory, researchers attempted to elucidate the role of these transmitters in the normal sleep cycle and the effect of hallucinogenic drugs on them.
Although scientists still have much to discover about the chemical complexities of the brain, serotonin appears important for managing sleep, mood, and appetite, among other important functions, while neurons release norepinephrine to facilitate alertness and mental focus.
Both are discharged in high quantities only during waking states. At the onset of sleep, the activity levels of neurons that release both the neurotransmitters drop, allowing the brain first to enter the four non-rapid eye movement (Non-REM) stages of sleep. When the brain is ready to enter the fifth stage, REM, which is associated with dreaming, the levels of these two chemicals drop virtually to zero. The Jacobs hypothesis held that the absence of norepinephrine was required to enable the brain to remain asleep, while the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur.
Lysergic acid diethylamide, or LSD, is a semi-synthetic psychedelic drug which causes significant alteration of the senses, memories and awareness; at doses higher than 20 micrograms, it can have a hallucinogenic effect.
LSD mimics serotonin well enough to be able to bind at most of the neurotransmitter’s receptor sites, largely inhibiting normal transmission. In addition, the drug causes the locus ceruleus, a cluster of neurons containing norepinephrine, to greatly accelerate activity. If the drug stimulates norepinephrine, thereby precluding sleep, and inhibits serotonin, which Jacobs had postulated was a necessary condition for dreaming, then the resulting hallucinations could merely be “dreaming while awake.” The research thus far is promising but inconclusive; future scientific advances should allow this theory to be tested more rigorously.
Q.
Which of the following best represents the author’s primary goal in writing the passage?
  • a)
    to outline a theory and suggest options for further research
  • b)
    to act as an advocate for additional research to help elucidate a particular theory’s validity
  • c)
    to introduce a theoretical construct that has not yet been sufficiently proven
  • d)
    to demonstrate the complexities involved in conducting a certain type of scientific research
  • e)
    to articulate a hypothesis and lay out the case for proving it
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Chauhan answered
We are asked to find the purpose of the passage. The first paragraph of the passage introduces a theory that seeks to show a link between dreams and hallucinations based upon two chemicals. The second paragraph elaborates on the role of the two chemicals in dreams and the third paragraph does the same for hallucinations. The third paragraph also concludes by noting that the theory remains unproven and would benefit from further testing.
(A) While the passage does outline a theory it does not suggest options for further research; it merely notes that further research would be beneficial.
(B) The author does not act as an advocate, or try to convince the audience of the need for additional research; instead, the author merely notes that further research would be beneficial. 
(C) CORRECT. A "theoretical construct" is equivalent to a theory; the author does introduce a theory that is "inconclusive," or not sufficiently proven.
(D) While the first sentence does imply that research associated with the brain is complex, the rest of the passage does not focus on this topic or attempt to demonstrate the specific complexities involved.
(E) While the passage does articulate a hypothesis, it only presents current research; it does not "lay out the case for proving it." In fact, the last sentence says the hypothesis is "inconclusive."

Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz ensembles were built predominantly on European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano. The West African influence on jazz was manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition to group participation, also came from West African music.
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.
Q.
The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
  • a)
    Although American football was derived from the English sports of soccer and rugby, it should be called a purely American sport because it was first played in America.
  • b)
    Because American football was derived from the English sports of soccer and rugby, it should not be called an American sport.
  • c)
    Most sports scholars deny the English origins of American football.
  • d)
    What makes American football essentially American is that it was derived from the convergence of English soccer and rugby.
  • e)
    Because the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots, American football should not be called an American sport.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Das answered
This is a general question. In order to determine with which statement the author would be most likely to agree, we must determine the author’s main point in writing the passage. A breakdown of the purpose of each paragraph will help. The first paragraph highlights two differing views concerning the roots of jazz music, the second paragraph discusses the diverse origins of jazz, and the third paragraph states the author’s view concerning the origins of jazz: namely, that jazz is truly American because it is rooted in the confluence of West African and European music. More generally, the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots,” or that to be American is to have a diverse background.
(A) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form, but not because it was first played in America.  Furthermore, the author believes that because of its origins in Europe and West Africa, not despite these origins. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins, not despite these origins.
