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All questions of Mock Tests for UPSC CSE Exam
How many of the following were the declared objectives of the Indian National Congress at the time of its inception?- Promotion of feeling of national unity
- Eradication of social evils
- Indianization of public services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)All three
- b)Only two
- c)Only one
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
How many of the following were the declared objectives of the Indian National Congress at the time of its inception?
- Promotion of feeling of national unity
- Eradication of social evils
- Indianization of public services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
All three
b)
Only two
c)
Only one
d)
None
 | Divey Sethi answered |
The Indian National Congress (INC), founded in 1885, emerged as a pivotal organization in the struggle for Indian independence from British colonial rule. At the time of its inception, the INC articulated several key objectives that reflected the aspirations of the Indian people and the challenges they faced under British rule.
Promotion of feeling of national unity:
- The INC aimed to foster a sense of unity among the diverse communities and regions of India. India was a land of myriad cultures, languages, and religions, and the INC recognized the importance of transcending these differences to create a unified national identity. By promoting a shared sense of belonging and purpose, the INC sought to galvanize Indians in their quest for self-determination and freedom from colonial exploitation.
Eradication of social evils:
- Another crucial objective of the INC was to address the social injustices and inequalities prevalent in Indian society. This included advocating for reforms to abolish oppressive practices such as the caste system, untouchability, child marriage, and discrimination against women. The INC understood that the struggle for political freedom must be accompanied by efforts to achieve social justice and uplift the marginalized sections of society. By championing social reform initiatives, the INC sought to create a more equitable and inclusive society.
Indianization of public services:
- The INC recognized the need to end the dominance of British colonial administrators in India's public services and governance structures. Indianization of public services entailed the recruitment and promotion of Indians to key administrative positions in government, judiciary, and other institutions. This objective was crucial for empowering Indians to participate more actively in the decision-making processes that affected their lives and for asserting their rightful role in governing their own country. By advocating for Indianization, the INC aimed to diminish British control over India's administrative apparatus and pave the way for self-rule.
These objectives of the Indian National Congress at its inception reflected a comprehensive vision for India's future, encompassing not only political liberation from British rule but also social reform and the empowerment of the Indian people. Throughout its history, the INC remained committed to these ideals, adapting its strategies and priorities in response to changing circumstances while remaining steadfast in its pursuit of a free, united, and equitable India.
Which of the following reforms was/were undertaken during the reign of Lord Dalhousie?
1. Introduction of the “Non – Regulation System” for the newly acquired territories.
2. Guarantee System for providing guaranteed return on investment to the railway companies.
3. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following reforms was/were undertaken during the reign of Lord Dalhousie?
1. Introduction of the “Non – Regulation System” for the newly acquired territories.
2. Guarantee System for providing guaranteed return on investment to the railway companies.
3. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Introduction of the “Non – Regulation System” for the newly acquired territories.
2. Guarantee System for providing guaranteed return on investment to the railway companies.
3. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Upsc Toppers answered |
Reforms under Lord Dalhousie –
- Dalhousie’s territorial acquisition transformed the map of India. His greatest achievement was the moulding of the new provinces into a modern centralized state. For the newly acquired territories, he introduced the centralized control called the “Non-Regulation System”.
- Under this system, a Commissioner was appointed for a newly acquired territory. In 1853, he penned his Railway Minute, formulating the future policy of railways in India. He started the “Guarantee System” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a minimum interest of 5% on their investments.
- The government retained the right of buying the railways at the end of the period of contract. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world. Free- trade principles were becoming a passion with the Englishmen of the mid-nineteeth century. The harbours of Karachi, Bombay and Calcutta were developed and a large number of light- houses were constructed.
Consider the following pairs:
Governors - General/ Viceroy Reform
1. The Earl Amherst : Abolition of Sati
2. Lord William Bentinck : Introduction of Local Self-Government
3. Lord Hardinge I : Prohibition on human sacrifice
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Governors - General/ Viceroy Reform
1. The Earl Amherst : Abolition of Sati
2. Lord William Bentinck : Introduction of Local Self-Government
3. Lord Hardinge I : Prohibition on human sacrifice
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Governors - General/ Viceroy Reform
1. The Earl Amherst : Abolition of Sati
2. Lord William Bentinck : Introduction of Local Self-Government
3. Lord Hardinge I : Prohibition on human sacrifice
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
None
 | Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The practice of Sati was prevalent in India from ancient times. Bentinck was greatly distressed when he received a report of 800 cases of Sati in a single year and that from Bengal. He determined to abolish this practice which he considered an offence against natural justice. Therefore, he became a crusader against it and promulgated his Regulation XVII on 4 December 1829 prohibiting the practice of Sati. Those who practiced Sati were made liable for punishment by law courts as accessories to the crime. The Regulation was extended to the Madras and Bombay Presidencies in 1830.
- Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self-government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lord Hardinge I was the Governor General of India from 1844 to 1848. Following the footsteps of Lord William Bentinck, he suppressed Sati, and infanticide. He also suppressed the practice of human sacrifice among the Gonds tribe in Central India.
With reference to Dadabhai Naoro ji, consider the following statements:
1. He pledged loyalty to British crown and desired the continuance of British rule in India.
2. He was the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Dadabhai Naoro ji, consider the following statements:
1. He pledged loyalty to British crown and desired the continuance of British rule in India.
2. He was the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. He pledged loyalty to British crown and desired the continuance of British rule in India.
2. He was the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Kritika Menon answered |
Introduction:
Dadabhai Naoroji was an Indian political and social leader, known as the "Grand Old Man of India." He played a crucial role in the Indian national movement and was one of the early leaders who advocated for self-rule and economic independence for India. Let us analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.
Statement 1: He pledged loyalty to British crown and desired the continuance of British rule in India.
This statement is true. Dadabhai Naoroji believed in the idea of "drain of wealth" from India to Britain, where India's resources were being exploited for the benefit of the British Empire. However, he did not advocate for immediate independence or complete elimination of British rule. Instead, he sought to educate the British about the economic exploitation and social issues faced by India, with the aim of achieving self-rule in the long run. Naoroji's loyalty to the British crown was based on his belief that the British government could be persuaded to undertake reforms that would benefit India.
Statement 2: He was the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons.
This statement is true. Dadabhai Naoroji was indeed the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons. In 1892, he won the seat from the Finsbury Central constituency in London as a Liberal Party candidate. His election to the House of Commons was significant as it gave him a platform to raise the issues of India's poverty, economic exploitation, and the need for self-governance. Naoroji's presence in the British Parliament helped bring international attention to the plight of India under British rule.
Conclusion:
Both the given statements are true. Dadabhai Naoroji's loyalty to the British crown was based on his belief that British rule could be reformed to benefit India. He desired the continuance of British rule in India while advocating for self-rule and economic independence. Additionally, Naoroji's election to the UK House of Commons made him the first Indian to hold such a position, allowing him to raise India's issues on an international platform.
Dadabhai Naoroji was an Indian political and social leader, known as the "Grand Old Man of India." He played a crucial role in the Indian national movement and was one of the early leaders who advocated for self-rule and economic independence for India. Let us analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.
Statement 1: He pledged loyalty to British crown and desired the continuance of British rule in India.
This statement is true. Dadabhai Naoroji believed in the idea of "drain of wealth" from India to Britain, where India's resources were being exploited for the benefit of the British Empire. However, he did not advocate for immediate independence or complete elimination of British rule. Instead, he sought to educate the British about the economic exploitation and social issues faced by India, with the aim of achieving self-rule in the long run. Naoroji's loyalty to the British crown was based on his belief that the British government could be persuaded to undertake reforms that would benefit India.
Statement 2: He was the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons.
This statement is true. Dadabhai Naoroji was indeed the first Indian to be elected to the UK House of Commons. In 1892, he won the seat from the Finsbury Central constituency in London as a Liberal Party candidate. His election to the House of Commons was significant as it gave him a platform to raise the issues of India's poverty, economic exploitation, and the need for self-governance. Naoroji's presence in the British Parliament helped bring international attention to the plight of India under British rule.
Conclusion:
Both the given statements are true. Dadabhai Naoroji's loyalty to the British crown was based on his belief that British rule could be reformed to benefit India. He desired the continuance of British rule in India while advocating for self-rule and economic independence. Additionally, Naoroji's election to the UK House of Commons made him the first Indian to hold such a position, allowing him to raise India's issues on an international platform.
With reference to the British India, the Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900 was passed to- a)reduce the involvement of peasants in nationalist struggle.
- b)suppress the growing extremism and radicalism in the Punjab region.
- c)protect the peasants from British indigo planters.
- d)prevent peasant rebellion in the Punjab region.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the British India, the Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900 was passed to
a)
reduce the involvement of peasants in nationalist struggle.
b)
suppress the growing extremism and radicalism in the Punjab region.
c)
protect the peasants from British indigo planters.
d)
prevent peasant rebellion in the Punjab region.
 | EduRev UPSC answered |
- Rural indebtedness and large-scale alienation of agricultural land to non-cultivating classes was a countrywide phenomenon in rural India during the last quarter of the 19th century. Faced with peasant uprisings in Bengal and Maharashtra the Government could not wait for a similar rebellion in Punjab before it would act. The communal complexion of the Punjab rural situation and the martial character of the Sikhs called for early effective action.
- Following its annexation by the British in 1847, Punjab province witnessed several significant developments—individualization of property rights in land, fixation and rigorous collection of land revenue in cash, the introduction of a new legal-administrative system, construction of a road and railway network, canal-building activities and a colonization program, commercialization of agriculture and increased monetization of economic transactions.
- These developments created a situation which, in turn, gave rise to two related problems –agricultural indebtedness and land transfer.
- As early as 1895 the Government addressed a circular to the provincial governments suggesting the advisability of imposing restrictions on the alienation of agricultural land. The famines of 1896-97 and 1899-1900 resulted in large-scale distress and brought the matter into sharp focus. The Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900 was passed "as an experimental measure " to be extended to the rest of the country if it worked successfully in Punjab.
- The Act divided the Punjab population under three heads viz., the agricultural classes, the statutory agriculturist class (those who though not belonging to the agricultural class long settled interests in the land) and the rest of the population including the moneylenders.
- Restrictions were imposed on the sale and mortgage of the land from the first category to the other two categories, though members of the second and third category could sell or mortgage land as they pleased.
- The Punjab peasant was also given partial relief against the oppressive incidence of land revenue demand by the Government whereby the state land revenue demand was not to exceed 50% of the annual rental value of the land.
- Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following brought out reformsbased on the theory of Separation ofPowers?- a)Warren Hastings
- b)Lord Hastings
- c)Lord Cornwallis
- d)Robert Clive
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following brought out reformsbased on the theory of Separation ofPowers?
a)
Warren Hastings
b)
Lord Hastings
c)
Lord Cornwallis
d)
Robert Clive
 | Sravya Pillai answered |
Reforms by Lord Cornwallis
Lord Cornwallis, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793, implemented significant administrative reforms that were influenced by the theory of Separation of Powers.
Key Aspects of Separation of Powers
- The doctrine of Separation of Powers divides government responsibilities into distinct branches to prevent any one branch from exercising the core functions of another.
Judicial Reforms
- Cornwallis established a separate judiciary, which was independent from the executive.
- This separation aimed to ensure justice was administered fairly and without bias from administrative authorities.
Administrative Reforms
- He introduced a clear distinction between revenue collection and law enforcement.
- Revenue officers were tasked solely with financial duties, while judges handled legal matters, reinforcing the independence of the judiciary.
Impact on Governance
- These reforms reduced corruption and improved the efficiency of governance.
- By clearly defining roles, Cornwallis aimed to create checks and balances within the colonial administrative framework.
