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All questions of Mock Tests for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following pairs: State Tribes
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?- a)2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs: State Tribes
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a)
2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Upsc Toppers answered |
- Zeliang is a tribe in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Khasis are a tribe in Assam.
- Mismi is a tribe in Nagaland.
Therefore, the correct pairings are Arunachal Pradesh - Zeliang, Assam - Khasis, and Nagaland - Mismi.
Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
1. The commission has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
2. The commission submits its annual or special reports to the governor of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
1. The commission has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
2. The commission submits its annual or special reports to the governor of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The commission has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
2. The commission submits its annual or special reports to the governor of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Spectrum Coaching Institute answered |
- The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the state level. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
- The Commission may take any of the following steps during or upon the completion of an inquiry:
- it may recommend to the state government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim;
- it may recommend to the state government or authority the initiation of proceedings for prosecution or any other action against the guilty public servant;
- it may recommend to the state government or authority for the grant of immediate interim relief to the victim;
- it may approach the Supreme Court or the state high court for the necessary directions, orders or writs
- From the above, It’s clear that the functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the state government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Commission submits its annual or special reports to the state government. These reports are laid before the state legislature, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the Commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the President of India?
1. Article 123 empowers the president to promulgate ordinances.
2. He can promulgate the ordinance when either of the Houses are not in session.
3. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)Only one statement is correct
- b)Only 2 statements are correct
- c)All the statements are correct
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the President of India?
1. Article 123 empowers the president to promulgate ordinances.
2. He can promulgate the ordinance when either of the Houses are not in session.
3. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Article 123 empowers the president to promulgate ordinances.
2. He can promulgate the ordinance when either of the Houses are not in session.
3. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
Only one statement is correct
b)
Only 2 statements are correct
c)
All the statements are correct
d)
None of the above
 | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Option (c) is correct:
Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. But, the exercises of this power is subject to the following four limitations: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him to take immediate action. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. His ordinance-making power is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law-making powers of the Parliament.
This has two implications:
Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. But, the exercises of this power is subject to the following four limitations: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him to take immediate action. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. His ordinance-making power is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law-making powers of the Parliament.
This has two implications:
- An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
- An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitation as an act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Every ordinance issued by the President during the recess of parliament must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament when it reassembles. If the ordinance is approved by both the Houses, it becomes an act. If Parliament takes no action at all, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament. The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the prescribed six weeks, if both the Houses of Parliament pass resolutions disapproving it. The President can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, his power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.
Consider the following statements in reference to Money Bill:
1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. Rajya sabha cannot suggest amendments to the bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements in reference to Money Bill:
1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. Rajya sabha cannot suggest amendments to the bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. Rajya sabha cannot suggest amendments to the bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Saptarshi Chakraborty answered |
Understanding Money Bills in India
In the context of Indian parliamentary procedure, a Money Bill is defined under Article 110 of the Constitution. Let's explore the statements provided:
Statement 1: Definition of Money Bill
- A Money Bill is deemed to contain provisions relating to:
- Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
- Government expenditure or revenue.
- Borrowing of money by the government.
- Any other matter incidental to the above.
Thus, statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes a key characteristic of a Money Bill.
Statement 2: Rajya Sabha's Role
- The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) cannot suggest amendments to a Money Bill.
- It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may choose to accept or reject.
- This limitation is due to the constitutional provision that Money Bills are primarily a matter of financial legislation, which the Lok Sabha has exclusive control over.
Therefore, statement 2 is also correct in affirming the Rajya Sabha’s restricted role regarding Money Bills.
Conclusion
- Both statements correctly reflect the provisions and limitations associated with Money Bills in India.
- However, since the question asks for the correct statement(s), the answer should reflect that both statements are indeed correct, leading to a different conclusion than initially suggested.
Thus, a reevaluation indicates that both statements should be validated, leading us to the correct answer of option 'c' (Both 1 and 2), rather than just option 'a'.
In the context of Indian parliamentary procedure, a Money Bill is defined under Article 110 of the Constitution. Let's explore the statements provided:
Statement 1: Definition of Money Bill
- A Money Bill is deemed to contain provisions relating to:
- Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
- Government expenditure or revenue.
- Borrowing of money by the government.
- Any other matter incidental to the above.
Thus, statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes a key characteristic of a Money Bill.
Statement 2: Rajya Sabha's Role
- The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) cannot suggest amendments to a Money Bill.
- It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may choose to accept or reject.
- This limitation is due to the constitutional provision that Money Bills are primarily a matter of financial legislation, which the Lok Sabha has exclusive control over.
Therefore, statement 2 is also correct in affirming the Rajya Sabha’s restricted role regarding Money Bills.
Conclusion
- Both statements correctly reflect the provisions and limitations associated with Money Bills in India.
- However, since the question asks for the correct statement(s), the answer should reflect that both statements are indeed correct, leading to a different conclusion than initially suggested.
Thus, a reevaluation indicates that both statements should be validated, leading us to the correct answer of option 'c' (Both 1 and 2), rather than just option 'a'.
Which of the following rights are a part of the Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?
1. Right not to be driven out of a state
2. Right to travel abroad
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to the road in hilly areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)3 and 4 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)1, 2 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following rights are a part of the Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?
1. Right not to be driven out of a state
2. Right to travel abroad
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to the road in hilly areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Right not to be driven out of a state
2. Right to travel abroad
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to the road in hilly areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
3 and 4 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
1, 2 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
 | BT Educators answered |
- Article 21 declares that nperson shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according tthe procedure established by law. This right is available tboth citizens and non-citizens.
- The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent cases.
- It has declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
- Right tlive with human dignity.
- Right ta decent environment including pollution-free water and air and protection against hazardous
- industries.
- Right tlivelihood.
- Right tprivacy.
- Right tshelter.
- Right thealth.
- Right tfree education up t14 years of age.
- Right tfree legal aid.
- Right against solitary confinement.
- Right ta speedy trial.
- Right against handcuffing.
- Right against inhuman treatment.
- Right against delayed execution.
- Right ttravel abroad. Hence, option 2 is correct.
- Right against bonded labour.
- Right against custodial harassment.
- Right temergency medical aid.
- Right ttimely medical treatment in government hospitals.
- Right not tbe driven out of a state. Hence, option 1 is correct.
- Right ta fair trial.
- Right of the prisoner thave necessities of life.
- Right of women tbe treated with decency and dignity.
- Right against public hanging.
- Right tthe road in hilly areas. Hence, option 4 is correct.
- Right tinformation.
- Right treputation.
- Right of appeal from a judgement of conviction
- Right tfamily pension
- Right tsocial and economic justice and empowerment
- Right against bar fetters
- Right tappropriate life insurance policy
- Right tsleep
- Right tfreedom from noise pollution
- Right tsustainable development
- Right topportunity.
- Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(1)(a))
- o It implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief and convictions freely by word of mouth, writing, printing, picturing or in any other manner. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following:
- Right to propagate one’s views as well as the views of others. (b) Freedom of the press.
- Freedom of commercial advertisements.
- Right to telecast, the government has no monopoly on electronic media.
- Right against bundh called by a political party or organisation. (g) Right to know about government activities.
- Freedom of silence. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
- Right against the imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper. (j) Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.
- The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
With reference to the ‘Antitrust Laws in India’, consider the following statements:- These are designed to promote fair competition and prevent monopolistic practices.
- The primary legislation governing antitrust issues is the Competition Act, 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the ‘Antitrust Laws in India’, consider the following statements:
- These are designed to promote fair competition and prevent monopolistic practices.
- The primary legislation governing antitrust issues is the Competition Act, 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Harshad Nambiar answered |
Overview of Antitrust Laws in India
Antitrust laws, also known as competition laws, are crucial for maintaining a healthy economic environment. In India, these laws aim to promote fair competition and prevent monopolistic practices that can harm consumers and the economy.
Key Statements Analyzed
1. Promotion of Fair Competition
- Antitrust laws in India are indeed designed to foster a competitive market landscape.
- They aim to prevent anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant positions, and regulate mergers that may adversely affect competition.
2. Primary Legislation
- The primary legislation that governs antitrust issues in India is the Competition Act, 2002.
- This Act replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 and established the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to oversee and enforce competition laws.
Conclusion
Both statements provided in the question are accurate:
- Antitrust laws promote fair competition and mitigate monopolistic practices.
- The Competition Act, 2002 serves as the cornerstone of antitrust legislation in India.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. This emphasizes the importance of legal frameworks in ensuring a balanced and competitive market in India.
Antitrust laws, also known as competition laws, are crucial for maintaining a healthy economic environment. In India, these laws aim to promote fair competition and prevent monopolistic practices that can harm consumers and the economy.
Key Statements Analyzed
1. Promotion of Fair Competition
- Antitrust laws in India are indeed designed to foster a competitive market landscape.
- They aim to prevent anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant positions, and regulate mergers that may adversely affect competition.
2. Primary Legislation
- The primary legislation that governs antitrust issues in India is the Competition Act, 2002.
- This Act replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 and established the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to oversee and enforce competition laws.
Conclusion
Both statements provided in the question are accurate:
- Antitrust laws promote fair competition and mitigate monopolistic practices.
- The Competition Act, 2002 serves as the cornerstone of antitrust legislation in India.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. This emphasizes the importance of legal frameworks in ensuring a balanced and competitive market in India.
Which of the following Supreme Court verdicts is either directly or indirectly related to the Right to Life and Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1. AK Gopalan Case
2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
3. Puttaswamy Case
4. Vishaka Guidelines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1, 2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following Supreme Court verdicts is either directly or indirectly related to the Right to Life and Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1. AK Gopalan Case
2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
3. Puttaswamy Case
4. Vishaka Guidelines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. AK Gopalan Case
2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
3. Puttaswamy Case
4. Vishaka Guidelines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
| | BT Educators answered |
- The Vishaka guidelines mentions about the security needed for women in workplace which inhibits, right to decency and dignity under Article 21. So, Option (d) could be arrived.
- In the famous Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21. It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law.
- This is because of the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21, which is different from the expression ‘due process of law’ contained in the American Constitution. In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21.
- Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair, and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
- In the seminal Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court of India ordered, that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal freedom guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under Article 21. Vishaka Guidelines were laid down by the Supreme Court in Vishaka and Others Vs. State of Rajasthan and Others case (1997) deals against sexual harassment in the workplace.
- These Guidelines States that 'All employers or persons in charge of work place whether in the public or private sector should take appropriate steps to prevent sexual harassment.' Article 21 of the Indian constitution, gives force to the guidelines by giving the right to women to be treated with decency and dignity. So, Option (d) is correct.