(B) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form because of its origins in Europe and West Africa. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins.  Thus, this choice is backward. (C) We have no information about the beliefs of sports scholars.
(D) CORRECT. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe that the diverse origins of American football make it essentially American.
(E) Because the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots,” and because American football has diverse origins, the author would be likely to believe that American football should be called an American sport. Thus, this choice is backward.

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
The third paragraph of the passage serves to
  • a)
    point out possible disadvantages of Internet advertising
  • b)
    demonstrate the cost-effectiveness of Internet advertising
  • c)
    argue against proponents of print media
  • d)
    Provide further detail on the specific example mentioned in the second paragraph
  • e)
    contrast newspaper ads with television commercials
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Navya Yadav answered
Disadvantages of Internet Advertising
The third paragraph of the passage highlights the potential downsides of Internet advertising, making it clear that while it has benefits, it is not without its flaws.
Key Points on Limitations
- Print Media Advocacy: Proponents of print media argue that newspaper advertisements can effectively promote brand awareness, which they believe adds greater value than Internet ads.
- Issues of Fraud: The paragraph mentions fraud as a significant concern in Internet marketing, indicating that companies may face deceptive practices that undermine their advertising efforts.
- Intense Competition: The competitive nature of online marketing can lead to increased costs as companies vie for the same audience, which can diminish the perceived cost-effectiveness of Internet advertising.
- Complexity of Web Tools: The rise of ancillary services, which companies must hire to navigate intricate web-tracking tools, adds additional costs that may not be immediately apparent to businesses using Internet marketing.
Conclusion
The third paragraph serves to point out these disadvantages, illustrating that while Internet advertising offers targeted outreach and measurable outcomes, it also brings challenges that can complicate its effectiveness and cost efficiency. Thus, the correct answer is option 'A', as it emphasizes the potential drawbacks rather than advocating for the merits of Internet advertising.

Despite its 1989 designation as a threatened species under the federal Endangered Species Act, the desert tortoise, Gopherus agassizii, has declined in numbers by ninety percent since the 1980s. Although federal protection made it illegal to harm desert tortoises or remove them from the wild of the southwestern North American deserts, this measure has been insufficient to reverse the species’ decline, and further intervention is required.
Recovery has been slow, partly due to the desert tortoise’s low reproductive potential. Females breed only after reaching full size at fifteen to twenty years of age, and even then may only lay eggs when adequate forage is available. Although the number of eggs in each clutch varies, and each female might lay a few clutches in one season, the average mature female produces only a few eggs annually. From these precious eggs, hatchlings emerge wearing soft shells that will harden slowly into protective armor over the next five years. The vulnerable young are entirely neglected by adult tortoises, and only five percent ultimately reach adulthood.
Predators are blamed for most tortoise deaths; ravens, specifically, are estimated to cause more than half of the juvenile tortoise deaths in the Mojave Desert. Tortoise eggs and juveniles, with their delicate shells, can fall prey to many birds, mammals, and other reptiles. For protection from predators, as well as from desert temperature extremes, tortoises of all ages burrow into the earth.
However, if rabbits and rodents are scarce, larger mammalian predators may dig tortoises out of their burrows, devouring even mature tortoises despite their hardened shells.
Even with current protections from human interference, the desert tortoise faces a tough recovery, so additional measures must be taken. First, the limited habitat of desert tortoises, with soil suitable for their burrows, must be protected from development. Next, urban expansion often has the unintended effect of increasing raven populations, so aggressive measures to control the birds are necessary to increase desert tortoise hatchling survival rates. Finally, released captive tortoises typically perish, and can pass upper respiratory tract disease into the wild population with devastating consequences, so continuing education of pet tortoise owners is essential.
Q.
Previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise are regarded by the author with
  • a)
    weary skepticism
  • b)
    complete satisfaction
  • c)
    implied opposition
  • d)
    qualified approval
  • e)
    overt disdain
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Choudhury answered
The previous measure to protect the desert tortoise mentioned in the passage is the designation of the species as threatened under the federal Endangered Species Act. The author certainly agrees that the desert tortoise is a threatened species: the second and third paragraphs discuss several problems faced by the species. However, the author believes that the previous efforts have “been insufficient to reverse the species’ decline” (last line of the first paragraph) and that “even with current protections…the desert tortoise faces a tough recovery, so additional measures must be taken” (first line of the last paragraph).