Conclusion
- Lord Cornwallis's reforms laid the groundwork for a more structured and accountable governance system in India, embodying the principles of the Separation of Powers.
- His efforts contributed to the evolution of modern administrative practices, influencing future governance models in India.
In summary, option 'C' is correct as Lord Cornwallis's reforms were foundational in establishing the principle of Separation of Powers in colonial India.
Lord Cornwallis, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793, implemented significant administrative reforms that were influenced by the theory of Separation of Powers.
Key Aspects of Separation of Powers
- The doctrine of Separation of Powers divides government responsibilities into distinct branches to prevent any one branch from exercising the core functions of another.
Judicial Reforms
- Cornwallis established a separate judiciary, which was independent from the executive.
- This separation aimed to ensure justice was administered fairly and without bias from administrative authorities.
Administrative Reforms
- He introduced a clear distinction between revenue collection and law enforcement.
- Revenue officers were tasked solely with financial duties, while judges handled legal matters, reinforcing the independence of the judiciary.
Impact on Governance
- These reforms reduced corruption and improved the efficiency of governance.
- By clearly defining roles, Cornwallis aimed to create checks and balances within the colonial administrative framework.
Conclusion
- Lord Cornwallis's reforms laid the groundwork for a more structured and accountable governance system in India, embodying the principles of the Separation of Powers.
- His efforts contributed to the evolution of modern administrative practices, influencing future governance models in India.
In summary, option 'C' is correct as Lord Cornwallis's reforms were foundational in establishing the principle of Separation of Powers in colonial India.
Consider the following pairs:
Organization : Founded by
1. Satyashodhak Samaj : Jyotiba Phule
2. All India Anti- Untouchability League : B. R. Ambedkar
3. All India Scheduled Castes Federation : M. K.Gandhi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Organization : Founded by
1. Satyashodhak Samaj : Jyotiba Phule
2. All India Anti- Untouchability League : B. R. Ambedkar
3. All India Scheduled Castes Federation : M. K.Gandhi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Organization : Founded by
1. Satyashodhak Samaj : Jyotiba Phule
2. All India Anti- Untouchability League : B. R. Ambedkar
3. All India Scheduled Castes Federation : M. K.Gandhi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Divey Sethi answered |
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: Jyotiba Phule (1827-1890), born in Satara, Maharashtra, belonged to the mali (gardener) community and organised a powerful movement against upper caste domination and brahminical supremacy. Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers’ Society) in 1873, with the leadership of the samaj coming from the backward classes. The main aims of the movement were (i) social service, and (ii) the spread of education among women and lower caste people.
- Pair 2 is not correctly matched: In order to better organize the campaign for the amelioration of the untouchables' condition, Gandhi set up a new body in October 1932. The All India Anti-Untouchability League was first named and later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh. Gandhi started publishing a weekly journal called "Harijan" on 11 February 1933 from Yerwada Jail during British rule.
- Pair 3 is not correctly matched: All India Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF), was the first all-India political party exclusively for Scheduled Castes. Dr. Ambedkar founded SCF in a national convention of the Scheduled castes held at Nagpur. It was presided by Rao Bahadur N. Shivraj, a renowned Dalit leader from Madras. An executive body of All India SCF was elected in the convention. Rao Bahadur N. Shivraj was elected president and P.N.Rajbhoj (Bombay) was elected general secretary.
Consider the following statements regarding the Aravipuram Movement:
1. The movement was a reaction against Brahmanic supremacy and the caste system.
2. It was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Aravipuram Movement:
1. The movement was a reaction against Brahmanic supremacy and the caste system.
2. It was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The movement was a reaction against Brahmanic supremacy and the caste system.
2. It was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Mohit Chakraborty answered |
Explanation:
Aravipuram Movement:
The Aravipuram Movement was a social reform movement that originated in the state of Kerala, India. It aimed to challenge Brahmanic supremacy and the oppressive caste system prevalent in society.
Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The Aravipuram Movement was indeed a reaction against Brahmanic supremacy and the caste system. The movement sought to promote social equality and uplift the marginalized sections of society who were discriminated against based on their caste.
Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. The Aravipuram Movement was not started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, was a prominent social reformer from Tamil Nadu who led the Self-Respect Movement and fought against caste discrimination and superstitions in society.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. The Aravipuram Movement was a significant social reform movement in Kerala that aimed to challenge Brahmanic supremacy and promote social equality.
Aravipuram Movement:
The Aravipuram Movement was a social reform movement that originated in the state of Kerala, India. It aimed to challenge Brahmanic supremacy and the oppressive caste system prevalent in society.
Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The Aravipuram Movement was indeed a reaction against Brahmanic supremacy and the caste system. The movement sought to promote social equality and uplift the marginalized sections of society who were discriminated against based on their caste.
Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. The Aravipuram Movement was not started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, was a prominent social reformer from Tamil Nadu who led the Self-Respect Movement and fought against caste discrimination and superstitions in society.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. The Aravipuram Movement was a significant social reform movement in Kerala that aimed to challenge Brahmanic supremacy and promote social equality.
In the context of monetary policy, which of the following are qualitative tools used by the Reserve Bank of India?1. Margin requirements2. Moral suasion3. Changing the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)2 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of monetary policy, which of the following are qualitative tools used by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Margin requirements
2. Moral suasion
3. Changing the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
2 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
None
 | Devansh Mukherjee answered |
Understanding Qualitative Tools in Monetary Policy
In the context of monetary policy, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs both qualitative and quantitative tools to manage liquidity and ensure financial stability. The question specifies three tools and asks which of them are qualitative.
Qualitative Tools
1. Moral Suasion
- This refers to the informal guidance and persuasion by the RBI to encourage banks to adhere to its policies.
- It involves discussions and meetings where the RBI advises banks on lending policies and practices without any legal compulsion.
2. Margin Requirements
- Margin requirements are qualitative in nature as they dictate the minimum collateral or equity that borrowers must maintain when taking loans.
- This tool aims to control credit expansion and ensure that borrowers have sufficient equity, thus reducing risk in lending practices.
Quantitative Tools
1. Changing the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)
- The SLR is a quantitative tool that mandates banks to hold a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid cash, gold, or other securities.
- Adjusting the SLR directly impacts the amount of funds available for banks to lend, making it a quantitative measure.
Conclusion
Given the definitions and classifications of these tools:
- Qualitative tools identified: Moral suasion and margin requirements.
- Quantitative tool identified: Changing the SLR.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' (1 and 2 only), as it includes only qualitative tools used by the RBI.
In the context of monetary policy, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs both qualitative and quantitative tools to manage liquidity and ensure financial stability. The question specifies three tools and asks which of them are qualitative.
Qualitative Tools
1. Moral Suasion
- This refers to the informal guidance and persuasion by the RBI to encourage banks to adhere to its policies.
- It involves discussions and meetings where the RBI advises banks on lending policies and practices without any legal compulsion.
2. Margin Requirements
- Margin requirements are qualitative in nature as they dictate the minimum collateral or equity that borrowers must maintain when taking loans.
- This tool aims to control credit expansion and ensure that borrowers have sufficient equity, thus reducing risk in lending practices.
Quantitative Tools
1. Changing the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)
- The SLR is a quantitative tool that mandates banks to hold a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid cash, gold, or other securities.
- Adjusting the SLR directly impacts the amount of funds available for banks to lend, making it a quantitative measure.
Conclusion
Given the definitions and classifications of these tools:
- Qualitative tools identified: Moral suasion and margin requirements.
- Quantitative tool identified: Changing the SLR.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' (1 and 2 only), as it includes only qualitative tools used by the RBI.
With reference to the Interim Government formed in 1946, consider the following statements:1. The members of the Interim Government were the members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.2. The Viceroy continued to be the Head of the Council.3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was designated as the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.4. Clement Attlee was the British Prime Minister when the Interim Government was formed in 1946.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1, 2 and 4 only
- b)1, 3 and 4 only
- c)2, 3 and 4 only
- d)1, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Interim Government formed in 1946, consider the following statements:
1. The members of the Interim Government were the members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
2. The Viceroy continued to be the Head of the Council.
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was designated as the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
4. Clement Attlee was the British Prime Minister when the Interim Government was formed in 1946.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1, 2 and 4 only
b)
1, 3 and 4 only
c)
2, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
The members of the Interim Government were the members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council. The Viceroy continued to be the Head of the Council. Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice- President of the Council.
With reference to the power of Judicial Review, consider the following statements:1. The Supreme Court can review the legislations of the Parliament but not the administrative actions of the Union.2. The High Courts can review both the legislative and executive actions of the Union as well as states.3. The Supreme Court cannot review the legislation placed under Ninth Schedule.Which of the above statements is/are not correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the power of Judicial Review, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court can review the legislations of the Parliament but not the administrative actions of the Union.
2. The High Courts can review both the legislative and executive actions of the Union as well as states.
3. The Supreme Court cannot review the legislation placed under Ninth Schedule.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
 | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- The power of judicial review is significantly vested upon the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India. x Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in fundamental rights in Part III. It is stated that the State or the Union shall not make such rules that takes away or abridges the essential rights of the people. If any law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature contravenes the provisions of this Article, shall be void.
- Therefore, judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the state governments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri has classified the judicial review into following categories:
- Judicial review of the Constitutional Amendments.
- Judicial review of the legislations of the Parliament and state legislatures and subordinate legislations.
- Judicial review of administrative actions of both the Union and states and authorities under the state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- In a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case, 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that there cannot be any blanket immunity from judicial review of the laws included in the Ninth Schedule. Judicial review is a basic feature of the constitution and hence, the Supreme Court can review the legislation placed under Ninth Schedule passed after 24th April 1973. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with respect to quasicrystals:1. A quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that does not repeat itself regularly.2. They do not occur naturally and are produced artificially in laboratories.3. They are used in the manufacturing of non-stick frying pans and dental instruments.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements with respect to quasicrystals:
1. A quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that does not repeat itself regularly.
2. They do not occur naturally and are produced artificially in laboratories.
3. They are used in the manufacturing of non-stick frying pans and dental instruments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | K.L Institute answered |
- Scientists have discovered a new type of quasicrystal, one with 12-fold symmetry, in the Sand Hills of north central Nebraska, USA, according to a recent study. It said that this quasicrystal was formed during an accidental electrical discharge, possibly by a lightning strike or a downed power line in a dune.
- Quasicrystal is essentially a crystal-like substance. However, unlike a crystal, in which atoms are arranged in a repeating pattern, a quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that doesn’t repeat itself regularly. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- For the longest time, physicists believed every crystalline arrangement of atoms must have a pattern that repeats itself perfectly over and over again. However, this changed in 1982, when material scientist Dan Shechtman discovered crystal structures that are mathematically regular, but that do not repeat themselves. He was awarded a Nobel Prize in 2011 for discovery of quasicrystals by using diffration patterns.
- Since their discovery, quasicrystals have been widely created in labs and known to possess novel electrical, photonic, and mechanical properties that aren’t found in other materials, making them an attractive prospect for materials scientists. They are used in manufacturing non-stick frying pans, needles for acupuncture and surgery, dental instruments and razor blades. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Although quasicrystals can be easily produced, they are rarely found outside of the laboratory. The first one was identified in a meteorite, found in 2009 near the Khatyrka River in Chukhotka, Russia. The second one was discovered in 2021 during the study of debris from the site of the world’s first nuclear explosion, which took place in 1945 in New Mexico. Scientists suggest that in both instances, for the formations of quasicrystals, materials were subjected to extremely high-pressure and high-temperature shock events. The latest discovery is only the third time that scientists have come across a quasicrystal in nature. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:1. Graphite is a naturally occurring mineral composed of carbon and is one of the three crystalline forms of carbon.2. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity but a bad conductor of heat.3. Graphite has lubricating properties due to its layered structure that allows for easy sliding between the layers.How many of the statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Graphite is a naturally occurring mineral composed of carbon and is one of the three crystalline forms of carbon.
2. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity but a bad conductor of heat.
3. Graphite has lubricating properties due to its layered structure that allows for easy sliding between the layers.
How many of the statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
 | T.S Academy answered |
- Graphite About: Graphite is a naturally occurring mineral composed of carbon. It is one of the three crystalline forms of carbon, with the other two being diamond and amorphous carbon (such as charcoal or carbon black). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Structure: Graphite has a hexagonal crystal structure in which carbon atoms are arranged in layers or sheets. These layers are weakly bonded together, allowing them to easily slide past each other, giving graphite its lubricating properties. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Properties: Graphite is a good conductor of both electricity and heat. It is used in the production of electrodes for batteries and in the electronics industry. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Applications: Graphite is commonly known for its use in pencils. The "lead" in pencils is actually a mixture of graphite and clay. Other applications include crucibles, foundry facings, polishes, arc lamps, batteries, brushes for electric motors, and cores of nuclear reactors.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 343 of the Constitution:1. It provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.2. It states that all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Article 343 of the Constitution:
1. It provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.
2. It states that all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
- The British introduced a codified system of law in India with English as the official language.
- Post-independence, Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- However, it mandated that the English language will continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution of India. It further provides that the President may, during the said period, by order to authorise the use of the Hindi language for any official purpose of the Union, other than the English language.
- Article 348(1)(a) states that unless Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
- Article 348(2) provides further that notwithstanding the provisions of Article 348(1), the Governor of a state may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of Hindi or any other language used for any official purpose, in proceedings in the High Court.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Zaskar range?1. Kamet Peak is the highest point in Zaskar range.2. Shipki and Lipu Lekh are situated in this range.3. Kargil lies in the range.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Zaskar range?
1. Kamet Peak is the highest point in Zaskar range.
2. Shipki and Lipu Lekh are situated in this range.
3. Kargil lies in the range.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Divey Sethi answered |
Kamet Peak is the highest point in Zaskar range. It lies in the Chamoli District of Uttarakhand. Shipki, Lipu Lekh and Mana are situated in this range. Kargil lies in the Zaskar Range of the Himalayas.
Which of the following best describe(s) the concept of Fiscal Drag?- a)Decrease in the GDP growth rate due to higher Fiscal Deficit.
- b)Increase in tax collection due to higher rate of inflation.
- c)Decrease in aggregate demand, when the people move from low tax bracket to high tax bracket.
- d)Both (b) and (c) scrutiny
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following best describe(s) the concept of Fiscal Drag?
a)
Decrease in the GDP growth rate due to higher Fiscal Deficit.
b)
Increase in tax collection due to higher rate of inflation.
c)
Decrease in aggregate demand, when the people move from low tax bracket to high tax bracket.
d)
Both (b) and (c) scrutiny
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
Fiscal drag is a concept where inflation may push more taxpayers into higher tax brackets. Therefore, fiscal drag has the effect of raising the government tax revenue without explicitly raising the tax rates. This fiscal drag also has the effect of decreasing the aggregate demand in the economy and, thus, viewed as an automatic fiscal stabiliser.
With reference to Right to erasure, consider the following statements:1. In India, it is recognized under Right to Privacy under article 21 of the constitution.2. The right is available only against information on the internet.3. Persons acquitted of a crime can seek removal of their case details to avoid social stigma.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Right to erasure, consider the following statements:
1. In India, it is recognized under Right to Privacy under article 21 of the constitution.
2. The right is available only against information on the internet.
3. Persons acquitted of a crime can seek removal of their case details to avoid social stigma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct- Right to be Forgotten : The right to erasure is also known as 'the right to be forgotten'. The RTBF gained importance after the 2014 decision of the Court of Justice of the European Union (“CJEU”) in the Google Spain case. In the Indian context, the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy v. Union of India, 2017 noted that the RTBF was a part of the broader right of privacy. The RTBF emerges from the right to privacy under Article 21 and partly from the right to dignity under Article 21.
- Statement 2 is not correct: It is the right to have publicly available personal information removed from the internet, search, databases, websites or any other public platforms, once the personal information in question is no longer necessary, or relevant.
- Statement 3 is correct: This right allows for the lawful removal of personal information of an individual if such request is made. Hence if a person acquitted of a crime wants the removal of his/her case details to avoid social stigma, it can be done.
Consider the following :1.Deep Ocean Mission2.Sagarmala Project3.O-SMART4.Bharatmala PariyojanaHow many of the above are the key initiatives related to the Blue Economy?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All Four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following :
1.Deep Ocean Mission
2.Sagarmala Project
3.O-SMART
4.Bharatmala Pariyojana
How many of the above are the key initiatives related to the Blue Economy?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All Four
 | Kalyan Kulkarni answered |
Deep Ocean Mission:
The Deep Ocean Mission is a key initiative related to the Blue Economy. It aims to explore the deep ocean for resources and develop technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources.
Sagarmala Project:
The Sagarmala Project is another important initiative related to the Blue Economy. It focuses on port-led development, coastal shipping, and enhancing connectivity through infrastructure development.
O-SMART:
O-SMART is also a significant initiative related to the Blue Economy. It stands for Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science. It aims to provide ocean information services, develop technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources, and enhance ocean research and observation.
Bharatmala Pariyojana:
While the Bharatmala Pariyojana is a major infrastructure development project in India, it is not directly related to the Blue Economy. It focuses on improving road connectivity and enhancing transportation infrastructure.
Therefore, out of the four initiatives mentioned, Deep Ocean Mission, Sagarmala Project, and O-SMART are key initiatives related to the Blue Economy. These initiatives play a crucial role in promoting sustainable use of ocean resources, fostering economic growth, and enhancing connectivity through maritime infrastructure development.
The Deep Ocean Mission is a key initiative related to the Blue Economy. It aims to explore the deep ocean for resources and develop technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources.
Sagarmala Project:
The Sagarmala Project is another important initiative related to the Blue Economy. It focuses on port-led development, coastal shipping, and enhancing connectivity through infrastructure development.
O-SMART:
O-SMART is also a significant initiative related to the Blue Economy. It stands for Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science. It aims to provide ocean information services, develop technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources, and enhance ocean research and observation.
Bharatmala Pariyojana:
While the Bharatmala Pariyojana is a major infrastructure development project in India, it is not directly related to the Blue Economy. It focuses on improving road connectivity and enhancing transportation infrastructure.
Therefore, out of the four initiatives mentioned, Deep Ocean Mission, Sagarmala Project, and O-SMART are key initiatives related to the Blue Economy. These initiatives play a crucial role in promoting sustainable use of ocean resources, fostering economic growth, and enhancing connectivity through maritime infrastructure development.
With reference to the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement, consider the following statements:1. The programme of Atmashakti emphasised upon the use of the vernacular language as the medium of instruction in the schools and the political meetings.2. This Movement marked the rejuvenation of the old Indian traditions in paintings.3. This Movement failed to reach to the masses and remained confined to the Hindu upper caste and the Bengali elites.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement, consider the following statements:
1. The programme of Atmashakti emphasised upon the use of the vernacular language as the medium of instruction in the schools and the political meetings.
2. This Movement marked the rejuvenation of the old Indian traditions in paintings.
3. This Movement failed to reach to the masses and remained confined to the Hindu upper caste and the Bengali elites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Mira Choudhury answered |
1. Atmashakti Programme:
- The Atmashakti programme emphasized the use of vernacular languages as the medium of instruction in schools and political meetings. This was aimed at promoting the use of Indian languages and reviving traditional cultural practices.
2. Rejuvenation of Old Indian Traditions:
- The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement marked a resurgence of old Indian traditions in various aspects, including art and paintings. Artists during this period were inspired by traditional Indian styles and themes, leading to a revival of indigenous artistic practices.
3. Reach of the Movement:
- While the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement did attract support from a wide range of people, including Hindu upper castes and Bengali elites, it was not limited to these groups. The movement had a significant impact on various sections of society, including workers, peasants, and women.
Therefore, all the statements given in the question are correct. The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was a significant phase in India's struggle for independence, encompassing various aspects of Indian society and culture.
- The Atmashakti programme emphasized the use of vernacular languages as the medium of instruction in schools and political meetings. This was aimed at promoting the use of Indian languages and reviving traditional cultural practices.
2. Rejuvenation of Old Indian Traditions:
- The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement marked a resurgence of old Indian traditions in various aspects, including art and paintings. Artists during this period were inspired by traditional Indian styles and themes, leading to a revival of indigenous artistic practices.
3. Reach of the Movement:
- While the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement did attract support from a wide range of people, including Hindu upper castes and Bengali elites, it was not limited to these groups. The movement had a significant impact on various sections of society, including workers, peasants, and women.
Therefore, all the statements given in the question are correct. The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was a significant phase in India's struggle for independence, encompassing various aspects of Indian society and culture.
Which of the following tool(s) can be used for plant genome editing?1. Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs)2. Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)3. CRISPR/Cas9Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1, 2 and 3
- b)1 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1 and 2 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following tool(s) can be used for plant genome editing?
1. Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs)
2. Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)
3. CRISPR/Cas9
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 2 only
| | Devika Dasgupta answered |
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs)
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs) are a type of genome editing tool that can be used for plant genome editing. TALENs are engineered proteins that can be designed to target specific DNA sequences in the plant genome, allowing for precise editing of the DNA.
Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)
Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) are another type of genome editing tool that can be used for plant genome editing. Like TALENs, ZFNs are engineered proteins that can be designed to target specific DNA sequences in the plant genome, enabling targeted editing of the DNA.
CRISPR/Cas9
CRISPR/Cas9 is a revolutionary genome editing tool that has gained widespread popularity for its ease of use and efficiency. CRISPR/Cas9 can also be used for plant genome editing by targeting specific DNA sequences in the plant genome and making precise edits.
Conclusion
In conclusion, all three of the tools mentioned - TALENs, ZFNs, and CRISPR/Cas9 - can be used for plant genome editing. They offer researchers the ability to make targeted edits to the plant genome, allowing for the creation of genetically modified plants with desired traits.
Transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs) are a type of genome editing tool that can be used for plant genome editing. TALENs are engineered proteins that can be designed to target specific DNA sequences in the plant genome, allowing for precise editing of the DNA.
Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs)
Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) are another type of genome editing tool that can be used for plant genome editing. Like TALENs, ZFNs are engineered proteins that can be designed to target specific DNA sequences in the plant genome, enabling targeted editing of the DNA.
CRISPR/Cas9
CRISPR/Cas9 is a revolutionary genome editing tool that has gained widespread popularity for its ease of use and efficiency. CRISPR/Cas9 can also be used for plant genome editing by targeting specific DNA sequences in the plant genome and making precise edits.
Conclusion
In conclusion, all three of the tools mentioned - TALENs, ZFNs, and CRISPR/Cas9 - can be used for plant genome editing. They offer researchers the ability to make targeted edits to the plant genome, allowing for the creation of genetically modified plants with desired traits.