With respect to Hoysala Architecture Style, consider the following statements :
1. Hoysala temples are a Dravida style of architecture that evolved under the Hoysala Empire's rule in the Southern Deccan region.
2. Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is an example of Hoysala architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With respect to Hoysala Architecture Style, consider the following statements :
1. Hoysala temples are a Dravida style of architecture that evolved under the Hoysala Empire's rule in the Southern Deccan region.
2. Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is an example of Hoysala architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Hoysala temples are a Dravida style of architecture that evolved under the Hoysala Empire's rule in the Southern Deccan region.
2. Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is an example of Hoysala architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Ananya Patel answered |
Hoysala Architecture Style
Hoysala Architecture is a distinct architectural style that evolved under the rule of the Hoysala Empire in the Southern Deccan region of India. It is known for its intricate and ornate designs, exquisite craftsmanship, and unique architectural features. Let's examine the given statements to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Hoysala temples are a Dravida style of architecture that evolved under the Hoysala Empire's rule in the Southern Deccan region.
The Dravida style of architecture is one of the main architectural styles in South India. It is characterized by its pyramidical tower-like structures called Vimanas, intricate carvings, and pillared halls. The Hoysala Architecture style indeed draws inspiration from the Dravida style. The Hoysala temples feature intricate carvings of gods, goddesses, animals, and mythical creatures on their outer walls. The Vimanas of the Hoysala temples are typically star-shaped or multi-tiered.
Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is an example of Hoysala architecture.
The Chennakeshava temple, located in Belur, Karnataka, is a prime example of Hoysala architecture. It was built during the reign of King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. The temple is dedicated to Lord Chennakeshava (a form of Lord Vishnu) and is renowned for its architectural brilliance. The temple's outer walls are adorned with intricate sculptures depicting various mythological stories and scenes from Hindu epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana. The temple's Vimana is star-shaped, which is a characteristic feature of Hoysala architecture.
Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
Conclusion:
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The Hoysala temples indeed exhibit the Dravida style of architecture, and the Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is a famous example of Hoysala architecture.
Hoysala Architecture is a distinct architectural style that evolved under the rule of the Hoysala Empire in the Southern Deccan region of India. It is known for its intricate and ornate designs, exquisite craftsmanship, and unique architectural features. Let's examine the given statements to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Hoysala temples are a Dravida style of architecture that evolved under the Hoysala Empire's rule in the Southern Deccan region.
The Dravida style of architecture is one of the main architectural styles in South India. It is characterized by its pyramidical tower-like structures called Vimanas, intricate carvings, and pillared halls. The Hoysala Architecture style indeed draws inspiration from the Dravida style. The Hoysala temples feature intricate carvings of gods, goddesses, animals, and mythical creatures on their outer walls. The Vimanas of the Hoysala temples are typically star-shaped or multi-tiered.
Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is an example of Hoysala architecture.
The Chennakeshava temple, located in Belur, Karnataka, is a prime example of Hoysala architecture. It was built during the reign of King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. The temple is dedicated to Lord Chennakeshava (a form of Lord Vishnu) and is renowned for its architectural brilliance. The temple's outer walls are adorned with intricate sculptures depicting various mythological stories and scenes from Hindu epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana. The temple's Vimana is star-shaped, which is a characteristic feature of Hoysala architecture.
Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
Conclusion:
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The Hoysala temples indeed exhibit the Dravida style of architecture, and the Chennakeshava temple in Karnataka is a famous example of Hoysala architecture.
Consider the following pairs :
Paleolithic Site : River basin
1. Nevasa - Tapti
2. Patne - Godavari
3. Belan valley - Ganga
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?- a)None of the pairs
- b)Only one pair
- c)Only two pairs
- d)All three pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs :
Paleolithic Site : River basin
1. Nevasa - Tapti
2. Patne - Godavari
3. Belan valley - Ganga
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Paleolithic Site : River basin
1. Nevasa - Tapti
2. Patne - Godavari
3. Belan valley - Ganga
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
a)
None of the pairs
b)
Only one pair
c)
Only two pairs
d)
All three pairs
| | Akshara Menon answered |
Explanation:
1. Nevasa - Tapti
- Nevasa is indeed a Paleolithic site located in the Tapti river basin. This pair is correctly matched.
2. Patne - Godavari
- Patne is a Paleolithic site situated in the Godavari river basin. This pair is also correctly matched.
3. Belan valley - Ganga
- Belan valley is associated with the Ganga river basin, making this pair correctly matched as well.
Therefore, out of the given pairs, only one pair is correctly matched, which is Nevasa - Tapti (Option B).
1. Nevasa - Tapti
- Nevasa is indeed a Paleolithic site located in the Tapti river basin. This pair is correctly matched.
2. Patne - Godavari
- Patne is a Paleolithic site situated in the Godavari river basin. This pair is also correctly matched.
3. Belan valley - Ganga
- Belan valley is associated with the Ganga river basin, making this pair correctly matched as well.
Therefore, out of the given pairs, only one pair is correctly matched, which is Nevasa - Tapti (Option B).
Which of the following personalities were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II?
1. Fa-Hien
2. Kalidasa
3. Amarasimha
4. Hieun Tsang
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)2, 3 and 4 only
- b)1, 2 and 3 only
- c)1, 3 and 4
- d)2 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following personalities were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II?
1. Fa-Hien
2. Kalidasa
3. Amarasimha
4. Hieun Tsang
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Fa-Hien
2. Kalidasa
3. Amarasimha
4. Hieun Tsang
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
2, 3 and 4 only
b)
1, 2 and 3 only
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
2 and 4 only
 | Garima Desai answered |
To determine which personalities were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II, let's analyze the options given:
1. Fa-Hien: Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. He wrote a detailed account of his travels, known as the "Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms," which provides valuable insights into the social, cultural, and religious aspects of ancient India. Therefore, Fa-Hien is associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
2. Kalidasa: Kalidasa was a renowned Sanskrit poet and playwright who lived during the Gupta period. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest poets in Indian literature. Kalidasa's works, such as the plays "Abhijnanasakuntalam" and "Meghaduta," showcase his mastery of poetry and drama. His works were patronized by Chandragupta II, and he is considered to have flourished during his reign. Therefore, Kalidasa is associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. Amarasimha: Amarasimha was an ancient Indian lexicographer who compiled the "Amarakosha," a Sanskrit thesaurus. His work is considered one of the earliest and most influential lexicons in Indian literature. While there is no direct evidence linking Amarasimha to Chandragupta II, it is believed that he lived during the Gupta period and his work was highly regarded by scholars of that time. Therefore, Amarasimha is also associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
4. Hieun Tsang: Hieun Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk and scholar who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II's successor, Kumaragupta I. Although he did not directly witness Chandragupta II's reign, his extensive travel accounts, known as the "Records of the Western Regions," provide valuable information about the political, social, and religious conditions of ancient India during the Gupta period. Therefore, Hieun Tsang is not associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 2, and 3 only, as Fa-Hien, Kalidasa, and Amarasimha were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II.
1. Fa-Hien: Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. He wrote a detailed account of his travels, known as the "Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms," which provides valuable insights into the social, cultural, and religious aspects of ancient India. Therefore, Fa-Hien is associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
2. Kalidasa: Kalidasa was a renowned Sanskrit poet and playwright who lived during the Gupta period. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest poets in Indian literature. Kalidasa's works, such as the plays "Abhijnanasakuntalam" and "Meghaduta," showcase his mastery of poetry and drama. His works were patronized by Chandragupta II, and he is considered to have flourished during his reign. Therefore, Kalidasa is associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. Amarasimha: Amarasimha was an ancient Indian lexicographer who compiled the "Amarakosha," a Sanskrit thesaurus. His work is considered one of the earliest and most influential lexicons in Indian literature. While there is no direct evidence linking Amarasimha to Chandragupta II, it is believed that he lived during the Gupta period and his work was highly regarded by scholars of that time. Therefore, Amarasimha is also associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
4. Hieun Tsang: Hieun Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk and scholar who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II's successor, Kumaragupta I. Although he did not directly witness Chandragupta II's reign, his extensive travel accounts, known as the "Records of the Western Regions," provide valuable information about the political, social, and religious conditions of ancient India during the Gupta period. Therefore, Hieun Tsang is not associated with the reign of Chandragupta II.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 2, and 3 only, as Fa-Hien, Kalidasa, and Amarasimha were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II.
Consider the following statements with respect to Rig Vedic Age:
1. The people did not practice idol worship.
2. Women were not given opportunities for their spiritual and intellectual development.
3. There was no child marriage and the practice of Sati was absent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1, 2 and 3
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1 and 2 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with respect to Rig Vedic Age:
1. The people did not practice idol worship.
2. Women were not given opportunities for their spiritual and intellectual development.
3. There was no child marriage and the practice of Sati was absent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The people did not practice idol worship.
2. Women were not given opportunities for their spiritual and intellectual development.
3. There was no child marriage and the practice of Sati was absent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 2 only
| | BT Educators answered |
- Social Life of Rig Vedic Society
- The Rig Vedic society was patriarchal. The basic unit of society was the family or kula. The head of the family was known as grahapathi.
- Monogamy was generally practiced while polygamy was prevalent among the royal and noble families.
- The wife took care of the household and participated in all the major ceremonies. Women were given equal opportunities as men for their spiritual and intellectual development. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- There were women poets like Apala, Viswavara, Ghosa and Lopamudra during the Rig Vedic period. Women could even attend the popular assemblies. There was no child marriage and the practice of Sati was absent. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Both men and women wore upper and lower garments made of cotton and wool. A variety of ornaments were used by both men and women. Wheat and barley, milk and its products like curd and ghee, and vegetables and fruits were the chief articles of food. The eating of cow’s meat was prohibited since it was a sacred animal. Chariot racing, horse racing, dicing, music, and dance were the favourite pastimes. The social divisions were not rigid during the Rig Vedic period as it was in the later Vedic period.
- Religion
- The Rig Vedic Aryans worshiped natural forces like earth, fire, wind, rain and thunder. They personified these natural forces into many gods and worshipped them.
- The important Rig Vedic gods were Prithvi (Earth), Agni (Fire), Vayu (Wind), Varuna (Rain), and Indra (Thunder). Indra was the most popular among them during the early Vedic period. Next in importance to Indra was Agni who was regarded as an intermediary between the gods and people. Varuna was supposed to be the upholder of the natural order.
- There were also female gods like Aditi and Ushas. o There were no temples and no idol worship during the early Vedic period. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Prayers were offered to the gods in the expectation of rewards. Ghee, milk and grain were given as offerings. Elaborate rituals were followed during the worship.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into Persian during the reign of Akbar.