(A) The author is not skeptical of the previous efforts; rather the author agrees with them but feels that they have not gone far enough.
(B) The author feels that the previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise have been insufficient, so while the author may have regard for those efforts, “complete satisfaction” is too strongly worded.
(C) The author does not imply opposition to the previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise; the author agrees with those efforts, but feels that they have been insufficient. 
(D) CORRECT. The author does approve of the designation of the desert tortoise as a threatened species, but qualifies that approval with the assertion that “additional measures must be taken.” 
(E) The author is not disdainful of the previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise; the author supports those efforts, but feels that they have been insufficient. 

New research by Paul Fildes and K. Whitaker challenges the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate by withholding a metabolite necessary for their regular function. In particular, they consider the case of bacteria typhosum, which needs tryptophan in order to reproduce. Earlier researchers had grown the bacteria in a medium somewhat deficient in tryptophan and observed the growth of mutant strains of the bacteria which did not need tryptophan in order to reproduce.
Fildes and Whitaker argue that the withholding of tryptophan did not induce these mutant strains of bacteria.
Rather, these mutants were already present in the original sample of bacteria typhosum, albeit in a concentration too small to detect. In experimenting with the bacteria grown in agar cultures, they found that by plating out huge quantities of the bacteria, one could locate mutant strains. Because of the possibility that the lack of uniformity of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant strains, they conducted similar experiments with liquid cultures and again found that mutant strains of the bacteria were present in the original sampling. From these experiments, Fildes and Whitaker conclude that the mutants are of genetic origin and are not induced by environmental training. They asserted that the concentration of tryptophan is unrelated to the appearance of these mutants in the bacteria.
To confirm these results, Fildes and Whitaker used an innovative plating technique using pile fabrics, such as velvet or velveteen, to accurately imprint the growth found on an original agar plate to a series of replica agar plates.
The process entails taking the original agar plate, inverting it onto the velvet while using light finger pressure to transfer growth, and then imprinting the fabric, with its pattern of growth, on the new agar plates. By using this replica plating method, Fildes and Whitaker demonstrated that the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted, as the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate.
Q.
Which of the following most accurately states the purpose of the passage?
  • a)
    To defend a scientific hypothesis from attack by an innovative technique
  • b)
    To describe a process by which bacteria can be trained to mutate
  • c)
    To present the results of an experiment designed to test an established theory
  • d)
    To argue against an established protocol on the grounds that it is outdated
  • e)
    To challenge a scientific technique used to prove a questionable theory
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The question asks for the purpose of the passage. The passage focuses on an experiment designed to challenge an existing theory about bacteria. The correct answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus.  
(A) The “innovative technique” is the replica plating method discussed in the third paragraph. This technique was used to support the scientific hypothesis of Fildes and Whitaker. Thus, the passage did not need to “defend [Fildes and Whitaker’s] scientific hypothesis from attack by [the] innovative technique.” In addition, the passage did not even defend the theory that Fildes and Whitaker were challenging.
(B) The first sentence of the passage makes it clear that the focus will be to “challenge the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate,” not to describe a process by which such training was accomplished.
(C) CORRECT. The second and third paragraphs discuss the experiments performed by Fildes and Whitaker that were designed to test the established theory, mentioned in the first paragraph, that “strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate.” This answer choice summarizes the entire passage.
(D) Fildes and Whitaker argue against a theory, not an established protocol. There is no mention in the passage that a particular protocol is outdated.
(E) The passage does not state that either Fildes and Whitaker’s theory, or the theory they were challenging was questionable. The passage describes, but does not “challenge,” several scientific techniques. 

A recent ball-catching experiment conducted in space by astronauts on board a space shuttle has led neuroscientists to conclude that the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent. At the same time, the experiment provided evidence that the brain can adapt to environments in which the force of downward acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth.
The experiment’s outcomes suggested that an individual’s understanding of motion is hard-wired from an earthcentric perspective. In the experiment, the astronauts were asked to catch balls released from a spring-loaded cannon.