With reference to the administration during the Gupta period, consider the following statements:1. The traditional machinery of the bureaucratic administration got replaced with a new system.2. The local administration was executed through the Municipal Boards and the District Offices.3. Bureaucratic positions tend to become hereditary.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the administration during the Gupta period, consider the following statements:
1. The traditional machinery of the bureaucratic administration got replaced with a new system.
2. The local administration was executed through the Municipal Boards and the District Offices.
3. Bureaucratic positions tend to become hereditary.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | EduRev UPSC answered |
- The Gupta kings continued the traditional machinery of bureaucratic administration with nomenclature that was mostly borrowed or adopted from the earlier times. Thus, the Mantri (The Prime Minister) stood at the head of the civil administration. Among other high officers were the Mahabaladhikrta (The Commander-in-Chief), the Mahadandanayaka (General) and the Mahapratihara (The chief of the palace guards). A high-ranking officer, encountered for the first time in the Gupta records, but destined to have a long career, was the Sandhivigrahika (The Foreign Minister).
- The Bhuktis (provinces) were usually governed by the princes of the royal blood and sometimes by a class of officers, called the Uparikas. The link between the Central and the Provincial administration was furnished by the Kumaramatyas and the Ayuktas, who ruled over the Visayas (districts). The District Officers were nominated by the Provincial Governors. The inscriptions give an idea of systematic local administration in the Gupta period, which assumed many new dimensions. The series of northern Bengal epigraphs mention the Adhisthanadhikarana (The Municipal Board), the Visayadhikarana (The District Office) and the Astakuladhikarana (possibly, the Rural Board). The full Adhisthanadhikarana is said to consist of 4 members: The Nagarasresthi (The Guild President), the Sarthavaha (The Chief Merchant), the Prathamakulika (The Chief Artisan) and the Prathamakayastha (The Chief Scribe).
- The precise significance of the Astakuladhikarana is unknown, but in one example, it is said to be headed by the Mahattaras (The village elders) and also includes the Gramika (The village headman) and the Kutumbins (The householders). The significant aspect of the Gupta bureaucracy was that, since it was less organized and elaborate than the Mauryan administration of the 3rd century B.C. (seen in Kautilya’s Arthasastra), it allowed several offices to be combined in the hands of the same person and the posts tended to become hereditary. In the absence of close supervision by the state, the village affairs were now managed by the leading local elements, who conducted land transactions, without consulting the government.
Consider the following statements:1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that monotheism was the basis of Hinduism.2. Atmaram Pandurang established the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay.3. Dayanand Saraswati did not recognize the hereditary basis of the caste system.Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that monotheism was the basis of Hinduism.
2. Atmaram Pandurang established the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay.
3. Dayanand Saraswati did not recognize the hereditary basis of the caste system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- Ram Mohan Roy had mastery over Persian and Arabic, and great familiarity with the Hindu and the Islamic trends of logic and reason. Consequently, he found it difficult to accept both the missionary claim of the superiority of Christianity and the liberal proclamation of the absence of rational thought in India. Vedantic monism and the ideas of the Quran had great appeal for him, as did unitarianism, which he came in contact with after his move to Calcutta. Together, they confirmed his belief in the superiority of the rational faith over the prevailing popular religions, which impaired human beings’ freedom by tying them to mechanical rituals, irrational myths and superstitions.
- The unity of civilizations advocated by the Orientalist scholars and the ‘unity of Godhead’ proclaimed in Colebrook’s essay on the Vedas consolidated Ram Mohan’s conviction that monotheism was the basis of Hinduism and that practices that differed from ancient textual prescriptions were all aberrations that had to be done away with. Sati was only one such practice. He also condemned polytheism, idol worship and priestcraft, and translated the Upanishads into Bengali to substantiate his claim that monotheism was the basis of Hindu thought. Ideas similar to that propagated by the Brahmo Samaj were echoed in other Presidencies. In Maharashtra, in particular, Atmaram Pandurang took the initiative in establishing the Prarthana Samaj (The Prayer Society) in Bombay in 1867. In 1868, M. G. Ranade and R. G. Bhandarkar joined the Prarthana Samaj and infused it with new vigour.
- The Samaj took a two-pronged stand – it proclaimed the unity of God and argued against the ‘existing corruption of the Hindu religion’. Individual members of the Samaj laid stress on social reforms and sought to gain support for abandoning caste, introducing widow remarriage, abolishing Purdah and child marriage, and encouraging female education. Ranade also attempted to give the Samaj a comprehensive philosophic basis through his essay, ‘Theists Confession of Faith’. Dayanand Saraswati internalized the Orientalist privileging of the texts as the basis of religion and affirmed that the Vedas were the most authentic religious texts of the Hindus.
- All post-Vedic developments, according to him, were accretions to be purged. He refused to recognize the hereditary basis of the caste system as an organic division of society, sought to create an ‘open social system’, where women and the Shudras received a measure of learning and made education, and not birth, the determinant of status. He denounced the worship of gods and goddesses, and advocated the worship of the Supreme Being. Encouraging inter-caste marriages followed upon Dayanand’s understanding that the caste was not defined by heredity, but by the character and achievements of each individual. Dayanand’s reformed society was equally ‘an organically structured social body’, where different castes performed functions suitable to their status, determined by merit.
Consider the following statements regarding Allium negianum:1. It belongs to the same genus as many staple foods, such as onion and garlic.2. This species is restricted to the region of the Western Himalayas.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Allium negianum:
1. It belongs to the same genus as many staple foods, such as onion and garlic.
2. This species is restricted to the region of the Western Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Allium Negianum: A plant discovered in Uttarakhand in 2019 has been newly confirmed as a new species of Allium - the genus that includes many staple foods, such as onion and garlic, among 1,100 species worldwide. The new species is described in the Journal ‘PhytoKeys’. It grows at 3,000 m to 4,800 m above the sea level and can be found along open grassy meadows, sandy soils along rivers and streams forming in snow pasture lands along the alpine meadows, where the melting snow helps carry its seeds to more favourable areas.
- With a narrow distribution, this newly described species is restricted to the region of the Western Himalayas and has not yet been reported from anywhere else in the world, according to a blog post from the Pensoft Publishers, which brings out the Journal. Although new to science, this species has long been known under domestic cultivation to the local communities, the blog post said. It said that according to the locals, onion from the Niti Valley was particularly good, even deemed the best in the market. So far only known from the Western Himalaya region, Alllum negianum might be under pressure from the people looking to taste it, the blog post said. “.. the researchers fear that indiscriminate harvest of its leaves and bulbs for seasoning may pose a threat to its wild populations,” it said.
Which of the following best describes ‘Quasars’?- a)It is a natural light display in Earth's sky, predominantly seen in high-latitude regions.
- b)It is a powerful and luminous explosion of a star which happens at the end of a star's life cycle.
- c)It is an astronomical object with a gravitational pull so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it.
- d)It is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN) located in supermassive black holes.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following best describes ‘Quasars’?
a)
It is a natural light display in Earth's sky, predominantly seen in high-latitude regions.
b)
It is a powerful and luminous explosion of a star which happens at the end of a star's life cycle.
c)
It is an astronomical object with a gravitational pull so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it.
d)
It is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN) located in supermassive black holes.
| | T.S Academy answered |
What are Quasars?
- A quasar (also known as a QSO or quasi-stellar object) is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN).
- Quasars were first discovered six decades ago. They are located in supermassive black holes, which sit in the centre of galaxies.
- As a supermassive black hole feeds on gas and dust, it releases extraordinary amounts of energy in the form of radiation, resulting in a quasar.
- Black hole is a point in space where matter is so compressed as to create a gravity field from which even light cannot escape. Significance of Quasars
- Quasars play a key role in our understanding of the history of the universe, and possibly also the future of the Milky Way.
- Quasars act as “cosmic lighthouses”, allowing researchers to see the outer reaches of the universe.
- NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope will study the earliest galaxies in the universe. The telescope is capable of detecting light from even the most distant quasars, emitted nearly 13 billion years ago
Which of the following factors are responsible for creating chilling effect in northern India during the winter season?1. Snowfall in the Himalayas.2. Distant location of the states, like Punjab and Haryana, from the sea.3. Cold waves from Turkmenistan hitting the north-west India.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following factors are responsible for creating chilling effect in northern India during the winter season?
1. Snowfall in the Himalayas.
2. Distant location of the states, like Punjab and Haryana, from the sea.
3. Cold waves from Turkmenistan hitting the north-west India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Master Training Institute answered |
Usually, the cold weather season sets in by mid-November in northern India. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plains. The mean daily temperature remains below 21°C over most parts of northern India. The night temperature may be quite low, sometimes going below the freezing point in Punjab and Rajasthan. There are 3 main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during this season:
(i) States, like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan, being far away from the moderating influence of the sea, experience continental climate.
(ii) The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and
(iii) Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north- western parts of India.
(i) States, like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan, being far away from the moderating influence of the sea, experience continental climate.
(ii) The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and
(iii) Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north- western parts of India.
With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following statements:1. The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.2. The Act expanded the size of the electorate, but retained high property qualifications.3. The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.4. The Act expanded women’s franchise and also reserved seats for women in the legislatures.Which of the statements given above are incorrect?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 3 only
- d)3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following statements:
1. The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.
2. The Act expanded the size of the electorate, but retained high property qualifications.
3. The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.
4. The Act expanded women’s franchise and also reserved seats for women in the legislatures.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 3 only
d)
3 and 4 only
| | Malavika Sengupta answered |
Incorrect statements in reference to the Government of India Act of 1935:
1. Statement 1: The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.
- The statement is incorrect. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced diarchy at the Centre, dividing the powers between the Governor-General and the newly established Federal Legislature. However, the Act abolished diarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy.
2. Statement 2: The Act expanded the size of the electorate, but retained high property qualifications.
- The statement is incorrect. The Act did expand the size of the electorate by introducing a system of separate electorates for different religious communities. However, it reduced the property qualifications for voting, making it more inclusive.
3. Statement 3: The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.
- The statement is incorrect. The Act did not grant separate electorates to the Scheduled Castes. Instead, it provided for reserved seats for the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes) in both the provincial and central legislatures.
4. Statement 4: The Act expanded women’s franchise and also reserved seats for women in the legislatures.
- The statement is correct. The Act did expand women's franchise by granting them the right to vote. Additionally, it reserved a certain number of seats for women in the provincial legislatures.
Therefore, the incorrect statements in reference to the Government of India Act of 1935 are:
- 1. The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.
- 3. The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.
1. Statement 1: The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.
- The statement is incorrect. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced diarchy at the Centre, dividing the powers between the Governor-General and the newly established Federal Legislature. However, the Act abolished diarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy.
2. Statement 2: The Act expanded the size of the electorate, but retained high property qualifications.
- The statement is incorrect. The Act did expand the size of the electorate by introducing a system of separate electorates for different religious communities. However, it reduced the property qualifications for voting, making it more inclusive.
3. Statement 3: The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.
- The statement is incorrect. The Act did not grant separate electorates to the Scheduled Castes. Instead, it provided for reserved seats for the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes) in both the provincial and central legislatures.
4. Statement 4: The Act expanded women’s franchise and also reserved seats for women in the legislatures.
- The statement is correct. The Act did expand women's franchise by granting them the right to vote. Additionally, it reserved a certain number of seats for women in the provincial legislatures.
Therefore, the incorrect statements in reference to the Government of India Act of 1935 are:
- 1. The Act removed the system of diarchy from the Centre, but continued it in the provinces.
- 3. The Act granted separate electorate to the Scheduled Castes.
Consider the following statements regarding the marginal efficiency of capital (MEC):1. It is defined as the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit of a capital asset.2. Generally investments are relatively high when MEC is lower than prevailing interest rates in the economy.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the marginal efficiency of capital (MEC):
1. It is defined as the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit of a capital asset.
2. Generally investments are relatively high when MEC is lower than prevailing interest rates in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Athira Bose answered |
Understanding Marginal Efficiency of Capital (MEC)
The concept of Marginal Efficiency of Capital (MEC) is crucial in economics, particularly in investment decisions. Let's analyze the statements provided in the question.