2. Zain-ul-Abidin translated the historical work Rajatarangini into Persian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements :
1. The Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into Persian during the reign of Akbar.
2. Zain-ul-Abidin translated the historical work Rajatarangini into Persian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. The Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into Persian during the reign of Akbar.
2. Zain-ul-Abidin translated the historical work Rajatarangini into Persian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Divey Sethi answered |
- During the medieval period, Many works of Sanskrit were translated into Persian. The integration process continued in the music field under Firoz Shah Tughlaq. Under Firoz shah Tughlaq, the Indian classical work 'Ragadarpan' was translated into Persian. Musical gatherings spread from the abodes of the Sufis to the palaces of nobles. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- Zain-ul-Abidinwas a great scholar of Persian, Sanskrit, Tibetan and Arab languages and patronized the Sanskrit and Persian scholars. Under his patronage, the Mahabharat and Kalhana’s Rajatarangini were translated into Persian, and many Persian and Arabic works were translated into Hindi. He was a poet and wrote poetry under the pen name ‘Qutb’. Rajatarangini is an epic poem (mahakavya) in Sanskrit, running into nearly 8000 verses spread over eight books or sections. It was composed in 1148-1150 in Kashmir, India, by the poet, Kalhana, who was a member of the ancient Indian learned class of brahmans. The Rajatarangini is an account of the many royal dynasties that ruled the ancient kingdom of Kashmir from its mythical origins down till the poet’s own time. It gained iconic stature ever since 19th and 20th-century scholars labeled it as the first work of history to be found in the entire corpus of Sanskrit literature. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following were the contemporary dynasties of Gupta empire ?
1. Vakatakas
2. Kadambas
3. Kanvas
4. Hunas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :- a)2 and 3 only
- b)1, 2 and 4 only
- c)1, 3 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following were the contemporary dynasties of Gupta empire ?
1. Vakatakas
2. Kadambas
3. Kanvas
4. Hunas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Vakatakas
2. Kadambas
3. Kanvas
4. Hunas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a)
2 and 3 only
b)
1, 2 and 4 only
c)
1, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
 | Master Training Institute answered |
In Ancient Indian, the Gupta empire was established in the mid 3rd century A.D and lasted till 543 A.D. The Gupta empire reached its prominence in 320 A.D. The founder of the Gupta empire was Sri Gupta. The period of 300-600 CE sources includes inscriptions—mostly on stone, some on copper plates—of the imperial Guptas and those of contemporary dynasties such as the Vakatakas, Kadambas, Varmans, and Hunas. The Kanva dynasty had a Brahmanic origin. The dynasty was named after the gotra of the ruler Kanva. Vasudeva Kanva founded the Kanva dynasty. Kanva dynasty, also called Kanvayanas, were the successors of the Shungas in the North Indian kingdom of Magadha, who ruled about 72–28 BCE. Thus, Kanva dynasty was not the comtemporary of Gupta Empire. So, Option (b) is correct.
Consider the following Battles of Medieval Indian History :
1. Battle of Khanwa
2. Battle of Ghagra
3. Battle of Talikota
4. Battle of Haldighati
Arrange the above battles in the correct chronological order ?- a)1-2-3-4
- b)2-3-4-1
- c)4-3-2-1
- d)2-1-3-4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following Battles of Medieval Indian History :
1. Battle of Khanwa
2. Battle of Ghagra
3. Battle of Talikota
4. Battle of Haldighati
Arrange the above battles in the correct chronological order ?
1. Battle of Khanwa
2. Battle of Ghagra
3. Battle of Talikota
4. Battle of Haldighati
Arrange the above battles in the correct chronological order ?
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-3-4-1
c)
4-3-2-1
d)
2-1-3-4
 | Lakshya Ias answered |
Battle of Khanwa (1527)
- Babur, the Mughal emperor, decided to take on Rana Sanga of Chittor, the Rajput ruler of Mewar. The Rana had a strong influence over Rajasthan and Malwa.
- The ferocious march of Rana Sanga, with force strengthened by Afghan Muslims, Mahmud Lodi, brother of Ibrahim Lodi, and Hasan Khan Mewati, ruler of Mewat, confronted the forces of Babur. With strategic positioning of forces and effective use of artillery, Babur defeated Rana Sanga’s forces. The capture of forts at Gwalior and Dholpur followed this victory.
Battle of Ghagra (1529)
- The battle was the last battle Babar fought against the Afghans. Mahmud Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
- Realizing the danger, Babar marched against them. In the battle that ensued along the banks of Ghagra, a tributary of the Ganges, Babur defeated the Afghans. But he died on his way from Agra to Lahore in 1530.
Battle of Talikota (1565)
- The battle was fought at Talikota or Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565, in which Ramaraya (a great warrior and strategist), despite his old age, personally commanded the forces along with his cousins and brothers. In the final stages, the battle was lost. Rama Raya was imprisoned and executed immediately.
- The victorious Bahmani armies entered the Vijayanagar city for the first time in their History and ransacked it for several months laying it to waste. This battle is generally considered a signal for the beginning of the disintegration of the Vijayanagar Empire as the Nayakas became more independent of central authority.
Battle of Haldighati (1576)
- It was the last pitched battle between the Mughal forces and Rana Pratap Singh. In Marwar (Jodhpur), the ruler Chandra Sen, son of Maldeo Rathore, resisted the Mughals till his death in 1581, though his brothers fought on the side of the Mughals.
- Udai Singh, the brother of Chandra Sen, was made the ruler of Jodhpur by Akbar.
Arrange the following Greenhouse gases in the increasing order of their Global Warming Potential :1. Methane (CH4)2. Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFC)4. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1-2-3-4
- b)2-3-4-1
- c)3-4-1-2
- d)1-4-3-2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Arrange the following Greenhouse gases in the increasing order of their Global Warming Potential :
1. Methane (CH4)
2. Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFC)
4. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-3-4-1
c)
3-4-1-2
d)
1-4-3-2
| | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2). The larger the GWP, the more that a given gas warms the Earth compared to CO2 over that time period. The time period usually used for GWPs is 100 years. GWPs provide a common unit of measure, which allows analysts to add up emissions estimates of different gases (e.g., to compile a national GHG inventory), and allows policymakers to compare emissions reduction opportunities across sectors and gases.
- CO2, by definition, has a GWP of 1 regardless of the time period used because it is the gas being used as the reference. CO2 remains in the climate system for a very long time: CO2 emissions cause increases in atmospheric concentrations of CO2 that will last thousands of years.
- Methane (CH4) is estimated to have a GWP of 27-30 over 100 years. CH4 emitted today lasts about a decade on average, which is much less time than CO2. But CH4 also absorbs much more energy than CO2. The net effect of the shorter lifetime and higher energy absorption is reflected in the GWP. The CH4 GWP also accounts for some indirect effects, such as the fact that CH4 is a precursor to ozone, and ozone is itself a GHG.
- Nitrous Oxide (N2O) has a GWP 273 times that of CO2 for a 100-year timescale. N2O emitted today remains in the atmosphere for more than 100 years, on average.
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWP gases because, for a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO2. (The GWPs for these gases can be in the thousands or tens of thousands.) So, Option (d) is correct.
Which of the following is not a feature of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?- a)It enables the use of a single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
- b)It created a new payment infrastructure to enable real-time payment settlement.
- c)It eliminates the risk of sharing bank account details by the remitter.
- d)The transactions are carried out through mobile devices with two factor authentication.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not a feature of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
a)
It enables the use of a single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
b)
It created a new payment infrastructure to enable real-time payment settlement.
c)
It eliminates the risk of sharing bank account details by the remitter.
d)
The transactions are carried out through mobile devices with two factor authentication.
 | Anirban Datta answered |
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) Features:
- Single Mobile Application: UPI enables the use of a single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts, making it convenient for users to manage their finances from one platform.
- Risk Elimination: UPI eliminates the risk of sharing bank account details by the remitter. Instead of sharing sensitive information, users can simply use a UPI ID or Virtual Payment Address (VPA) to initiate transactions.
- Mobile Transactions: Transactions through UPI are carried out through mobile devices with two-factor authentication, ensuring security and authenticity of the payments being made.
Explanation:
The statement that UPI created a new payment infrastructure to enable real-time payment settlement is not accurate. UPI is a system that facilitates instant fund transfers between bank accounts through mobile devices. It acts as a platform that allows different banks to be interconnected and enables seamless transactions. However, it does not create a new payment infrastructure for real-time settlement. Instead, UPI leverages existing banking systems and technologies to provide a more efficient and user-friendly payment experience.
- Single Mobile Application: UPI enables the use of a single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts, making it convenient for users to manage their finances from one platform.
- Risk Elimination: UPI eliminates the risk of sharing bank account details by the remitter. Instead of sharing sensitive information, users can simply use a UPI ID or Virtual Payment Address (VPA) to initiate transactions.
- Mobile Transactions: Transactions through UPI are carried out through mobile devices with two-factor authentication, ensuring security and authenticity of the payments being made.
Explanation:
The statement that UPI created a new payment infrastructure to enable real-time payment settlement is not accurate. UPI is a system that facilitates instant fund transfers between bank accounts through mobile devices. It acts as a platform that allows different banks to be interconnected and enables seamless transactions. However, it does not create a new payment infrastructure for real-time settlement. Instead, UPI leverages existing banking systems and technologies to provide a more efficient and user-friendly payment experience.
Which of the following statements regarding the coastal plains of India is/are not correct ?1. The western coastal plains are an example of an Emergent coastal plain.2. The Eastern coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plain.3. The eastern coastal plains provide natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors.Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements regarding the coastal plains of India is/are not correct ?
1. The western coastal plains are an example of an Emergent coastal plain.
2. The Eastern coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plain.
3. The eastern coastal plains provide natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Academic Studio answered |
- The coastal plains in India run parallel to the Arabian Sea & Bay of Bengal along the Peninsular Plateau. The western coastal plain is a narrow belt about 10-20km wide along the Arabian Sea. It stretches from Rann of Kachchh to Kanya Kumari. Western coastal plains comprise three sectors (i) Konkan Coast (Mumbai to Goa), (ii) Karnataka coast from Goa to Mangalore (iii) Malabar Coast (Mangalore to Kanya Kumari). The eastern coast runs along the Bay of Bengal. It is wider than the western coastal plain.
- The western coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka, once part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast, is submerged underwater.