Analyzing data gathered from infrared tracking cameras and electrodes placed on the astronauts’ arms, McIntyre, the experiment’s principal designer, noticed that the astronauts’ anticipation of the ball’s motion was slightly off. Though they were able to catch the ball, the astronauts expected the ball to move faster than it did. He theorized that this over-anticipation is due to the fact that the brain expects the force of the earth’s gravity to act on the ball.
The experiment also demonstrates the brain’s ability to adjust to conditions that run counter to its pre-set wiring.
While the astronauts did not adapt to the conditions in space for some time, by day 15 of the experiment, the amplitude of the premature arm movements decreased and a new well-timed arm movement immediately preceded the catch. Upon returning to earth, the astronauts again mis-anticipated the ball’s motion, though this time the ball moved faster than anticipated. However, the astronauts were able to adjust back to the earth’s gravitational effect on the balls much more quickly than they had been able to adapt to the conditions in space.
Many scientists view the findings as a first step in research that could have serious practical benefits. The ability of astronauts to safely explore space and investigate other planets is dependent on understanding the differences between our physical reactions on earth and elsewhere.
On another level, understanding timing processes in the body might lead to the development of treatments for coordination problems experienced by individuals with certain types of brain damage.
Q.
According to the passage, research suggests that the brain’s built-in understanding of gravity is
  • a)
    space-centric
  • b)
    adaptable
  • c)
    fleeting
  • d)
    weak
  • e)
    evolving
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The passage describes certain explicit features of the brain's built-in understanding of gravity. The correct answer choice must be directly provable using the specific language contained in the passage.
(A) The brain's built in-understanding of gravity is, according to the passage, "hardwired from an earth-centric perspective," not a space-centric one.
(B) CORRECT. One of the major outcomes of the experiment described in the passage is that "the brain can adapt to environments in which the force of downward acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth."
(C) According to the passage, the neuroscientists concluded that "the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent." To describe the brain's understanding of gravity as "fleeting" directly contradicts the word "persistent."  
(D) According to the passage, the neuroscientists concluded that "the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent." To describe the brain's understanding of gravity as "weak" directly contradicts the word "powerful."
(E) The passage never describes the brain's built-in understanding of gravity as "evolving." While scientists' understanding of the brain's hard-wiring may evolve, there is nothing in the passage that suggests that the hard-wiring itself is evolving. 

The single-celled parasite known as Toxoplasma gondii infects more than half of the world’s human population without creating any noticeable symptoms. Once inside the human body, Toxoplasma rapidly spreads to the heart and other organs. It can even penetrate the tight barrier that normally protects the brain from most pathogens.
Yet, the blood of infected persons carries very few freefloating Toxoplasma cells. Scientists have long been puzzled by this ability of Toxoplasma to parasitize the human body without triggering an immune response and without an appreciable presence in the bloodstream.
Recent research, however, has shed light on the ways in which Toxoplasma achieves its remarkable infiltration of the human body.
Though there are few individual Toxoplasma cells coursing freely in the blood of an infected person, scientists have discovered that the parasite is quite common in certain cells, known as dendritic cells, involved in the human immune system. Dendritic cells are found in the digestive tract and frequently come into contact with the various pathogens that enter the human body through food and water. When the dendritic cells encounter pathogens, they travel to lymph nodes and relay this information to other immune cells that then take action against the reported pathogen. Scientists have found, however, that Toxoplasma is capable of hijacking dendritic cells, forcing them from their usual activity and using them as a form of transportation to infect the human body quickly. Without this transport mechanism, Toxoplasma could not reach the better-protected areas of the body.
Toxoplasma invades the human body through consumption of the undercooked meat of infected animals, primarily pigs and chickens. Other animals, such as cats, can become infected as well. In fact, cats are a necessary component in the reproductive cycle of Toxoplasma, since the animal’s intestines are the parasite’s sole breeding ground.
Toxoplasma creates egg-like cysts, known as oocysts, in the cats’ intestines. These oocysts are shed in the cats’ droppings and contaminate ground water and soil, eventually finding their way into the food chain. Because Toxoplasma must somehow find its way into a new host cat in order to reproduce, it cannot kill its current host.