Statement 1: Definition of MEC
- MEC is defined as the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit of a capital asset.
- This statement is correct. It reflects the fundamental definition of MEC, emphasizing the expectation of returns from investing in additional capital.
Statement 2: Relationship Between MEC and Investment
- The second statement asserts that investments are relatively high when MEC is lower than prevailing interest rates in the economy.
- This statement is misleading. Generally, investments tend to be higher when the MEC exceeds the prevailing interest rates. When MEC is lower than interest rates, the cost of borrowing is higher than the expected returns on investment, leading to reduced investment activity.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only Statement 1 is correct. Therefore, the right answer is option 'A' (1 only).
Understanding these concepts is vital for making informed investment decisions and understanding economic dynamics.
The concept of Marginal Efficiency of Capital (MEC) is crucial in economics, particularly in investment decisions. Let's analyze the statements provided in the question.
Statement 1: Definition of MEC
- MEC is defined as the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit of a capital asset.
- This statement is correct. It reflects the fundamental definition of MEC, emphasizing the expectation of returns from investing in additional capital.
Statement 2: Relationship Between MEC and Investment
- The second statement asserts that investments are relatively high when MEC is lower than prevailing interest rates in the economy.
- This statement is misleading. Generally, investments tend to be higher when the MEC exceeds the prevailing interest rates. When MEC is lower than interest rates, the cost of borrowing is higher than the expected returns on investment, leading to reduced investment activity.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only Statement 1 is correct. Therefore, the right answer is option 'A' (1 only).
Understanding these concepts is vital for making informed investment decisions and understanding economic dynamics.
Which of the following statements is correct about the China-type climate?- a)It is found on the eastern margins of continents in cold temperate latitudes.
- b)It has hot dry summers and humid, cool winters.
- c)It has narrow annual temperature range due to maritime influence.
- d)It has comparatively more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is correct about the China-type climate?
a)
It is found on the eastern margins of continents in cold temperate latitudes.
b)
It has hot dry summers and humid, cool winters.
c)
It has narrow annual temperature range due to maritime influence.
d)
It has comparatively more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes.
| | K.L Institute answered |
- The Warm Temperate Eastern Margin (China type) of climate is found on the eastern margins of continents in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics.
- It has comparatively more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes, coming mainly in the summer. It is, in fact, the climate of most parts of China a modified form of monsoonal climate. It is thus also called the Temperate Monsoon or China Type of climate. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
- In south-eastern U.S.A, bordering the Gulf of Mexico, continental heating in summer induces an inflow of air from the cooler Atlantic Ocean. Though less pronounced, the overall climatic features resemble those of the China type. It is sometimes referred to as the Gulf type of climate.
- In the southern hemisphere, this kind of climate is experienced along the warm temperate eastern coastlands of all three continents:
- in New South Wales (Australia) with its eucalyptus forests; o in Natal (Africa) where cane sugar thrives; and
- in the maize belt of the Parana-Paraguay-Uruguay (South America) basin.
- As the regions are influenced by the on-shore Trade Winds all year round, without any monsoon variations, the climate cannot be described as a temperate monsoon. It is sometimes referred to as the Natal type of climate.
- The Warm Temperate Eastern Margin Climate is typified by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter. The China type is the most typical climate of the warm temperate eastern margin. The great land mass of the Asiatic continent with its mountainous interior induces great pressure changes between summer and winter.
- Intense heating in the heart of Asia sets up a region of low pressure in summer and the tropical Pacific air stream is drawn in as the rain-bearing South-East Monsoon.
- Heavy precipitation occurs in most parts of China, decreasing inland. The wettest months of Nanking are in summer with more than a third of the annual rainfall falling in June and July, though the monsoon does not 'burst' as suddenly, nor pour' as heavily as in India.
- In winter; a steep pressure gradient is set up between the cold interiors of Mongolia and Siberia, and the warmer Pacific coastlands. The continental polar air stream flows outwards as the North-West Monsoon, bitterly cold and very dry.
- Another characteristic feature of the China-type of eastern margin climate is the great annual temperature range.
With reference to the Dacca Anushilan Samiti, consider the following statements:1. Their revolutionary activities included robberies in the houses of the wealthy merchants.2. This group concentrated on training the revolutionaries through the use of Hindu religious idiom.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Dacca Anushilan Samiti, consider the following statements:
1. Their revolutionary activities included robberies in the houses of the wealthy merchants.
2. This group concentrated on training the revolutionaries through the use of Hindu religious idiom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Abhiram Shah answered |
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Their revolutionary activities included robberies in the houses of the wealthy merchants.
- Statement 2: This group concentrated on training the revolutionaries through the use of Hindu religious idiom.
Correct Answer
- Option C: Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Dacca Anushilan Samiti was a revolutionary organization in British India. Here's why both statements are correct:
- Statement 1: The Dacca Anushilan Samiti was known for engaging in various revolutionary activities, including robberies in the houses of wealthy merchants to fund their cause and create unrest against the British colonial rule.
- Statement 2: The group did focus on training revolutionaries, and they often used Hindu religious idioms and symbols to motivate and inspire their members. This approach helped them connect with the cultural and religious sentiments of the people and garner support for their revolutionary activities.
Therefore, both statements correctly describe the activities and strategies employed by the Dacca Anushilan Samiti.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for which of the following?1. Delimitation of constituencies for election.2. Appointment of the Observers during the conduct of general elections.3. Preparation of the electoral roles for the Assembly and the Council constituencies.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for which of the following?
1. Delimitation of constituencies for election.
2. Appointment of the Observers during the conduct of general elections.
3. Preparation of the electoral roles for the Assembly and the Council constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Tanvi Gupta answered |
Representation of the People Act, 1950
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, is an important legislation that governs the conduct of elections in India. It provides for several key provisions to ensure free and fair elections.
Delimitation of Constituencies
- One of the main provisions of the Act is the delimitation of constituencies for elections.
- This process involves dividing the country into territorial constituencies for the purpose of elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
- Delimitation ensures that each constituency has roughly the same population size, thus ensuring equal representation.
Preparation of Electoral Rolls
- Another important provision of the Act is the preparation of electoral rolls for the Assembly and Council constituencies.
- Electoral rolls are lists of eligible voters in each constituency, and they play a crucial role in ensuring that elections are conducted smoothly and accurately.
- The Act lays down the process for updating and revising these rolls to include eligible voters and remove ineligible ones.
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for the delimitation of constituencies for elections and the preparation of electoral rolls for Assembly and Council constituencies, making option 'a' - 1 and 3 only - the correct answer.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, is an important legislation that governs the conduct of elections in India. It provides for several key provisions to ensure free and fair elections.
Delimitation of Constituencies
- One of the main provisions of the Act is the delimitation of constituencies for elections.
- This process involves dividing the country into territorial constituencies for the purpose of elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
- Delimitation ensures that each constituency has roughly the same population size, thus ensuring equal representation.
Preparation of Electoral Rolls
- Another important provision of the Act is the preparation of electoral rolls for the Assembly and Council constituencies.
- Electoral rolls are lists of eligible voters in each constituency, and they play a crucial role in ensuring that elections are conducted smoothly and accurately.
- The Act lays down the process for updating and revising these rolls to include eligible voters and remove ineligible ones.
Therefore, the Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for the delimitation of constituencies for elections and the preparation of electoral rolls for Assembly and Council constituencies, making option 'a' - 1 and 3 only - the correct answer.
Which of the following are examples of flow variables?1. Exports2. Population of a country3. Government debt4. DepreciationSelect the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 and 4 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are examples of flow variables?
1. Exports
2. Population of a country
3. Government debt
4. Depreciation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 and 4 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 4 only
 | Ias Masters answered |
The concept of stock and flow is mainly used while computing the national income of a country. There are a number of terms related to national income which are classified into stock and flow.
The distinction between a stock and a flow is very significant and the basis of distinction is measurability at a point of time or period of time. It should be noted that both stocks and flows are variables. A variable is a measurable quantity that varies (changes).
- Flow Variables:
- A flow is a quantity that is measured with reference to a period of time. Thus, flows are defined with reference to a specific period (length of time), e.g., hours, days, weeks, months, or years. It has a time dimension. National income (GDP of a country) is a flow. It describes and measures the flow of goods and services which become available to a country during a year.
- Similarly, all other economic variables which have a time dimension, i.e., whose magnitude can be measured over a period of time are called flow variables. For instance, the income of a person is a flow that is earned during a week or a month or any other period. Likewise, investment (i.e., adding to the stock of capital) is a flow as it pertains to a period of time.
- Other examples of flows are expenditure, savings, depreciation, interest, exports, imports, change in inventories (not mere inventories), change in money supply, lending, borrowing, rent, profit, etc. because the magnitude (size) of all these are measured over a period of time.
- Stock Variables:
- A stock is a quantity that is measurable at a particular point in time. Capital is a stock variable. On a particular date (say, 1st April 2022), a company owns and commands a stock of machines, buildings, accessories, raw materials, etc. It is a stock of capital. Like a balance sheet, a stock has a reference to a particular date on which it shows the stock position. Clearly, a stock has no time dimension (length of time) as against a flow that has a time dimension.
- Stock indicates the quantity of a variable at a point of time. Thus, wealth is a stock since it can be measured at a point in time, but income is a flow because it can be measured over a period of time. Examples of stocks are wealth, Government debt, loans, inventories (not change in inventories), opening stock, money supply (amount of money), population, etc.
- Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding dispute over Election Symbols:1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize political parties and allot symbols.2. The decision of the ECI shall be binding on all rival groups except in case of registered but unrecognized parties.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding dispute over Election Symbols:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize political parties and allot symbols.
2. The decision of the ECI shall be binding on all rival groups except in case of registered but unrecognized parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Anushka Patel answered |
Statement 1: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize political parties and allot symbols.
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an important legislation that governs elections in India. Section 29A of this Act empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize political parties. The ECI is responsible for granting recognition to political parties and allotting symbols to them. The recognition of political parties is an important aspect as it grants them certain privileges and benefits, such as access to election symbols and certain financial benefits. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The decision of the ECI shall be binding on all rival groups except in case of registered but unrecognized parties.
The decision of the ECI regarding the recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols is binding on all rival groups. This means that once the ECI recognizes a political party and allots a symbol to it, other rival groups cannot use the same symbol during elections. However, there is an exception to this rule in the case of registered but unrecognized parties. These parties may have registered with the ECI but have not been granted recognition. In such cases, the decision of the ECI regarding symbols may not be binding on them. This means that these parties may be able to use symbols that are already allotted to recognized parties. Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.
Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the ECI to recognize political parties and allot symbols, and the decision of the ECI regarding symbols is binding on all rival groups except in the case of registered but unrecognized parties.
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an important legislation that governs elections in India. Section 29A of this Act empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize political parties. The ECI is responsible for granting recognition to political parties and allotting symbols to them. The recognition of political parties is an important aspect as it grants them certain privileges and benefits, such as access to election symbols and certain financial benefits. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The decision of the ECI shall be binding on all rival groups except in case of registered but unrecognized parties.
The decision of the ECI regarding the recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols is binding on all rival groups. This means that once the ECI recognizes a political party and allots a symbol to it, other rival groups cannot use the same symbol during elections. However, there is an exception to this rule in the case of registered but unrecognized parties. These parties may have registered with the ECI but have not been granted recognition. In such cases, the decision of the ECI regarding symbols may not be binding on them. This means that these parties may be able to use symbols that are already allotted to recognized parties. Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.
Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the ECI to recognize political parties and allot symbols, and the decision of the ECI regarding symbols is binding on all rival groups except in the case of registered but unrecognized parties.
With reference to changes introduced into the tribal economy by the British Administration in India, which of the
following reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers?
1. The British administration restricted the entry of a large number of moneylenders, traders, and revenue
farmers as middlemen in the tribal areas.
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India.
3. The British administration introduced a system of forced labour (begar) in tribal areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to changes introduced into the tribal economy by the British Administration in India, which of the
following reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers?
1. The British administration restricted the entry of a large number of moneylenders, traders, and revenue
farmers as middlemen in the tribal areas.
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India.
3. The British administration introduced a system of forced labour (begar) in tribal areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
following reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers?
1. The British administration restricted the entry of a large number of moneylenders, traders, and revenue
farmers as middlemen in the tribal areas.
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India.
3. The British administration introduced a system of forced labour (begar) in tribal areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Academic Studio answered |
- Tribal movements under British rule were the most frequent, militant, and violent of all movements. The land settlements of the British affected the joint ownership tradition among the tribals and disrupted their social fabric.
- The cause of the tribal violence was directed towards the money-lenders and traders who were seen as extensions of the colonial government. As agriculture was extended in a settled form by the Company government, the tribals lost their land, and there was an influx of non-tribals to these areas due to colonial revenue policies. The money lenders introduced in the tribal areas led to severe exploitation of the local tribals. They became bonded labourers under the new economic system. The tribal societies had a system of joint ownership of land which was replaced by the notion of private property. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- Another common cause was the resentment against the imposition of laws by the ‘foreign government’ that was seen as an effort at destroying the tribal's traditional socio-economic framework. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India. o Its main aim was an assertion of the monopoly of the British over the Indian forest land, and it gave the government undisputable power to regulate the forest and pastures. It enabled the Revenue and Forest Department to control the entire forest and grazing land. Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests for they produced timber that the British wanted. In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely, practice jhum cultivation, collect fruits, or hunt animals. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Begar system of forced labour was introduced in tribal areas as well that had altered labour relations. An influx of Christian Missionaries was supported by the British. The reason behind intense tribal rebellion is that zamindars, the Police, the revenue, and the court alas have exercised a combined system of extortions, oppressive exactions, forcible dispossession of property, abuse, and personal violence, and a variety of petty tyrannies upon the tribals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Under British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably. They were allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent out lands as zamindars but they lost much of their administrative power and were forced to follow laws made by British officials in India.
- They also had to pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups on behalf of the British. They lost the authority they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people and were unable to fulfill their traditional functions.
- All these reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative:
1. It is a move towards preserving, promoting, and popularising tribal culture.
2. Under the initiative, Artisan ID cards have been issued to over 40,000 tribal artisans.
3. The initiative is launched by the Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative:
1. It is a move towards preserving, promoting, and popularising tribal culture.
2. Under the initiative, Artisan ID cards have been issued to over 40,000 tribal artisans.
3. The initiative is launched by the Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It is a move towards preserving, promoting, and popularising tribal culture.
2. Under the initiative, Artisan ID cards have been issued to over 40,000 tribal artisans.
3. The initiative is launched by the Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
 | Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Odisha’s Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative
About:
About:
- In a significant move towards preserving, promoting, and popularising tribal culture while also continuing with the development process, the Odisha government launched the Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative in 2017. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.
- This is an active effort to preserve the culture and heritage of 62 tribes in the State under one umbrella while keeping economic development on course in the regions.
- The scheme, which covered nine tribal-dominated districts and 60 lakh tribal households in 117 blocks, has now been expanded to 23 districts covering more than 84 lakh tribal people.
- SDC’s model: In this model, important cultural markers that are a reflection of tribal identity are identified and promoted.
- Language:
- Language is recognised as an important marker of culture.
- As Odisha is a land of over 22 diverse tribal languages, the focus is on the use and propagation of these languages.
- Over 21 tribal proficiency centres have been established.
- These have modules to educate frontline workers like ASHA workers and non-Odia speakers about tribal culture and dialect.
- Sacred Groves:
- More than 4,500 sacred groves that were close to vanishing from the village landscape are now being conserved.
- These groves hold immense cultural and conservational value for the tribal population, as they are considered to be inhabited by the gods. Resource extraction in these groves is strictly prohibited.
- More than 4,730 sacred groves are under protection in nine districts, and 1,609 tribal cultural clubs have been set up.
- Artisan ID cards: ΠArtisan ID cards have been issued to over 40,000 tribal artisans. Hence statement 2 is correct
- This initiative not only preserves culture, but also enables employment opportunities.
- Tribal Resource Centres:
- To ensure an efficient transfer of knowledge, more than 50 Tribal Resource Centres have been constructed in Sundargarh district. More are coming up in the remaining districts
- SDC’s model: In this model, important cultural markers that are a reflection of tribal identity are identified and promoted.
Consider the following statements:
1. Annexation of Mahe by the British.
2. Failure of the British to fulfill the terms of the Defensive Treaty with Haider, when he was attacked by the Marathas.
3. Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British.
Which of the above are considered the reasons for the Second Anglo-Mysore War?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Annexation of Mahe by the British.
2. Failure of the British to fulfill the terms of the Defensive Treaty with Haider, when he was attacked by the Marathas.
3. Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British.
Which of the above are considered the reasons for the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
1. Annexation of Mahe by the British.
2. Failure of the British to fulfill the terms of the Defensive Treaty with Haider, when he was attacked by the Marathas.
3. Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British.
Which of the above are considered the reasons for the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Raksha Menon answered |
Reasons for the Second Anglo-Mysore War:
Annexation of Mahe by the British:
- The annexation of Mahe by the British in 1779 was seen as a direct provocation by Haider Ali, the ruler of Mysore.
- This move by the British was considered an infringement on Haider Ali's territory and a violation of his authority.
Failure of the British to fulfill the terms of the Defensive Treaty:
- When Haider Ali was attacked by the Marathas, the British failed to come to his aid as per the terms of the Defensive Treaty.
- This betrayal by the British further escalated tensions between Haider Ali and the British.
Haider Ali forming a grand alliance against the British:
- In response to the British actions, Haider Ali formed a grand alliance with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas against the British.
- This alliance was a strategic move by Haider Ali to counter the growing influence and power of the British in the region.
Conclusion:
- The combination of the annexation of Mahe, the failure of the British to honor the Defensive Treaty, and Haider Ali's formation of a grand alliance against the British were key factors that led to the outbreak of the Second Anglo-Mysore War.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided for
1. Inclusion of non-official members for legislative purpose
2. Voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to a few aspects of the budget
3. Introduction of the portfolio system
Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 provided for
1. Inclusion of non-official members for legislative purpose
2. Voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to a few aspects of the budget
3. Introduction of the portfolio system
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Inclusion of non-official members for legislative purpose
2. Voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to a few aspects of the budget
3. Introduction of the portfolio system
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Akshita Joshi answered |
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 was an important legislation enacted by the British government in India during the colonial era. It aimed to introduce some reforms in the legislative system and provide limited representation to Indians in the legislative process.
Inclusion of non-official members for legislative purpose:
- The Act provided for the inclusion of non-official members in the legislative councils. These non-official members were to be appointed by the British government and were expected to represent the interests of the Indian population.
- This was a significant departure from the earlier system where the legislative councils consisted solely of official members who were British officials serving in India.
- The inclusion of non-official members was seen as a step towards giving some voice to the Indian population in the legislative process. However, it is important to note that the non-official members were still in the minority and had limited power to influence decision-making.
Introduction of the portfolio system:
- The Act also introduced the portfolio system in the executive council of the Governor-General and the provincial governments.
- Under this system, each member of the executive council was assigned a specific portfolio or department to oversee.
- This allowed for specialization and division of work within the executive council, leading to more efficient governance.
- The portfolio system also provided an opportunity for Indian members to be appointed to the executive council, although the majority of the positions were still held by British officials.
Voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to the budget:
- The Act granted the Central Legislative Council the power to discuss and vote on certain aspects of the budget.
- However, it is important to note that the budget itself was still prepared and presented by the executive council, which was dominated by British officials.
- The voting powers of the legislative council were limited and did not extend to all aspects of the budget, thus limiting their influence.
Based on the above explanations, it is clear that statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Act did provide for the inclusion of non-official members in the legislative councils and introduced the portfolio system. Statement 2, on the other hand, is not correct as the Act did not grant voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to the budget. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 1 and 3 only.
Inclusion of non-official members for legislative purpose:
- The Act provided for the inclusion of non-official members in the legislative councils. These non-official members were to be appointed by the British government and were expected to represent the interests of the Indian population.
- This was a significant departure from the earlier system where the legislative councils consisted solely of official members who were British officials serving in India.
- The inclusion of non-official members was seen as a step towards giving some voice to the Indian population in the legislative process. However, it is important to note that the non-official members were still in the minority and had limited power to influence decision-making.
Introduction of the portfolio system:
- The Act also introduced the portfolio system in the executive council of the Governor-General and the provincial governments.
- Under this system, each member of the executive council was assigned a specific portfolio or department to oversee.
- This allowed for specialization and division of work within the executive council, leading to more efficient governance.
- The portfolio system also provided an opportunity for Indian members to be appointed to the executive council, although the majority of the positions were still held by British officials.
Voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to the budget:
- The Act granted the Central Legislative Council the power to discuss and vote on certain aspects of the budget.
- However, it is important to note that the budget itself was still prepared and presented by the executive council, which was dominated by British officials.
- The voting powers of the legislative council were limited and did not extend to all aspects of the budget, thus limiting their influence.
Based on the above explanations, it is clear that statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Act did provide for the inclusion of non-official members in the legislative councils and introduced the portfolio system. Statement 2, on the other hand, is not correct as the Act did not grant voting powers to the Central Legislative Council in relation to the budget. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 1 and 3 only.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Subsidiary Alliance System?
1. It was introduced by the British for the first time in India.
2. The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation provided for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal
affairs of the Subsidiary State.
3. Europeans could be employed by a Subsidiary State only after consultation with the Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Subsidiary Alliance System?
1. It was introduced by the British for the first time in India.
2. The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation provided for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal
affairs of the Subsidiary State.
3. Europeans could be employed by a Subsidiary State only after consultation with the Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. It was introduced by the British for the first time in India.
2. The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation provided for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal
affairs of the Subsidiary State.
3. Europeans could be employed by a Subsidiary State only after consultation with the Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
| | Puja Iyer answered |
Introduction to Subsidiary Alliance System:
The Subsidiary Alliance System was a system devised by the British East India Company in India during the late 18th and early 19th centuries to expand their control over Indian territories.
Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation did indeed provide for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal affairs of the Subsidiary State. This was a key feature of the Subsidiary Alliance System, allowing the local rulers to maintain their authority within the state.
- Statement 3: Europeans could only be employed by a Subsidiary State after consultation with the East India Company. This was another way in which the Company exerted influence and control over the subsidiary states.
Explanation of Incorrect Statement:
- Statement 1: The first statement is incorrect as the Subsidiary Alliance System was not introduced by the British for the first time in India. It was actually first implemented by French governor Dupleix in the Carnatic region before the British adopted and expanded upon the system.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B (2 and 3 only) as the Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation did provide for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal affairs of the Subsidiary State and Europeans could only be employed after consultation with the Company.
The Subsidiary Alliance System was a system devised by the British East India Company in India during the late 18th and early 19th centuries to expand their control over Indian territories.
Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: The Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation did indeed provide for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal affairs of the Subsidiary State. This was a key feature of the Subsidiary Alliance System, allowing the local rulers to maintain their authority within the state.