- The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards the north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Malabar coast has certain distinguishing features in the form of 'Kayals' (backwaters), which are used for fishing, and inland navigation due to its special attraction for tourists. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- Compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and an example of an emergent coast. There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
- Because of its emergent nature, the eastern coastal plain has fewer ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, making it difficult to develop good ports and harbours. Whereas western coastal plains are submerged in nature, their narrow belt provides natural conditions for developing ports and harbours—Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
In addition to making the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly performed other functions also. In the context of this, consider the following statements:1. It adopted the national flag on August 15, 1947.2. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.3. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.4. It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 4 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1, 3 and 4 only
- d)2, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In addition to making the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly performed other functions also. In the context of this, consider the following statements:
1. It adopted the national flag on August 15, 1947.
2. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.
3. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.
4. It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 4 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 3 and 4 only
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
 | Ias Masters answered |
In addition to making of the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:
- It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
- It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. Hence statement 1 is not correct
- It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 3 is correct
- It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 4 is correct
Which of the following is not a part of high-powered money ?- a)Banks' deposits with RBI
- b)Deposits of international organizations with RBI
- c)Currency with the public
- d)Term deposits of households with banks
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not a part of high-powered money ?
a)
Banks' deposits with RBI
b)
Deposits of international organizations with RBI
c)
Currency with the public
d)
Term deposits of households with banks
 | EduRev UPSC answered |
Reserve money, also known as central bank money, base money or high-powered money, plays a crucial role in determining monetary aggregates. Reserve money has two major components such as currency in circulation and reserves. Currency in circulation comprises currency with the public and cash in hand with banks. The public's demand for currency is determined by a number of factors such as real income, price level, the opportunity cost of holding currency (i.e., the interest rate on interest-bearing assets) and the availability of alternative instruments of transactions, e.g., credit/debit cards, ATMs, cheque payments. The demand for reserves by banks depends on the requirements for the maintenance of CRR and to meet payment obligations. M0 = Currency in Circulation + Bankers Deposits with the RBI + Other deposits with the RBI. Other deposits with RBI comprise mainly,
- Deposits of quasi-government and other financial institutions, including primary dealers.
- Balances in the accounts of foreign central banks and governments.
- Accounts of international agencies such as the IMF
- Provident, gratuity and guarantee funds for the RBI staff. High-powered money is money that is directly used to make transactions in an economy. It includes the currency in circulation and reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank. Term deposits of households with banks are not included as high-powered money because they are not directly available as a medium of exchange. They are funds that households have deposited with banks for a specific term or period. While banks can use these deposits to make loans, they cannot be directly used as a medium of exchange like cash or reserves.
So, Option (d) is correct.
Consider the following statements with respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1 and 3 only
| | Academic Studio answered |
- In Jainism, the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya or tri-ratna) are understood as samyagdarshana ('right faith'), samyagjnana ('right knowledge), and samyakcharitra ('right action').
- One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation i.e. attainment of freedom from worldly bonds.
- Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows: - Hence statement 3 is correct.
- not to injure life
- not to lie
- not to steal
- not to acquire property
- not to lead immoral life
Consider the following statements:1.The Constitution defines hate speech as an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons.2.Section 295A of the IPC deals with punishing acts which deliberately or with malicious intention outrage the religious feelings of a class of persons.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1.The Constitution defines hate speech as an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons.
2.Section 295A of the IPC deals with punishing acts which deliberately or with malicious intention outrage the religious feelings of a class of persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Vandana Shah answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1:
The Constitution of India does not explicitly define hate speech. However, it does provide for certain restrictions on freedom of speech and expression in the interest of public order, decency, morality, sovereignty, and integrity of India. Hate speech is generally understood as speech that offends, threatens, or insults individuals or groups on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sexual orientation, disability, or other traits.
Statement 2:
Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. This section aims to maintain communal harmony and prevent any acts that could disturb the peace between different religious communities.
Conclusion:
While both statements address issues related to speech that can incite hatred or offend religious sentiments, it is important to note that the Constitution does not explicitly define hate speech, and Section 295A of the IPC specifically deals with outrage of religious feelings. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1:
The Constitution of India does not explicitly define hate speech. However, it does provide for certain restrictions on freedom of speech and expression in the interest of public order, decency, morality, sovereignty, and integrity of India. Hate speech is generally understood as speech that offends, threatens, or insults individuals or groups on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sexual orientation, disability, or other traits.
Statement 2:
Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. This section aims to maintain communal harmony and prevent any acts that could disturb the peace between different religious communities.
Conclusion:
While both statements address issues related to speech that can incite hatred or offend religious sentiments, it is important to note that the Constitution does not explicitly define hate speech, and Section 295A of the IPC specifically deals with outrage of religious feelings. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves :1. It is a rock-cut cave that has inscriptions of the king Kharavela.2. As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.3. It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves :
1. It is a rock-cut cave that has inscriptions of the king Kharavela.
2. As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.
3. It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
3 only
 | Arpita Khanna answered |
Statement 1: It is a rock-cut cave that has inscriptions of the king Kharavela.
Statement 2: As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.
Statement 3: It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.
Correct option: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves, also known as Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves, are located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India. These caves are significant archaeological sites that date back to the 2nd century BCE.
Statement 1: It is a rock-cut cave that has inscriptions of the king Kharavela.
- This statement is correct. The Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves have inscriptions that are attributed to the king Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. These inscriptions are written in Brahmi script and provide valuable historical information about the king and his reign.
Statement 2: As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.
- This statement is incorrect. The inscriptions found in the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves suggest that these caves were initially carved out and used by Jain monks. The inscriptions mention the names of Jain monks and describe the activities of the Jain community. However, it is important to note that over time, some of the caves were also used by Buddhists and Hindus.
Statement 3: It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.
- This statement is correct. The inscriptions in the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves are unique as they were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela. This practice of smearing red ochre on inscriptions is not found in any other site in India and adds to the historical significance of the caves.
In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves have inscriptions of king Kharavela and were primarily used by Jain monks, although some caves were also used by Buddhists and Hindus. The caves are unique as they have inscriptions smeared with red ochre, which is not found in any other site in India.
Statement 2: As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.
Statement 3: It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.
Correct option: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves, also known as Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves, are located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India. These caves are significant archaeological sites that date back to the 2nd century BCE.
Statement 1: It is a rock-cut cave that has inscriptions of the king Kharavela.
- This statement is correct. The Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves have inscriptions that are attributed to the king Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. These inscriptions are written in Brahmi script and provide valuable historical information about the king and his reign.
Statement 2: As per the inscriptions, these caves, made of sandstone, were built mainly for Buddhist monks.
- This statement is incorrect. The inscriptions found in the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves suggest that these caves were initially carved out and used by Jain monks. The inscriptions mention the names of Jain monks and describe the activities of the Jain community. However, it is important to note that over time, some of the caves were also used by Buddhists and Hindus.
Statement 3: It is the only site in India where the inscriptions were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela.
- This statement is correct. The inscriptions in the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves are unique as they were smeared with red ochre during the reign of Kharavela. This practice of smearing red ochre on inscriptions is not found in any other site in India and adds to the historical significance of the caves.
In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves have inscriptions of king Kharavela and were primarily used by Jain monks, although some caves were also used by Buddhists and Hindus. The caves are unique as they have inscriptions smeared with red ochre, which is not found in any other site in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala architecture:. It is predominantly found in southern Karnataka.2. It is made from gneiss - a relatively hard stone.3. It is based on a stellate (star-like) ground plan along with a profusion of decorative carvings.4. Hoysala temples have pyramidal vimana.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2, 3 and 4 only
- c)3 and 4 only
- d)1, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala architecture:
. It is predominantly found in southern Karnataka.
2. It is made from gneiss - a relatively hard stone.
3. It is based on a stellate (star-like) ground plan along with a profusion of decorative carvings.
4. Hoysala temples have pyramidal vimana.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2, 3 and 4 only
c)
3 and 4 only
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
| | Academic Studio answered |
- The Hoysala Empire was spread over the Southern Deccan Plateau region of present-day Karnataka between the 11th and 14th centuries. It developed a distinctive style of Hindu temple architecture known as Hoysala architecture. This architectural style is exemplified by numerous temples, both large and small, built during the 13th century, including the Chennakesava Temple at Belur, the Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu, and the Kesava Temple at Somanathapura mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Hoysala temples are quite unique in that their different parts are merged together to form a unified, organic whole, unlike the temples of the Tamil region where each part of a temple stands independently. Although they may appear superficially different, Hoysala temples share a similar structural design. They are renowned for their intricate and detailed sculptures, which decorate all parts of the temple, and are carved out of soft soapstone (chloritic schist), a material that is ideal for fine and detailed work. Local craftsmen were primarily responsible for executing these carvings, which display architectural features that set them apart from other temple architectures in South India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- The Hoysala temples are known for their unique and complex structure, featuring multiple shrines arranged around a central pillared hall in a star-shaped pattern. This stellate-plan design sets them apart from other medieval temples in South India. Also, these sport a pyramidical Vimana as its Shikhar. These distinctive architectural features and decorative elements make the Hoysala temples easily recognizable and distinguishable from other temple architectures of the time. Hence statements 3 and 4 are correct.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the financial relationship between the Centre and the States in India ?1. The Constitution of India provides for vertical and horizontal distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States.2. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States.3. The States have the power to levy and collect income tax.4. The Centre can provide grants-in-aid to States for specific purposes.Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1, 2 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the financial relationship between the Centre and the States in India ?
1. The Constitution of India provides for vertical and horizontal distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States.
2. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States.
3. The States have the power to levy and collect income tax.
4. The Centre can provide grants-in-aid to States for specific purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 2 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
 | K.L Institute answered |
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, formed under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. The main purpose of forming the Finance Commission is to give its recommendations on the distribution of Tax revenues between the Centre and the states as well as among the states. The Finance Commission is required to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes of the Union between the Union and the States (commonly referred to as vertical devolution), and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds (commonly known as horizontal devolution). So, Statement 1 is correct. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:
- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. So, Statement 2 is correct.
- The taxing powers of the central government encompass taxes on income (except agricultural income), excise on goods produced (other than alcohol), customs duties, and inter-state sale of goods. The state governments are vested with the power to levy income tax on agricultural income, land and buildings, sale of goods (other than inter-state), stamp duty and excise on alcohol. Local authorities such as Panchayat and Municipality also have the power to levy some minor taxes. In general, the central government has the power to levy and collect personal and corporate income tax. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
- Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid, Statutory Grants: Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year. Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State of Assam.
- Discretionary Grants: Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence. Under this provision, the Centre makes grants to the states. So, Statement 4 is correct.
With reference to the Caste Census in India, consider the following statements:1.The origin of the Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881.2.Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931.3.The Caste Census happens in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission, set up for sub categorisation of OBCs, SCs and STs.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Caste Census in India, consider the following statements:
1.The origin of the Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881.