Instead, it waits for the host, usually a small rodent, to be eaten by a cat, thus providing Toxoplasma the opportunity to reproduce.
Q.
According to the passage, all of the following are true of Toxoplasma gondii EXCEPT
  • a)
    it can contaminate ground water
  • b)
    it enters the human body through the food chain
  • c)
    it can alter the usual behavior of human cells
  • d)
    the human body is incapable of detecting it
  • e)
    it must find a host cat in order to reproduce
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Hridoy Gupta answered
We are asked to determine which one of the five choices is NOT true of Toxoplasma, according to the passage. In other words, four of the five choices are stated in the passage and one choice is not. The choice that is not stated is the correct answer.
(A) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can contaminate soil and water.
(B) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma enters the human body through contaminated food. 
(C) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma alters the behavior of human dendritic cells.
(D) CORRECT. The word "incapable" in this answer choice is too strong; the passage does not state that the human body cannot detect Toxoplasma. Rather, it merely indicates that Toxoplasma does not trigger the body's immune system in the same way as other parasites. We have no information about the human body's ability to detect free-floating Toxoplasma cells.
(E) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can breed in a host cat only. 

In the early to mid-1980s, a business practice known as a “leveraged buyout” became popular as a method for companies to expand without having to spend any of their own assets. The leveraged buyout was not without its problems, however, and in time it came to represent in the public imagination not only corporate ingenuity and success, but also excess and greed. Many of the main corporate figures of the 1980s saw spectacular rises and, perhaps inevitably, spectacular falls as they abused the leveraged buyout as a means to extraordinary financial gain.
A leveraged buyout entails one company purchasing another using the assets of the purchased company as the collateral to secure the funds needed to buy that company. The leveraged buyout allows companies to take on debt that their own assets would have been insufficient to secure in order to finance expansion. The benefit of the leveraged buyout is obvious: companies with insufficient funds can still expand to compete with larger competitors. The drawbacks, however, became apparent only after the fact: the purchased company must perform extraordinarily well in order to generate the capital to pay off the loans that made the purchase possible in the first place. When the purchased company underperforms, the buyer must somehow find the money to pay off the loans. If such funds are not obtained, the buyer may be forced to sell off the company, or parts thereof, for less than the purchase price. In these cases, the buyer is still responsible for repaying the debt that is not covered by the sale price. Many of these deals resulted in the evisceration of the purchased companies, as subparts were sold to pay down the loans and employees were laid off to reduce costs and increase profits.
The most famous leveraged buyout is probably the 1988 purchase of RJR Nabisco by Kohlberg Kravis Roberts (“KKR”). The purchase price for the corporate giant RJR Nabisco was $25 billion, almost all of which was borrowed money. The takeover was “hostile,” meaning that RJR Nabisco resisted any overtures from potential buyers. KKR ultimately succeeded by buying a controlling interest in RJR Nabisco, thereby obtaining voting control over the company. By the mid-1990s, though, KKR had seen a reversal of fortune and was forced to sell off RJR Nabisco in order to relieve itself of the crushing debt load.
The 1980s were the heyday of the leveraged buyout, as lending institutions were willing to loan money for these ventures. When the deals turned out to be much riskier in life than on paper, the lenders turned away from the buyouts and returned to the notion that borrowers must possess adequate collateral of their own.
Q.
The primary purpose of the passage is to
  • a)
    criticize the motives of those who use risky financial strategies
  • b)
    challenge a common perception of financiers
  • c)
    describe the evolution and application of a certain financial device
  • d)
    explain the popularity of leveraged buyouts during a certain period
  • e)
    argue that leveraged buyouts are detrimental to overall financial health
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Das answered
The answer to a question that asks about "primary purpose" must take the entirety of the passage into account. Since the author never states an opinion about the subject of the passage, the primary purpose of the passage cannot be characterized by any verb that requires an opinion.
(A) This choice begins with "criticize", which requires an opinion.
(B)This choice begins with "challenge", which requires an opinion.
(C) CORRECT. The passage was concerned with describing how leveraged buyouts are used and how their status changed over time. This is reflected in this choice.