- Statement 3: Europeans could only be employed by a Subsidiary State after consultation with the East India Company. This was another way in which the Company exerted influence and control over the subsidiary states.
Explanation of Incorrect Statement:
- Statement 1: The first statement is incorrect as the Subsidiary Alliance System was not introduced by the British for the first time in India. It was actually first implemented by French governor Dupleix in the Carnatic region before the British adopted and expanded upon the system.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B (2 and 3 only) as the Subsidiary Treaty Negotiation did provide for non-interference by the East India Company in the internal affairs of the Subsidiary State and Europeans could only be employed after consultation with the Company.
Who among the following established the Widow Remarriage Association, in the1850s?- a)Vishnushastri Pandit
- b)Debendranath Tagore
- c)Karsondas Mulji
- d)Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Who among the following established the Widow Remarriage Association, in the1850s?
a)
Vishnushastri Pandit
b)
Debendranath Tagore
c)
Karsondas Mulji
d)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
| | Ias Masters answered |
- Vishnushastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association in the 1850s in Bombay.
- The main task of this association was to make a concerted effort to eradicate people's apathy, cowardice, and bigotry standing in the way of the remarriage movement. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
- Another prominent worker in this field was Karsondas Mulji who started the Satya Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to advocate widow remarriage.
- Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-91), the principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta, advocated for widow remarriage and due to his efforts that the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, was passed. It legalized the marriage of widows and declared issues from such marriages as legitimate. Vidyasagarcited Vedic texts to prove that the Hindu religion sanctioned widow remarriage.
Which of the following statements is/ are not correct regarding the Green Revolution in India?1. Green Revolution started in India in the early 1950s.2. It was marked by an increase in the use of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.3. The HYV seeds significantly lowered the use of irrigation in IndiaSelect the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/ are not correct regarding the Green Revolution in India?
1. Green Revolution started in India in the early 1950s.
2. It was marked by an increase in the use of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
3. The HYV seeds significantly lowered the use of irrigation in India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
3 only
 | Ayush Desai answered |
Overview of the Green Revolution in India
The Green Revolution was a significant agricultural movement in India that transformed the agricultural landscape and aimed to increase food production.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Green Revolution started in India in the early 1950s.
This statement is incorrect. The Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s, particularly after the introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds in 1966.
- Statement 2: It was marked by an increase in the use of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
This statement is correct. The use of HYV seeds was a hallmark of the Green Revolution, leading to increased crop productivity, particularly in wheat and rice.
- Statement 3: The HYV seeds significantly lowered the use of irrigation in India.
This statement is also incorrect. In fact, the adoption of HYV seeds often required more irrigation, as these seeds were dependent on adequate water supply for optimal growth.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
- Statement 2 is correct.
Thus, the answer to the question is option 'A' (1 and 3 only). This highlights the misconceptions surrounding the Green Revolution, particularly regarding its timeline and irrigation practices.
The Green Revolution was a significant agricultural movement in India that transformed the agricultural landscape and aimed to increase food production.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Green Revolution started in India in the early 1950s.
This statement is incorrect. The Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s, particularly after the introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds in 1966.
- Statement 2: It was marked by an increase in the use of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
This statement is correct. The use of HYV seeds was a hallmark of the Green Revolution, leading to increased crop productivity, particularly in wheat and rice.
- Statement 3: The HYV seeds significantly lowered the use of irrigation in India.
This statement is also incorrect. In fact, the adoption of HYV seeds often required more irrigation, as these seeds were dependent on adequate water supply for optimal growth.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
- Statement 2 is correct.
Thus, the answer to the question is option 'A' (1 and 3 only). This highlights the misconceptions surrounding the Green Revolution, particularly regarding its timeline and irrigation practices.
With reference to different perspectives about the formation of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885, consider the following statements:
1. According to the Safety Valve theory, the INC was formed by A.O. Hume for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed Safety Valve theory and believed that the INC was formed by Indians to promote national interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to different perspectives about the formation of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885, consider the following statements:
1. According to the Safety Valve theory, the INC was formed by A.O. Hume for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed Safety Valve theory and believed that the INC was formed by Indians to promote national interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. According to the Safety Valve theory, the INC was formed by A.O. Hume for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed Safety Valve theory and believed that the INC was formed by Indians to promote national interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Lohit Matani answered |
- The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in 1885 in Bombay. The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 72 delegates and presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. However, there emerged several theories regarding the formation of INC. W.C. Bonnerjee popularized the view that the idea of the Indian National Congress was a product of Lord Dufferin's brain, that he suggested it to Mr Hume who undertook to work it out. Dufferin's idea was to have a political organisation through which the Government could ascertain the real wishes of the people and thus save the administration from any possible political outburst in the country. It is believed that such a view was popularised to prevent the INC from attracting official wrath.
- The Safety Valve theory advocates that A. O. Hume a retired British official formed the Congress with the idea that it would prove to be a ‘safety valve’ for releasing the growing discontent of the Indians. To this end, he convinced Lord Dufferin not to obstruct the formation of the Congress. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Many leaders including Lala Lajpat Rai believed in the Safety Valve theory. Lala Lajpat Rai maintained that the Indian National Congress was organised to serve as a 'safety valve' for the growing unrest in the country and strengthen the British Empire. According to him the redress of political grievances and political advance of India was only a by-product and of secondary importance. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Battle of Plassey?
1.It was an unimpressive military encounter, the defeat of the Nawab of Bengal owing much to betrayal.
2.It was fought on the Bhaghirathi River.
3.After the Battle, Mir Jaffar was installed in power as a British puppet.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)I and 2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements are correct about the Battle of Plassey?
1.It was an unimpressive military encounter, the defeat of the Nawab of Bengal owing much to betrayal.
2.It was fought on the Bhaghirathi River.
3.After the Battle, Mir Jaffar was installed in power as a British puppet.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1.It was an unimpressive military encounter, the defeat of the Nawab of Bengal owing much to betrayal.
2.It was fought on the Bhaghirathi River.
3.After the Battle, Mir Jaffar was installed in power as a British puppet.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
I and 2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Bhargavi Dey answered |
Background of the Battle of Plassey
The Battle of Plassey took place on June 23, 1757, in the region of Bengal, India. It was a significant event in the history of British colonization in India.
1. Unimpressive Military Encounter
- The Battle of Plassey was indeed an unimpressive military encounter. The defeat of the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, was largely due to betrayal rather than a full-fledged battle.
- The British managed to secure the support of Mir Jaffar, a prominent noble in the Nawab's court, who ultimately betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah during the battle.
2. Location of the Battle
- The Battle of Plassey was fought near the Bhagirathi River, which is a distributary of the Ganges River in present-day West Bengal, India.
- The location of the battle near the river played a strategic role in the outcome of the conflict.
3. Installation of Mir Jaffar as a British Puppet
- After the decisive victory at the Battle of Plassey, Mir Jaffar was indeed installed in power as a puppet Nawab by the British East India Company.
- Mir Jaffar's loyalty to the British interests allowed them to strengthen their foothold in Bengal and expand their influence in the region.
In conclusion, all three statements about the Battle of Plassey are correct. The battle marked a turning point in British colonial rule in India and paved the way for further British dominance in the subcontinent.
The Battle of Plassey took place on June 23, 1757, in the region of Bengal, India. It was a significant event in the history of British colonization in India.
1. Unimpressive Military Encounter
- The Battle of Plassey was indeed an unimpressive military encounter. The defeat of the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, was largely due to betrayal rather than a full-fledged battle.
- The British managed to secure the support of Mir Jaffar, a prominent noble in the Nawab's court, who ultimately betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah during the battle.
2. Location of the Battle
- The Battle of Plassey was fought near the Bhagirathi River, which is a distributary of the Ganges River in present-day West Bengal, India.
- The location of the battle near the river played a strategic role in the outcome of the conflict.
3. Installation of Mir Jaffar as a British Puppet
- After the decisive victory at the Battle of Plassey, Mir Jaffar was indeed installed in power as a puppet Nawab by the British East India Company.
- Mir Jaffar's loyalty to the British interests allowed them to strengthen their foothold in Bengal and expand their influence in the region.
In conclusion, all three statements about the Battle of Plassey are correct. The battle marked a turning point in British colonial rule in India and paved the way for further British dominance in the subcontinent.
With reference to the Basel Convention, which of the following statements is/are correct?- It regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their safe disposal.
- It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Basel Convention, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their safe disposal.
- It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Saptarshi Patel answered |
Basel Convention
- Regulates Transboundary Movements: The Basel Convention is an international treaty that aims to regulate the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes. It ensures that such wastes are managed and disposed of in an environmentally sound manner to protect human health and the environment.
- Safe Disposal: One of the key objectives of the Basel Convention is to ensure the safe disposal of hazardous wastes. Member countries are required to take measures to minimize the generation of hazardous wastes, treat them as close as possible to their source, and dispose of them in an environmentally sound manner.
- Does not Address Radioactive Waste: It is important to note that the Basel Convention does not specifically address the movement of radioactive waste. Radioactive waste is regulated under other international treaties and agreements, such as the Joint Convention on the Safety of Spent Fuel Management and on the Safety of Radioactive Waste Management.
Therefore, the correct statement is that the Basel Convention regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their safe disposal, but it does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
How many of the following are the benefits of Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)?1. Savings on irrigation water2. Reduces cultivation time3. Lower seed rates4. Lower GHG emissionsSelect the correct answer using the code given below.- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
How many of the following are the benefits of Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)?
1. Savings on irrigation water
2. Reduces cultivation time
3. Lower seed rates
4. Lower GHG emissions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
| | Avantika Chopra answered |
Benefits of Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)
Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is an innovative agricultural practice that offers multiple advantages over traditional methods. Here are the benefits explained in detail:
Savings on Irrigation Water
- DSR requires significantly less water compared to transplanting methods.
- It utilizes less irrigation because the seed is sown directly in the field, reducing water consumption by avoiding the need for puddling.
Reduces Cultivation Time
- DSR streamlines the rice cultivation process by eliminating the transplanting phase.
- This leads to quicker field preparation and sowing, allowing farmers to complete their planting in a shorter timeframe.
Lower Seed Rates
- Direct seeding often necessitates lower seed rates than traditional transplanting.
- This is because the seeds are sown at optimal distances, reducing seed wastage and promoting better plant growth.
Lower GHG Emissions
- DSR contributes to reduced greenhouse gas emissions by minimizing the need for land preparation and water management.
- This practice decreases methane emissions associated with flooded rice fields, making it more environmentally sustainable.
In conclusion,
All four listed benefits of DSR—savings on irrigation water, reduced cultivation time, lower seed rates, and lower GHG emissions—highlight the efficiency and sustainability of this method. Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', as all four benefits are valid.
Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is an innovative agricultural practice that offers multiple advantages over traditional methods. Here are the benefits explained in detail:
Savings on Irrigation Water
- DSR requires significantly less water compared to transplanting methods.
- It utilizes less irrigation because the seed is sown directly in the field, reducing water consumption by avoiding the need for puddling.
Reduces Cultivation Time
- DSR streamlines the rice cultivation process by eliminating the transplanting phase.
- This leads to quicker field preparation and sowing, allowing farmers to complete their planting in a shorter timeframe.
Lower Seed Rates
- Direct seeding often necessitates lower seed rates than traditional transplanting.
- This is because the seeds are sown at optimal distances, reducing seed wastage and promoting better plant growth.
Lower GHG Emissions
- DSR contributes to reduced greenhouse gas emissions by minimizing the need for land preparation and water management.
- This practice decreases methane emissions associated with flooded rice fields, making it more environmentally sustainable.