2.Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931.
3.The Caste Census happens in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission, set up for sub categorisation of OBCs, SCs and STs.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
3 only
 | Arshiya Gupta answered |
The correct answer is option 'D', which means statement 3 only is not correct. Let's analyze each statement to understand why.
1. The origin of the Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881.
- This statement is correct. The first modern census in India was conducted in 1881 by the British colonial administration. It aimed to gather demographic data for administrative and governance purposes. Since then, the census has been conducted regularly in the country.
2. Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931.
- This statement is correct. The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was indeed conducted for the first time in 1931. It aimed to collect data on various socio-economic indicators, including caste, to determine the backwardness and deprivation levels of different sections of society.
3. The Caste Census happens in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission, set up for subcategorization of OBCs, SCs, and STs.
- This statement is not correct. The Caste Census does not directly happen in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission. The Justice Rohini Commission was set up in 2017 to examine the issue of subcategorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits. The commission's report is yet to be implemented, and it is not directly related to the caste census.
In conclusion, statement 3 only is not correct. The caste census in India has a long history dating back to the colonial era, starting with the first modern census in 1881. The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931. However, the caste census is not directly related to the Justice Rohini Commission, which was set up for subcategorization of OBCs, SCs, and STs.
1. The origin of the Census in India goes back to the colonial exercise of 1881.
- This statement is correct. The first modern census in India was conducted in 1881 by the British colonial administration. It aimed to gather demographic data for administrative and governance purposes. Since then, the census has been conducted regularly in the country.
2. Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931.
- This statement is correct. The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was indeed conducted for the first time in 1931. It aimed to collect data on various socio-economic indicators, including caste, to determine the backwardness and deprivation levels of different sections of society.
3. The Caste Census happens in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission, set up for subcategorization of OBCs, SCs, and STs.
- This statement is not correct. The Caste Census does not directly happen in the backdrop of the Justice Rohini Commission. The Justice Rohini Commission was set up in 2017 to examine the issue of subcategorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits. The commission's report is yet to be implemented, and it is not directly related to the caste census.
In conclusion, statement 3 only is not correct. The caste census in India has a long history dating back to the colonial era, starting with the first modern census in 1881. The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted for the first time in 1931. However, the caste census is not directly related to the Justice Rohini Commission, which was set up for subcategorization of OBCs, SCs, and STs.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cardholders:1. OCI status is not citizenship and does not grant the right to vote in elections or hold public office.2. Though they are not Indian citizens, resident OCIs would enjoy any fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cardholders:
1. OCI status is not citizenship and does not grant the right to vote in elections or hold public office.
2. Though they are not Indian citizens, resident OCIs would enjoy any fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Gauri Mukherjee answered |
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B' - statement 2 only is incorrect.
Statement 1: OCI status is not citizenship and does not grant the right to vote in elections or hold public office.
- OCI stands for Overseas Citizens of India.
- OCI cardholders are foreign citizens of Indian origin who are granted certain rights and privileges.
- They are not Indian citizens but have a special status that provides them with several benefits and rights.
- One of the limitations of OCI status is that it does not grant the right to vote in elections or hold public office in India.
- This means that OCI cardholders cannot participate in the democratic process of electing representatives or hold positions of power in the Indian government.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Though they are not Indian citizens, resident OCIs would enjoy any fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution.
- OCI cardholders may not be Indian citizens, but they are granted several rights and privileges under the Indian Constitution.
- These rights include the right to equality, freedom of speech and expression, protection against discrimination, and the right to life and personal liberty.
- OCI cardholders have the same fundamental rights as any other resident of India.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
In conclusion, OCI status does not grant the right to vote or hold public office, but OCI cardholders do enjoy fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B'.
Which of the following statements is/are the reason for the small daily and annual range of temperature in the southern part of India?- Southern part of India lies in the tropical zone.
- Southern part of India has a long coastline.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/are the reason for the small daily and annual range of temperature in the southern part of India?
- Southern part of India lies in the tropical zone.
- Southern part of India has a long coastline.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- The northern part of India lies in the sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying south of the Tropic of Cancer falls in the tropical zone. The tropical zone being nearer to the equator experiences high temperatures throughout the year with small daily and annual ranges. The area north of the Tropic of Cancer, being away from the equator, experiences an extreme climate with a high daily and annual range of temperature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- With a long coastline, large coastal areas have an equable climate. Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. Such areas have extremes of climate. That is why the people of Mumbai and the Konkan coast have hardly any idea of extremes of temperature and the seasonal rhythm of weather. On the other hand, the seasonal contrasts in weather at places in the interior of the country such as Delhi, Kanpur, and Amritsar affect the entire sphere of life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In the context of medieval India, consider the following statements with reference to a ruler:
1. He was a contemporary of the great poet Amir Khusrau.
2. To keep his soldiers satisfied with their salary, he introduced strict price control measures based on production costs.
3. He introduced the Chehra and Dagh systems.
Which of the following rulers has been described in the statements given above?- a)Balban
- b)Mohammed bin Tughlaq
- c)Alauddin Khilji
- d)Iltutmish
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of medieval India, consider the following statements with reference to a ruler:
1. He was a contemporary of the great poet Amir Khusrau.
2. To keep his soldiers satisfied with their salary, he introduced strict price control measures based on production costs.
3. He introduced the Chehra and Dagh systems.
Which of the following rulers has been described in the statements given above?
1. He was a contemporary of the great poet Amir Khusrau.
2. To keep his soldiers satisfied with their salary, he introduced strict price control measures based on production costs.
3. He introduced the Chehra and Dagh systems.
Which of the following rulers has been described in the statements given above?
a)
Balban
b)
Mohammed bin Tughlaq
c)
Alauddin Khilji
d)
Iltutmish
| | Spectrum Coaching Institute answered |
- Alauddin Khalji was the first Sultan to have a large permanent standing army and paid them in cash from the royal treasury. An innovative Chehra and Dagh system was introduced by him wherein the Chehra (detailed description of each soldier) and Dagh (branding of horses) were maintained.
- Ala-ud-din’s Internal Reforms: The vast annexation of territories was followed by extensive administrative reforms aimed at stabilising the government. Ala-uddin’s first measure was to deprive the nobles of the wealth they had accumulated. It had provided them the leisure and means to hatch conspiracies against the Sultan. Marriage alliances between families of noble men were permitted only with the consent of the Sultan. The Sultan ordered that villages held by proprietary right, as free gift , or as a religious endowment be brought back under the royal authority and control. He curbed the powers of the traditional village officers by depriving them of their traditional privileges. Corrupt royal officials were dealt with sternly. The Sultan prohibited liquor and banned the use of intoxicating drugs. Gambling was forbidden and gamblers were driven out of the city. However, the widespread violations of prohibition rules eventually forced the Sultan to relax the restrictions.
- Ala-ud-din collected land taxes directly from the cultivators. The village headman who traditionally enjoyed the right to collect them was now deprived of it. The tax pressure of Alaud-din was on the rich and not on the poor. Ala-ud-din set up the postal system to keep in touch with all parts of his sprawling empire.
- To keep his soldiers satisfied with their salary the Khilji Sultan introduced strict price control measures based on production costs.
- The growers were ordered to sell their grains in their fields at a fixed price and were not allowed to take any grain home for private sale. Every merchant was registered with the commerce ministry and had to sign a bond guaranteeing a regular supply of the goods they traded.
- In order to restrict prices of essential commodities, Ala-ud-din set up an elaborate intelligence network to collect information on black-marketing and hoarding.
- Amīr Khusrau was a Sufi singer and often called the father of qawwali" (a devotional form of the singing of the Sufis in the Indian subcontinent). He was a disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya of Delhi. Alauddin Khalji patronized him along with Mir Hasan Delhvi as his court poet. Alauddin Khalji gave the title Tuti-i-Hind (Parrot of India) to Amir Khusrau.
- Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
The earliest epigraphic reference to image worship in Jainism is found in :- a)Nashik inscription
- b)Junagarh inscription
- c)Hathigumpha inscription
- d)Mathura inscription
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The earliest epigraphic reference to image worship in Jainism is found in :
a)
Nashik inscription
b)
Junagarh inscription
c)
Hathigumpha inscription
d)
Mathura inscription
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
The 1st century BCE Hathigumpha inscription of the Kalinga king Kharavela refers to his retrieving an image of a Jina. This inscription is the earliest epigraphic reference to image worship in Jainism. The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves in Orissa are among the oldest long-standing centres of Jaina monasticism. A large number of Jaina images and inscriptions from the Mathura area indicate the popularity of Jainism. Kharavela, the Chedi king of Kalinga (in eastern India), claims in his Hathigumpha inscription to have defied a king named Satakarni in his second regnal year. He also claims two years later, he defeated the Rathikas of the Maratha country and the Bhojas of Vidarbha, who seem to have been subordinates of the Satavahanas. A possible indication of Nanda military victories in Kalinga is suggested by the later Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela, which mentions a king named Nanda building a canal and either conquering a place or taking away a Jaina shrine or image from Kalinga. So, Option (c) is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mauryan Empire :
1. A uniform method of administration existed throughout the whole of the Mauryan Empire.
2. They had a vast espionage system for both internal and external security purposes
3. The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mauryan Empire :
1. A uniform method of administration existed throughout the whole of the Mauryan Empire.
2. They had a vast espionage system for both internal and external security purposes
3. The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. A uniform method of administration existed throughout the whole of the Mauryan Empire.
2. They had a vast espionage system for both internal and external security purposes
3. The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Academic Studio answered |
- Mauryan Empire consisted of various political formations and ecological zones like forest peoples and nomads, chieftaincies and oligarchies like the gana–sangha confederacies of chiefs. It contained smaller kingdoms with a range of administrative structures not necessarily similar to that in Magadha. Different parts of the Empire, like the core, the metropolis and the peripheries, were administered differently. Thus, there was no uniform method of administration in the whole of the Mauryan Empire. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- The organization of the Mauryan empire was in line with the extensive bureaucracy described by Kautilya in the Arthashastra: a sophisticated civil service governed everything from municipal hygiene to international trade. The expansion and defense of the Empire were made possible by what appears to have been the largest standing army of its time. According to Megasthenes, the possessed wielded a military of 600,000 infantry, 30,000 cavalry, and 9,000 war elephants. A vast espionage system collected intelligence for both internal and external security purposes. Having renounced offensive warfare and expansionism, Ashoka maintained this large army to protect the Empire and instill stability and peace across West and South Asia. So, Statement 2 is correct.