(D) This choice begins with "explain", which is neutral. However, the passage as a whole was not concerned with the "popularity of leveraged buyouts during a certain period."
(E) This choice begins with "argue," which requires an opinion.  

Antibiotics are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The success of antibiotics against disease-causing bacteria is one of modern medicine’s great achievements. However, many bacteria harmful to humans have developed ways to circumvent the effects of antibiotics, and many infectious diseases are now much more difficult to treat than they were just a few decades ago. Antibiotic resistance is an especially difficult problem for hospitals with critically ill patients who are less able to fight off infections without the help of antibiotics.
Bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance because they have the ability to adapt quickly to new environmental conditions. Most commonly, bacteria share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids; these shared plasmids, which contain the genetic code enabling antibiotic resistance, can spread throughout a bacterial population to create a strain of resistant bacteria. Less commonly, a natural mutation that enables antibiotic resistance takes place within the chromosome of the bacteria, and the resulting strain of bacteria can reproduce and become dominant via natural selection. In the absence of human involvement, however, bacteria in the wild rarely develop resistance to antibiotics.
In the United States, animals raised on industrial-scale factory farms are routinely administered low levels of antibiotics in their feed not as a cure for ongoing maladies, but primarily as a growth-enhancing agent to produce more meat and also as a prophylactic measure to compensate for overcrowded and unsanitary conditions.
Currently, several antibiotics that are used in human medical treatment are administered non-therapeutically to healthy livestock and poultry. Examples include tetracycline, penicillin and erythromycin. This long-term non-therapeutic feeding of antibiotics to animals creates the ideal conditions for the development of antibioticresistant bacteria, as it kills the susceptible bacteria while leaving the resistant strains to reproduce and flourish.
Europe is far ahead of the United States in the responsible use of antibiotics: On January 1, 2006, the European Union banned the feeding of all antibiotics to livestock for nontherapeutic purposes. This sweeping policy follows a 1998 ban on the non-therapeutic use of four medically-important antibiotics on animals. The time has come for the United States to follow Europe’s lead.
Q.
According to the passage, which of the following describes how bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance?
  • a)
    Radiation from medical devices such as x -ray machines weaken the immune system in both humans and animals.
  • b)
    Resistant strains developed through genetic engineering dominate a bacterial population through natural selection.
  • c)
    Medical practitioners over-prescribe antibiotics in hospitals which encourages bacteria to adapt and form resistant strains.
  • d)
    Genetic material containing the resistant trait is shared among a bacterial population.
  • e)
    Many antibiotics lose potency and become ineffective over time.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirban Das answered
The question asks for information specifically stated in the passage although in slightly different language. Paragraph two describes two methods by which bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance.
(A) The passage does not mention the effects of radiation on bacteria.
(B) The passage states that natural mutations can become dominant via natural selection. However, genetic engineering is not a “natural” process by which mutation occurs.
(C) While this may be true, the over-prescribing of antibiotics in hospitals is not a practice mentioned in the passage. Remember: the correct answer must be based “according to the passage….”
(D) CORRECT. In paragraph two, the passage specifically states that “bacteria share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids … [which] … can reproduce and become dominant via natural selection.”
(E) The loss of potency and effectiveness of antibiotics over time is described as an effect of antibiotic resistance, not a cause or a method by which it is developed. 

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.
Q.
According to the author, which of the following is the principal reason that German reunification could
succeed?
  • a)
    The additional population from East Germany gave the reunified Germany an economic advantage over other European nations.
  • b)
    East Germany had not been as impoverished as other Eastern Bloc countries.
  • c)
    West Germany did not plan to control internal migration from East Germany.
  • d)
    West Germany patterned its economic plan after a successful Italian model.
  • e)
    West Germany was a materially stable country
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
The question asks us to identify the author's reason for believing that German reunification could succeed. According to the last sentence of the passage, "[reunification] would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task." In other words, West Germany was prosperous enough to afford this major undertaking. (A) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East Germany
(B) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East Germany.
(C) Although this point is made in the passage, it is not the reason given for reunification's success. (D) This is not the reason given in the last sentence for reunification's success.
(E) CORRECT.  This choice reflects the information we were looking for: the country was "materially stable," or prosperous enough, to succeed. 

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