In conclusion,
All four listed benefits of DSR—savings on irrigation water, reduced cultivation time, lower seed rates, and lower GHG emissions—highlight the efficiency and sustainability of this method. Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', as all four benefits are valid.
Consider the following statements:1. Production taxes and subsidies are independent of the volume of production.2. Product taxes and subsidies are paid pair or received per unit product.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Production taxes and subsidies are independent of the volume of production.
2. Product taxes and subsidies are paid pair or received per unit product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Bhavya Gupta answered |
Understanding Production Taxes and Subsidies
Production taxes and subsidies are essential concepts in economic policy that impact production levels and market dynamics. Let's evaluate the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: Production taxes and subsidies are independent of the volume of production.
- This statement is incorrect. Production taxes and subsidies can indeed vary with the volume of production. For instance, production taxes may be levied based on the total output, meaning that as production increases, the total tax burden also increases. Conversely, subsidies can be designed to incentivize higher production levels and can be contingent on the quantity produced.
Statement 2: Product taxes and subsidies are paid per unit product.
- This statement is correct. Product taxes and subsidies are typically structured on a per-unit basis. This means that for every unit of product sold, a specific tax is applied, or a subsidy is granted. This per-unit mechanism directly influences the pricing and production decisions of businesses.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', which asserts that both statements are accurate in the context given. This reflects an understanding that production taxes can vary with production levels, while product taxes and subsidies are indeed measured on a per-unit basis.
By grasping these distinctions, one can better understand the economic implications of taxes and subsidies on production activities.
Production taxes and subsidies are essential concepts in economic policy that impact production levels and market dynamics. Let's evaluate the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: Production taxes and subsidies are independent of the volume of production.
- This statement is incorrect. Production taxes and subsidies can indeed vary with the volume of production. For instance, production taxes may be levied based on the total output, meaning that as production increases, the total tax burden also increases. Conversely, subsidies can be designed to incentivize higher production levels and can be contingent on the quantity produced.
Statement 2: Product taxes and subsidies are paid per unit product.
- This statement is correct. Product taxes and subsidies are typically structured on a per-unit basis. This means that for every unit of product sold, a specific tax is applied, or a subsidy is granted. This per-unit mechanism directly influences the pricing and production decisions of businesses.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', which asserts that both statements are accurate in the context given. This reflects an understanding that production taxes can vary with production levels, while product taxes and subsidies are indeed measured on a per-unit basis.
By grasping these distinctions, one can better understand the economic implications of taxes and subsidies on production activities.
Consider the following:1. Melting ice cream2. Evaporation of water3. Baking a cakeIn the context of chemistry, how many of the above are chemical changes?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following:
1. Melting ice cream
2. Evaporation of water
3. Baking a cake
In the context of chemistry, how many of the above are chemical changes?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
| | K.L Institute answered |
- A physical change is a type of change in which the form or state of matter is altered, but no new substances are created. The molecular composition remains the same.
- A chemical change is a process where one or more substances are converted into new substances with different properties. It involves the breaking and forming of chemical bonds.
- Melting ice cream - Physical Change Explanation: Melting ice cream is a physical change because it involves a change in the state of matter from solid to liquid without any new substances being formed.
- Evaporation of water - Physical Change Explanation: Evaporation of water is a physical change as it involves the transformation of water from a liquid state to a gaseous state without the formation of new substances.
- Baking a cake - Chemical Change Explanation: Baking a cake involves a chemical change. The ingredients undergo chemical reactions during the baking process, leading to the formation of new substances with different properties.
- Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following events took place during the tenure of Warren Hastings, the first Governor General of Bengal?
1. Raja Chait Singh revolted against the British
2. Vellore mutiny took place
3. Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded
4. First Rohilla war was started
Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 and 3 only
- b)1, 3 and 4 only
- c)2, 3 and 4 only
- d)1 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following events took place during the tenure of Warren Hastings, the first Governor General of Bengal?
1. Raja Chait Singh revolted against the British
2. Vellore mutiny took place
3. Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded
4. First Rohilla war was started
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Raja Chait Singh revolted against the British
2. Vellore mutiny took place
3. Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded
4. First Rohilla war was started
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1, 3 and 4 only
c)
2, 3 and 4 only
d)
1 and 4 only
| | Anu Nambiar answered |
Events during the tenure of Warren Hastings:
- Raja Chait Singh revolted against the British: This event took place during Warren Hastings' tenure when Raja Chait Singh, the ruler of Banaras, rebelled against the British authority. This revolt was a significant challenge for the British administration in India.
- Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded: The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by Sir William Jones in 1784 during Warren Hastings' tenure. This society played a crucial role in the promotion of Oriental studies, archaeology, and culture in India.
- First Rohilla war was started: The First Rohilla War was fought between the British East India Company and the Rohilla Afghan tribes in 1774 during Warren Hastings' time as the Governor General of Bengal. This conflict had far-reaching consequences for the political landscape of northern India.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only (option B). These events highlight the diverse challenges and developments that occurred during Warren Hastings' tenure as the first Governor General of Bengal.
- Raja Chait Singh revolted against the British: This event took place during Warren Hastings' tenure when Raja Chait Singh, the ruler of Banaras, rebelled against the British authority. This revolt was a significant challenge for the British administration in India.
- Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded: The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by Sir William Jones in 1784 during Warren Hastings' tenure. This society played a crucial role in the promotion of Oriental studies, archaeology, and culture in India.
- First Rohilla war was started: The First Rohilla War was fought between the British East India Company and the Rohilla Afghan tribes in 1774 during Warren Hastings' time as the Governor General of Bengal. This conflict had far-reaching consequences for the political landscape of northern India.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only (option B). These events highlight the diverse challenges and developments that occurred during Warren Hastings' tenure as the first Governor General of Bengal.
Which of the following forms a part of the internal debt of India?1. Securities issued to international financial institutions2. Dated securities3. Market Stabilization Scheme bonds4. NRI depositsSelect the correct answer from the code given below.- a)1 and 4 only
- b)3 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following forms a part of the internal debt of India?
1. Securities issued to international financial institutions
2. Dated securities
3. Market Stabilization Scheme bonds
4. NRI deposits
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
a)
1 and 4 only
b)
3 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
| | Rounak Kapoor answered |
Understanding Internal Debt of India
Internal debt refers to the total borrowing by the government from domestic sources. This includes various forms of securities and bonds. Let's analyze each option provided.
1. Securities issued to international financial institutions
- These are not considered part of internal debt as they involve borrowing from external sources. Therefore, this option does not qualify.
2. Dated securities
- Dated securities are government bonds with a fixed maturity date. They are a significant part of the internal debt as they are issued to raise funds from the domestic market.
3. Market Stabilization Scheme bonds
- These bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to manage liquidity and stabilize the economy. They are part of the internal debt as they are aimed at domestic markets.
4. NRI deposits
- Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposits are also considered external debt since they involve funds from non-residents. Thus, this option does not contribute to internal debt.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Options 2 (Dated securities) and 3 (Market Stabilization Scheme bonds) are part of internal debt.
- Options 1 (Securities issued to international financial institutions) and 4 (NRI deposits) do not qualify.
Hence, the correct answer is option C (1, 2, and 3 only), as only options 2 and 3 are relevant to internal debt.
Internal debt refers to the total borrowing by the government from domestic sources. This includes various forms of securities and bonds. Let's analyze each option provided.
1. Securities issued to international financial institutions
- These are not considered part of internal debt as they involve borrowing from external sources. Therefore, this option does not qualify.
2. Dated securities
- Dated securities are government bonds with a fixed maturity date. They are a significant part of the internal debt as they are issued to raise funds from the domestic market.
3. Market Stabilization Scheme bonds
- These bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to manage liquidity and stabilize the economy. They are part of the internal debt as they are aimed at domestic markets.
4. NRI deposits
- Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposits are also considered external debt since they involve funds from non-residents. Thus, this option does not contribute to internal debt.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Options 2 (Dated securities) and 3 (Market Stabilization Scheme bonds) are part of internal debt.
- Options 1 (Securities issued to international financial institutions) and 4 (NRI deposits) do not qualify.
Hence, the correct answer is option C (1, 2, and 3 only), as only options 2 and 3 are relevant to internal debt.
With reference to the Kodo Millet, consider the following statements:- It is grown in India and Pakistan only.
- It is cultivated in Gujarat, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Kodo Millet, consider the following statements:
- It is grown in India and Pakistan only.
- It is cultivated in Gujarat, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | BT Educators answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: Kodo millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum) is also known as Kodra and not Varagu in India. Varagu is another name for another type of millet, Foxtail millet (Setaria italica).
Statement 2 is correct: Kodo millet is best suited for cultivation in tropical and subtropical regions. It thrives on poor soils and is widely distributed in arid and semi-arid regions. Apart from Madhya Pradesh (MP), Kodo millet is cultivated in Gujarat, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
Consider the following pairs:- Fragmentation - Earthworm break down detritus into smaller particles
- Catabolism - Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances
Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
- Fragmentation - Earthworm break down detritus into smaller particles
- Catabolism - Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances
Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Lakshya Ias answered |
Both pairs are correct.
Supplementary Notes:
- Decomposition: Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This processis called fragmentation.By the process of leaching, water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soilhorizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances.This process is called as catabolism.
Rakesh was manual labour in a factory that used to manufacture shoes. The area where the factory was located was bought by a foreign entity that specialized in shoe manufacturing. The machines for the manufacture and design of shoes were imported from the United States of America and manufacturing plants were set up in the area. It was observed that special knowledge of computers and Numerical competency was required to operate those machines which Rakesh lacked and thus he was fired from his job leading to unemployment. What kind of unemployment is depicted in the passage given above?- a)Structural Unemployment
- b)Frictional Unemployment
- c)Seasonal Unemployment
- d)Disguised Unemployment
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Rakesh was manual labour in a factory that used to manufacture shoes. The area where the factory was located was bought by a foreign entity that specialized in shoe manufacturing. The machines for the manufacture and design of shoes were imported from the United States of America and manufacturing plants were set up in the area. It was observed that special knowledge of computers and Numerical competency was required to operate those machines which Rakesh lacked and thus he was fired from his job leading to unemployment. What kind of unemployment is depicted in the passage given above?
a)
Structural Unemployment
b)
Frictional Unemployment
c)
Seasonal Unemployment
d)
Disguised Unemployment
| | Saumya Iyer answered |
Structural Unemployment
Structural Unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills possessed by the labor force and the requirements of the available job opportunities. In the passage given above, Rakesh lost his job in the shoe factory because he lacked the necessary computer knowledge and Numerical competency to operate the new machines that were imported for manufacturing shoes. This led to his unemployment, highlighting the presence of structural unemployment.
Key Points:
- Structural unemployment is caused by changes in the structure of the economy, such as technological advancements or shifts in consumer demand.
- Workers facing structural unemployment often need to acquire new skills or education to adapt to the changing job market.
- It is a long-term form of unemployment that requires systemic solutions such as retraining programs or education initiatives to help affected workers find new employment opportunities.
Structural Unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills possessed by the labor force and the requirements of the available job opportunities. In the passage given above, Rakesh lost his job in the shoe factory because he lacked the necessary computer knowledge and Numerical competency to operate the new machines that were imported for manufacturing shoes. This led to his unemployment, highlighting the presence of structural unemployment.
Key Points:
- Structural unemployment is caused by changes in the structure of the economy, such as technological advancements or shifts in consumer demand.
- Workers facing structural unemployment often need to acquire new skills or education to adapt to the changing job market.
- It is a long-term form of unemployment that requires systemic solutions such as retraining programs or education initiatives to help affected workers find new employment opportunities.
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