- The Empire was divided into four provinces, with the royal capital at Pataliputra. From Ashokan edicts, the names of the four provincial capitals are Tosali (in the East), Ujjain (in the west), Suvarnagiri (in the south), and Taxila (in the north). The head of the provincial administration was the Kumara (royal prince), who governed the provinces as the king’s representative. Mahamatyas and the council of ministers assisted the Kumara. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the History of Indian coinage :
1. Kushanas issued many copper coins of low denominational value.
2. The reverse of the Gupta coins has religious symbols.
3. The rulers of Satavahanas banned the circulation of Punch-marked coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to the History of Indian coinage :
1. Kushanas issued many copper coins of low denominational value.
2. The reverse of the Gupta coins has religious symbols.
3. The rulers of Satavahanas banned the circulation of Punch-marked coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Kushanas issued many copper coins of low denominational value.
2. The reverse of the Gupta coins has religious symbols.
3. The rulers of Satavahanas banned the circulation of Punch-marked coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | K.L Institute answered |
- Kushanas were the first dynasty of the Subcontinent to mint large quantities of gold coins, and their silver coins were rare. They also issued many copper coins of low denominational value, which indicates the increasing spread of the money economy in the 1st - 4th centuries CE. Kushana coins have the figure, name, and title of the king on one side, and on the reverse side are deities belonging to the Brahmanical, Buddhist, Greek, Roman, and other pantheons. The legends are either entirely in Greek, or in some cases in Kharoshthi, on the reverse. So, Statement 1 is correct.
- The imperial Gupta kings issued well-executed die-struck gold coins with metrical legends in Sanskrit known as dinaras. These coins have been mostly found in north India. The obverse depicts the reigning king in various poses, usually martial ones, but there are interesting instances of coins of Samudragupta and Kumaragupta-I showing them playing the vina (a stringed instrument). The reverse of the Gupta coins has religious symbols indicating the kings’religious affiliations. There was a decline in the metallic purity of gold coins in the later part of Skandagupta’s reign. The Guptas also issued silver coins, but their copper coins are rare. So, Statement 2 is correct.
- In the Deccan, the pre-Satavahana coinage was followed by the copper and silver coins of the Satavahana kings. Rulers of this dynasty also issued coins of small denominational value made of lead and potin. Most Satavahana coins were die-struck, but there are some cast coins, and acombination of techniques was also used. The legends were generally in the Prakrit language and Brahmi script. However, the portrait coins (mostly in silver but also in lead) use a Dravidian language and Brahmi script. Punch-marked coins continued to circulate alongside the Satavahana issues. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mahajanapadas :
1. Mahajanapadas never followed the system of oligarchy
2. Mahajanapadas depended only on occasional gifts brought by people and there was no system of regular taxation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mahajanapadas :
1. Mahajanapadas never followed the system of oligarchy
2. Mahajanapadas depended only on occasional gifts brought by people and there was no system of regular taxation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Mahajanapadas never followed the system of oligarchy
2. Mahajanapadas depended only on occasional gifts brought by people and there was no system of regular taxation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Spectrum Coaching Institute answered |
- The Mahajanapadas were sixteen kingdoms or oligarchic republics that existed in ancient India from the sixth to fourth centuries BCE during the second urbanisation period. Most of these kingdoms were monarchical in nature, but some of them, called Gana sangha, had an oligarcharical system of governance. In this system, unlike monarchies, where a hereditary king rules, the administration was run by an elected king with the help of a large council or assemblies comprising heads of all important clans and families. This system was certainly more democratic than monarchy, though the common man had no participation in the administration. The most important of these states was that of Vajjis, with their capital at Vaishali, which the Lichchhavis ruled. These oligarchies mainly existed in the foothills of the Himalayas. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- As the rulers of the mahajanapadas were building huge forts and maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.
- Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.
- There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.
- Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal products.
- There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold through the trade.
- Even hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the Bahmani Empire, theprovinces of Jajnagar and Marhat correspondto which of the following?- a)Odisha and Maharashtra
- b)Gujarat and Maharashtra
- c)Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
- d)Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Bahmani Empire, theprovinces of Jajnagar and Marhat correspondto which of the following?
a)
Odisha and Maharashtra
b)
Gujarat and Maharashtra
c)
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
d)
Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
| | Akanksha Saha answered |
Provinces of Jajnagar and Marhat in Bahmani Empire:
Explanation:
- Jajnagar corresponds to Odisha
- Marhat corresponds to Maharashtra
Option A: Odisha and Maharashtra
- Jajnagar is equivalent to Odisha, which is located on the eastern coast of India. It was an important province in the Bahmani Empire.
- Marhat corresponds to Maharashtra, which is in the western part of India. It was also a significant province under the Bahmani Empire.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A, which states that the provinces of Jajnagar and Marhat correspond to Odisha and Maharashtra in the Bahmani Empire.
Explanation:
- Jajnagar corresponds to Odisha
- Marhat corresponds to Maharashtra
Option A: Odisha and Maharashtra
- Jajnagar is equivalent to Odisha, which is located on the eastern coast of India. It was an important province in the Bahmani Empire.
- Marhat corresponds to Maharashtra, which is in the western part of India. It was also a significant province under the Bahmani Empire.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A, which states that the provinces of Jajnagar and Marhat correspond to Odisha and Maharashtra in the Bahmani Empire.
Consider the following statements with reference to the administration of the Gupta Empire :
1. Like Mauryas, Guptas consolidated every kingdom into a single administrative unit
2. Pradesa was a larger unit of the administration compared to Bhukti
3. They differentiated Civil and Criminal Laws
4. They have collected land tax and excise duties
How many statements given above is/are correct ?- a)Only one statement
- b)Only two statements
- c)Only three statements
- d)All four statements
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to the administration of the Gupta Empire :
1. Like Mauryas, Guptas consolidated every kingdom into a single administrative unit
2. Pradesa was a larger unit of the administration compared to Bhukti
3. They differentiated Civil and Criminal Laws
4. They have collected land tax and excise duties
How many statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Like Mauryas, Guptas consolidated every kingdom into a single administrative unit
2. Pradesa was a larger unit of the administration compared to Bhukti
3. They differentiated Civil and Criminal Laws
4. They have collected land tax and excise duties
How many statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
Only one statement
b)
Only two statements
c)
Only three statements
d)
All four statements
 | Ishita Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
Pradesa and Bhukti:
- The statement that Pradesa was a larger unit of the administration compared to Bhukti is correct. Pradesa was a larger territorial unit, while Bhukti was a smaller administrative unit within the Gupta Empire.
Civil and Criminal Laws:
- The statement that the Guptas differentiated Civil and Criminal Laws is also correct. They had separate laws and regulations for civil matters like property disputes and contracts, as well as for criminal offenses.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two statements.
Consider the following pairs:
Inscription Associated : Ruler
1. Junagarh : Rudradaman I
2. Rabatak : Kanishka
3. Rummindei : Ashoka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?- a)Only one Pair
- b)All the three pairs
- c)Only two pairs
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Inscription Associated : Ruler
1. Junagarh : Rudradaman I
2. Rabatak : Kanishka
3. Rummindei : Ashoka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Inscription Associated : Ruler
1. Junagarh : Rudradaman I
2. Rabatak : Kanishka
3. Rummindei : Ashoka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a)
Only one Pair
b)
All the three pairs
c)
Only two pairs
d)
None of the Above
| | Preethi Ahuja answered |
Explanation:
Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Junagarh: Rudradaman I: This pair is correctly matched as Rudradaman I was a ruler associated with the inscriptions found in Junagarh.
- Rabatak: Kanishka: This pair is correctly matched as the Rabatak inscription is associated with the Kushan ruler Kanishka.
- Rummindei: Ashoka: This pair is correctly matched as Rummindei is the birthplace of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.
Therefore, all three pairs given in the question are correctly matched. The inscriptions mentioned are indeed associated with the rulers as specified.
Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Junagarh: Rudradaman I: This pair is correctly matched as Rudradaman I was a ruler associated with the inscriptions found in Junagarh.
- Rabatak: Kanishka: This pair is correctly matched as the Rabatak inscription is associated with the Kushan ruler Kanishka.
- Rummindei: Ashoka: This pair is correctly matched as Rummindei is the birthplace of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.
Therefore, all three pairs given in the question are correctly matched. The inscriptions mentioned are indeed associated with the rulers as specified.
If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. The three-member committee comprises of
1. The Chief Justice of session court
2. Senior most judge of Supreme Court
3. Chief justice of the High Court
Choose from the following options.- a)Only 1 statement is correct
- b)Only 2 statements are Correct
- c)All the three statements are correct
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. The three-member committee comprises of
1. The Chief Justice of session court
2. Senior most judge of Supreme Court
3. Chief justice of the High Court
Choose from the following options.
1. The Chief Justice of session court
2. Senior most judge of Supreme Court
3. Chief justice of the High Court
Choose from the following options.
a)
Only 1 statement is correct
b)
Only 2 statements are Correct
c)
All the three statements are correct
d)
None of the Above
| | Amrutha Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
Composition of the Three-Member Committee:
- The three-member committee constituted to investigate the allegations charged against the judge comprises of:
- The Chief Justice of session court
- Senior most judge of Supreme Court
- Chief justice of the High Court
Correct Option:
- The correct option is 'b) Only 2 statements are Correct'
- This is because the first and third statements are incorrect. The committee does not include the Chief Justice of the session court and the Chief Justice of the High Court. The correct members are the Senior most judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist.
Therefore, option 'b' is the correct choice as only the second statement regarding the Senior most judge of the Supreme Court is accurate.
Composition of the Three-Member Committee:
- The three-member committee constituted to investigate the allegations charged against the judge comprises of:
- The Chief Justice of session court
- Senior most judge of Supreme Court
- Chief justice of the High Court
Correct Option:
- The correct option is 'b) Only 2 statements are Correct'
- This is because the first and third statements are incorrect. The committee does not include the Chief Justice of the session court and the Chief Justice of the High Court. The correct members are the Senior most judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist.
Therefore, option 'b' is the correct choice as only the second statement regarding the Senior most judge of the Supreme Court is accurate.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Section 153A IPC?
1. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.
2. It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Section 153A IPC?
1. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.
2. It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.
2. It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Lakshya Ias answered |
- Statement 1 is correct: The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code. In 1969, the offence was amended (made cognisable – arrest without a warrant) to enlarge its scope to prevent communal tensions.
- Statement 2 is correct: It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.
Consider the following pairs:
Commission/Body Falls under
1. National Commission for Minorities : Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
2. National Commission for Women : Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. National Commission for STs : Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)All the three pairs are correct
- c)Only two pairs are correct
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Commission/Body Falls under
1. National Commission for Minorities : Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
2. National Commission for Women : Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. National Commission for STs : Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Commission/Body Falls under
1. National Commission for Minorities : Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
2. National Commission for Women : Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. National Commission for STs : Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
All the three pairs are correct
c)
Only two pairs are correct
d)
None of the Above
 | Valor Academy answered |
- National Commission for Minorities falls under the Minorities Ministry of Minority Affairs.
- National Commission for Women falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- National Commission for STs falls under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
- Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Oath of office to the vice president is administered by the president
2. The Oath of office to the vice president can be administered by chief justice appointed in that behalf by president
Which of these statements is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The Oath of office to the vice president is administered by the president
2. The Oath of office to the vice president can be administered by chief justice appointed in that behalf by president
Which of these statements is/are correct?
1. The Oath of office to the vice president is administered by the president
2. The Oath of office to the vice president can be administered by chief justice appointed in that behalf by president
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Academic Studio answered |
Both of them are correct. Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the Vice President swears 1. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India, and 2. to faithfully discharge the duties of his office. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed on that behalf by him.
Which of the pair is correctly matched _________.- a)Republic - Head of the State us hereditary Monarch
- b)Secular - State is without any religion of its own.
- c)Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
- d)Sovereign - Constitution rests on People's will
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the pair is correctly matched _________.
a)
Republic - Head of the State us hereditary Monarch
b)
Secular - State is without any religion of its own.
c)
Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
d)
Sovereign - Constitution rests on People's will
| | Raksha Menon answered |
Secular - State is without any religion of its own
Secularism refers to the principle of separating the state from religious institutions. In a secular state, the government does not promote or favor any specific religion, and individuals are free to practice any religion of their choice without interference from the state.
- Correctly matched: The pair of Secular and "State is without any religion of its own" is correctly matched. A secular state does not have an established or official religion, and it treats all religions equally under the law. This ensures religious freedom for all citizens, regardless of their faith.
- Incorrect options:
- Republic - Head of the State us hereditary Monarch: In a republic, the head of state is usually elected by the people or their representatives, while in a hereditary monarchy, the position is passed down through a royal family.
- Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country: Democracy refers to a form of government where power is vested in the people, either directly or through elected representatives. The legal supremacy of another country is not a defining characteristic of democracy.
- Sovereign - Constitution rests on People's will: While sovereignty implies the supreme power or authority of a state, the constitution of a country may not necessarily rest solely on the will of the people. The constitution may incorporate principles of popular sovereignty, but it also includes other elements such as the rule of law and division of powers.
In conclusion, the correct match is Secular - "State is without any religion of its own," as it accurately reflects the principle of secularism in governance.
Liberty means the absence of constraints on individuals. Consider the following statements about Liberty.
1. Positive Liberty means no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will.
2. Negative Liberty means freedom as an expansion of opportunities to express one’s self.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Liberty means the absence of constraints on individuals. Consider the following statements about Liberty.
1. Positive Liberty means no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will.
2. Negative Liberty means freedom as an expansion of opportunities to express one’s self.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Positive Liberty means no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will.
2. Negative Liberty means freedom as an expansion of opportunities to express one’s self.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
- The basic meaning for negative is restraint one’s action, whereas positive means indulging in an activity. It also extends for positive and negative liberty. So, Statement 1 and 2 could be eliminated.
- Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only in society and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual. It must provide opportunities by enabling positive conditions in material, political and social domains for the development of an individual. It means freedom as the expansion of opportunities to express one’s self. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- Negative liberty seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding anti-defection law under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution:
1. Presiding officer has to decide on a defection case within 14 days of filing a petition regarding the case.
2. If one-third of the legislators move along with the breakaway group then they will not be considered defectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)Neither 1 nor 2
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)2 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding anti-defection law under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution:
1. Presiding officer has to decide on a defection case within 14 days of filing a petition regarding the case.
2. If one-third of the legislators move along with the breakaway group then they will not be considered defectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Presiding officer has to decide on a defection case within 14 days of filing a petition regarding the case.
2. If one-third of the legislators move along with the breakaway group then they will not be considered defectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
Neither 1 nor 2
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
2 only
| | EduRev UPSC answered |
10th Schedule:
- Constitutional basis:
- The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act.
- It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The law does not provide a time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
- The court in its recent judgment has held that, ideally, Speakers should take a decision on a defection petition within three months.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances.
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least twothirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
- In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
With reference to the Five Eyes alliance, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. UK USA Agreement is an initial bilateral treaty to which three other countries joined, resulting in the Five Eyes alliance.2. It evolved as a mechanism for sharing classified intelligence and indirectly monitoring the activities of China in the Indo-pacific region.3. India is not a part of this alliance.Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Five Eyes alliance, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. UK USA Agreement is an initial bilateral treaty to which three other countries joined, resulting in the Five Eyes alliance.
2. It evolved as a mechanism for sharing classified intelligence and indirectly monitoring the activities of China in the Indo-pacific region.
3. India is not a part of this alliance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Valor Academy answered |
Five Eyes Alliance is the result of the UK USA (United Kingdom – United States of America) Agreement of 1946 and is the world's oldest intelligence partnership. The origins of the Five Eyes can be traced back to the informal meetings between the US and UK code-breakers during the Second World War. In 1941, British and American intelligence members began engaging in secret meetings before signing the Atlantic Charter that August, which listed global objectives for the two countries beyond the war's conclusion. According to the UK’s Government Communications Headquarters (GCHQ), this Charter paved the way for the Britain-USA agreement and later the UKUSA agreement, which was signed in 1946. Declassified UK USA intelligence documents confirm that the agreement was expanded to include Canada in 1948 and Australia and New Zealand in 1956, thereby creating the Five Eyes alliance, partly due to past shared Commonwealth heritage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Five Eyes Alliance evolved during the Cold War as a mechanism for monitoring the Soviet Union and sharing classified intelligence. The alliance was created during the Cold War that was fought between the United States and the Soviet Union, as well as their respective allies. Throughout the Cold War, covert intelligence operations were commonplace and often the main currency for the parties involved. As such, alliances needed to share sensitive information regarding their adversaries on all possible fronts available. Following the end of the Cold War and the collapse of the Soviet Union, the strategic objectives of the Five Eyes changed, with the war on terror and, later, the perceived threats of China and Russia emerging as points of intelligence and spheres of influence. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Five Eyes Alliance is a cooperative intelligence network that monitors the electronic communications of citizens and foreign governments. The Five Eyes is an intelligence alliance consisting of the US, UK, Australia, Canada and New Zealand. Thus, India is not a member of the Five Eyes Alliance. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the required conditions for a party to be recognised as a National Party?- Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats and these seats must be won from 3 different states.
- Securing at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or Lok Sabha General Election in any 4 or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or States.
- The party is recognized as a State Party in at least 6 states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are the required conditions for a party to be recognised as a National Party?
- Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats and these seats must be won from 3 different states.
- Securing at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or Lok Sabha General Election in any 4 or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or States.
- The party is recognized as a State Party in at least 6 states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Lakshya Ias answered |
Conditions For Recognition As a National Party Securing at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or Lok Sabha General Election in any 4 or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or States. Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats and these seats must be won from 3 different states. The party is recognized as a State Party in at least 4 states.
With reference to the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, consider the following statements:
1. He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak.
2. He abolished the Ryotwari System and replaced it with the Jagirdari System.
3. He established an efficient army, paying ordinary soldiers in cash and high-ranking officials through jagir grants (Saranjam).
How many of the statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, consider the following statements:
1. He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak.
2. He abolished the Ryotwari System and replaced it with the Jagirdari System.
3. He established an efficient army, paying ordinary soldiers in cash and high-ranking officials through jagir grants (Saranjam).
How many of the statements are correct?
1. He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak.
2. He abolished the Ryotwari System and replaced it with the Jagirdari System.
3. He established an efficient army, paying ordinary soldiers in cash and high-ranking officials through jagir grants (Saranjam).
How many of the statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
| | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:
- Birth:
- Born on 19th February 1630, at Shivneri Fort in Pune District, Maharashtra, he was the son of Shahaji Bhonsle, a Maratha general with jagirs in Pune and Supe under the Bijapur Sultanate, and Jijabai, a deeply religious woman who greatly influenced him.
- Titles:
- He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Administration under Shivaji:
- Central Administration:
- He established a centralised administration with a council of eight ministers (Ashtapradhan) who were directly responsible to him and advised him on various matters of the state.
- The Peshwa, also known as the Mukhya Pradhan, originally headed the advisory council of Raja Shivaji.
- Provincial administration:
- Shivaji divided his kingdom into four provinces. Each province was further divided into districts and villages. The village was the basic unit of administration and was governed by a Deshpande or Patel with the help of a village panchayat.
- Like the centre, there was a committee or council of eight ministers with Sar-i-‘Karkun’ or the ‘prantpati’ (Head of the province).
- Revenue Administration:
- Shivaji abolished the Jagirdari System and replaced it with the Ryotwari System, and made changes in the position of hereditary revenue officials which were popularly known as Deshmukhs, Deshpande, Patils , and Kulkarnis. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Shivaji strictly supervised the Mirasdars who had hereditary rights in land.
- The revenue system was patterned on the Kathi system of Malik Amber in which every piece of land was measured by Rod or Kathi.
- Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were other sources of income.
- Military Administration:
- Shivaji established an efficient army, paying ordinary soldiers in cash and highranking officials through jagir grants (Saranjam). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- His military included infantry (Mavali foot soldiers), cavalry (horse riders and equipment handlers), and a navy.
- Death:
- Shivaji passed away in Raigad in 1680 and was cremated at the Raigad Fort. Shivaji Maharaj Jayanti is celebrated each year on 19th February to remember and praise his courage, warfare tactics and administrative skills.
With reference to the Ganga River Dolphins, consider the following statements:
1. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
2. They can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
3. It is the National aquatic animal of India and state aquatic animal of Assam.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Ganga River Dolphins, consider the following statements:
1. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
2. They can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
3. It is the National aquatic animal of India and state aquatic animal of Assam.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounces off of fish and other prey, enabling them to “see” an image in their mind.
2. They can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind.
3. It is the National aquatic animal of India and state aquatic animal of Assam.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
| | Anjana Chavan answered |
Overview of Ganga River Dolphins
The Ganga River Dolphin, also known as the South Asian River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica), is a fascinating species that resides in the freshwater rivers of the Indian subcontinent. Let's explore the correctness of the provided statements.
Statement 1: Hunting Mechanism
- They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounce off fish and other prey, enabling them to "see" an image in their mind.
- This statement is correct. Ganga River Dolphins utilize echolocation to navigate and hunt in their murky aquatic environment, effectively "seeing" through sound.
Statement 2: Habitat and Vision
- They can only live in freshwater and are essentially blind.
- This statement is partially correct. While Ganga River Dolphins are indeed freshwater inhabitants, they are not completely blind. They have very limited eyesight adapted to their environment but can perceive light and movement.
Statement 3: National and State Aquatic Animal
- It is the National aquatic animal of India and state aquatic animal of Assam.
- This statement is correct. The Ganga River Dolphin is recognized as the National Aquatic Animal of India and also serves as the state aquatic animal of Assam, highlighting its ecological significance.
Conclusion
Considering the correctness of the statements:
- Statement 1: Correct
- Statement 2: Partially correct (not completely blind)
- Statement 3: Correct
Thus, two out of the three statements are entirely correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' since all statements, based on context, are valid in their key aspects.
This highlights the importance of understanding the unique characteristics and conservation status of the Ganga River Dolphin.
The Ganga River Dolphin, also known as the South Asian River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica), is a fascinating species that resides in the freshwater rivers of the Indian subcontinent. Let's explore the correctness of the provided statements.
Statement 1: Hunting Mechanism
- They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounce off fish and other prey, enabling them to "see" an image in their mind.
- This statement is correct. Ganga River Dolphins utilize echolocation to navigate and hunt in their murky aquatic environment, effectively "seeing" through sound.
Statement 2: Habitat and Vision
- They can only live in freshwater and are essentially blind.
- This statement is partially correct. While Ganga River Dolphins are indeed freshwater inhabitants, they are not completely blind. They have very limited eyesight adapted to their environment but can perceive light and movement.
Statement 3: National and State Aquatic Animal
- It is the National aquatic animal of India and state aquatic animal of Assam.
- This statement is correct. The Ganga River Dolphin is recognized as the National Aquatic Animal of India and also serves as the state aquatic animal of Assam, highlighting its ecological significance.
Conclusion
Considering the correctness of the statements:
- Statement 1: Correct
- Statement 2: Partially correct (not completely blind)
- Statement 3: Correct
Thus, two out of the three statements are entirely correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' since all statements, based on context, are valid in their key aspects.
This highlights the importance of understanding the unique characteristics and conservation status of the Ganga River Dolphin.
Consider the following statements regarding South-China Sea:1.The South-China Sea is bordered by China and Taiwan to the West.2.The Indo-Chinese peninsula (including Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore) borders the South-China Sea to the North.3.The major islands and reef formations in the South China Sea are the Spratly Islands, Paracel Islands only.How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding South-China Sea:
1.The South-China Sea is bordered by China and Taiwan to the West.
2.The Indo-Chinese peninsula (including Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore) borders the South-China Sea to the North.
3.The major islands and reef formations in the South China Sea are the Spratly Islands, Paracel Islands only.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
| | Vandana Dey answered |
Incorrect Statements Regarding South China Sea:
Statement 1:
- The South China Sea is not bordered by China and Taiwan to the West. Instead, it is bordered by China and Taiwan to the North and Northeast.
Statement 2:
- The Indo-Chinese peninsula (including Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore) does not border the South China Sea to the North. These countries actually border the South China Sea to the East and Southeast.
Statement 3:
- The major islands and reef formations in the South China Sea are not limited to the Spratly Islands and Paracel Islands. Other significant features include the Scarborough Shoal, Macclesfield Bank, and the Natuna Islands.
Correct Answer:
- None of the statements provided are accurate in describing the geographical borders and key features of the South China Sea. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the region's geography to avoid misconceptions.
Statement 1:
- The South China Sea is not bordered by China and Taiwan to the West. Instead, it is bordered by China and Taiwan to the North and Northeast.
Statement 2:
- The Indo-Chinese peninsula (including Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore) does not border the South China Sea to the North. These countries actually border the South China Sea to the East and Southeast.
Statement 3:
- The major islands and reef formations in the South China Sea are not limited to the Spratly Islands and Paracel Islands. Other significant features include the Scarborough Shoal, Macclesfield Bank, and the Natuna Islands.
Correct Answer:
- None of the statements provided are accurate in describing the geographical borders and key features of the South China Sea. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the region's geography to avoid misconceptions.
Consider the following mechanisms of accessing credit :1. Issue of dated Government securities to the public2. Issue of Treasury Bills to the public3. Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI4. Issue of dated Government Securities to RBIIn the context of the Government of India, through which of the above mechanisms does the Government finance its deficit ?- a)1, 2 and 3 only
- b)1, 2 and 4 only
- c)3 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following mechanisms of accessing credit :
1. Issue of dated Government securities to the public
2. Issue of Treasury Bills to the public
3. Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI
4. Issue of dated Government Securities to RBI
In the context of the Government of India, through which of the above mechanisms does the Government finance its deficit ?
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
1, 2 and 4 only
c)
3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
 | Gargi Saha answered |
Government of India Deficit Financing Mechanisms:
Issue of dated Government securities to the public:
- The Government of India can issue dated Government securities to the public as a way to finance its deficit. These securities are essentially bonds issued by the government which carry a fixed interest rate and have a maturity period.
- Investors purchase these securities, providing the government with the necessary funds to cover its deficit. The government then pays back the principal amount along with the interest on the maturity date.
Issue of Treasury Bills to the public:
- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to raise funds for short periods, typically less than one year. These bills are sold at a discount and redeemed at face value.
- By issuing Treasury bills to the public, the government can access short-term funds to finance its deficit. Investors purchase these bills with the promise of receiving the face value at maturity.
Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI:
- The Ways and Means Advances (WMA) facility is a short-term borrowing arrangement provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the Government of India.
- Under this facility, the government can borrow funds from the RBI to meet temporary mismatches in its cash flow. This provides the government with immediate access to funds to finance its deficit.
Issue of dated Government Securities to RBI:
- In addition to issuing Government securities to the public, the Government of India can also issue these securities to the RBI.
- By issuing dated Government securities to the RBI, the government can raise funds to finance its deficit. The RBI holds these securities as part of its investment portfolio and earns interest on them.
Therefore, the Government of India finances its deficit through mechanisms 1, 2, and 3 - issue of dated Government securities to the public, issue of Treasury Bills to the public, and Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI.
Issue of dated Government securities to the public:
- The Government of India can issue dated Government securities to the public as a way to finance its deficit. These securities are essentially bonds issued by the government which carry a fixed interest rate and have a maturity period.
- Investors purchase these securities, providing the government with the necessary funds to cover its deficit. The government then pays back the principal amount along with the interest on the maturity date.
Issue of Treasury Bills to the public:
- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to raise funds for short periods, typically less than one year. These bills are sold at a discount and redeemed at face value.
- By issuing Treasury bills to the public, the government can access short-term funds to finance its deficit. Investors purchase these bills with the promise of receiving the face value at maturity.
Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI:
- The Ways and Means Advances (WMA) facility is a short-term borrowing arrangement provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the Government of India.
- Under this facility, the government can borrow funds from the RBI to meet temporary mismatches in its cash flow. This provides the government with immediate access to funds to finance its deficit.
Issue of dated Government Securities to RBI:
- In addition to issuing Government securities to the public, the Government of India can also issue these securities to the RBI.
- By issuing dated Government securities to the RBI, the government can raise funds to finance its deficit. The RBI holds these securities as part of its investment portfolio and earns interest on them.
Therefore, the Government of India finances its deficit through mechanisms 1, 2, and 3 - issue of dated Government securities to the public, issue of Treasury Bills to the public, and Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI.
Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI):1. It is released by National Statistics Office (NSO).2. It is released only in two categories rural and urban.3. Its base year is 2016.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI):
1. It is released by National Statistics Office (NSO).
2. It is released only in two categories rural and urban.
3. Its base year is 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) is a measure of change in retail prices of food items consumed by the population.
- It is released by National Statistics Office (NSO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is released in three categories: rural, urban and combined- on all India basis with 2012 as base year. Hence statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
- CFPI is based on retail price quotations as in the case of CPI, whereas the food index of WPI is obtained from wholesale price quotations
- Like Consumer Price Index (CPI), the CFPI is also calculated on a monthly basis and methodology remains the same as CPI.
- In CPI, food and beverage group constitutes 45.86% of weight. Out of this, beverages and some of the eatable items are excluded to derive the CFPI basket of commodities. Weight of the CFPI commodities is 39.05% of the entire CPI basket.
- Additional information
- WPI is based on the share of the respective items in total whole-sale transactions in the economy at first point of sale.
Released By: Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industries. - CPI also known as retail inflation, CPI-based inflation reflects the price movements at the retail level.
Released by: National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- WPI is based on the share of the respective items in total whole-sale transactions in the economy at first point of sale.
Consider the following statements with reference to Balban :
1. He adopted a policy of expansion rather than consolidation
2. He gave the Sultanate two of its basic coins called Tanka and Jittal
3. He was he was known as Lakh Baksh
4. He formulated the theory of kingship
How many statements given above is/are correct ?- a)Only one statement
- b)Only two statements
- c)Only three statements
- d)All four statements
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with reference to Balban :
1. He adopted a policy of expansion rather than consolidation
2. He gave the Sultanate two of its basic coins called Tanka and Jittal
3. He was he was known as Lakh Baksh
4. He formulated the theory of kingship
How many statements given above is/are correct ?
1. He adopted a policy of expansion rather than consolidation
2. He gave the Sultanate two of its basic coins called Tanka and Jittal
3. He was he was known as Lakh Baksh
4. He formulated the theory of kingship
How many statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
Only one statement
b)
Only two statements
c)
Only three statements
d)
All four statements
| | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1266 to 1287 AD), the ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi, was one of the most powerful Sultans. He was a member of Iltutmish's famed group of 40 Turkic slaves. He adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
- The silver and copper coins were mainly in circulation for cash transactions during the period of the Delhi Sultanate. Iltutmish and not Balban introduced the two coins, the Tanka (silver coin) and the Jital (copper coin), which became the basis for the subsequent coinage of the Delhi Sultanate. The value of coinage fluctuated with the change in the prices of metals. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
- Qutub-ud-din Aibak and not Balbun was referred to as Lakh Baksh. Lakh Baksh is usually referred to as those who give away property and wealth to the needy and poor. Because of his generosity and gave liberal donations, Qutub-ud-din Aibak was called Lakh Baksh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
- Balban ruled in an autocratic manner and worked hard to elevate the position of the Sultan. He introduced a new theory of kingship and redefined the relations between the Sultan and nobility. He did not allow any noble to assume great power. So, Statement 4 is correct.
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