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All questions of December 2022 for UPSC CSE Exam
The pacific Islands can be divided on the basis of physical and human geography into which of the following parts?- Melanesia
- Micronesia
- Polynesia
Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The pacific Islands can be divided on the basis of physical and human geography into which of the following parts?
- Melanesia
- Micronesia
- Polynesia
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
 | Deepak Kapoor answered |
The islands are divided on the basis of physical and human geography into three distinct parts —Micronesia, Melanesia and Polynesia.
The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific Ocean.
The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific Ocean.
Consider the following statements.- As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council shall, unanimously or through a majority of 75% of weighted votes, decide on all matters pertaining to GST and recommend such decisions to the Union and State governments.
- The recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either the Union or the States Governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council shall, unanimously or through a majority of 75% of weighted votes, decide on all matters pertaining to GST and recommend such decisions to the Union and State governments.
- The recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either the Union or the States Governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Priyanka Mehta answered |
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
1. The first statement is correct. As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council has been constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution. The Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (as the Chairperson), the Union Minister of State for Finance, and the Finance Ministers of all the States and Union territories with legislatures. The Council is responsible for making decisions on all matters related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). These decisions are taken either unanimously or through a 75% majority of weighted votes. This provision ensures that both the Union and State governments have a say in the decision-making process, promoting cooperative federalism.
2. The second statement is incorrect. The recommendations of the GST Council are binding on both the Union and State governments. Once the Council decides on a matter related to GST, it recommends its decision to the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations are then discussed by the Union and State governments, and a final decision is taken accordingly. The decisions of the GST Council are considered as law and are binding on all the stakeholders involved.
In summary, the GST Council plays a crucial role in the decision-making process related to GST. Its decisions are made through a cooperative federalism approach, ensuring the participation of both the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations carry significant weight and are binding on all the stakeholders. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation:
1. The first statement is correct. As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council has been constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution. The Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (as the Chairperson), the Union Minister of State for Finance, and the Finance Ministers of all the States and Union territories with legislatures. The Council is responsible for making decisions on all matters related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). These decisions are taken either unanimously or through a 75% majority of weighted votes. This provision ensures that both the Union and State governments have a say in the decision-making process, promoting cooperative federalism.
2. The second statement is incorrect. The recommendations of the GST Council are binding on both the Union and State governments. Once the Council decides on a matter related to GST, it recommends its decision to the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations are then discussed by the Union and State governments, and a final decision is taken accordingly. The decisions of the GST Council are considered as law and are binding on all the stakeholders involved.
In summary, the GST Council plays a crucial role in the decision-making process related to GST. Its decisions are made through a cooperative federalism approach, ensuring the participation of both the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations carry significant weight and are binding on all the stakeholders. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements.- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
- RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) controls Money supply in the market.
- Inflation is indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
- RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) controls Money supply in the market.
- Inflation is indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
| | Ashish Datta answered |
The first statement is incorrect. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for collecting and analyzing data related to various socio-economic indicators, including inflation. However, the central bank of India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), also plays a significant role in monitoring and managing inflation.
The second statement is partially correct. The RBI, through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), formulates and implements monetary policies to control inflation and achieve price stability. One of the tools used to control inflation is adjusting the money supply in the market. However, the MPC's role is not limited to controlling money supply; it also considers various other factors such as economic growth, employment, and financial stability while formulating monetary policies.
The third statement is incorrect. Inflation refers to the general increase in the prices of goods and services in an economy over time. It is not indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country. In fact, inflation erodes the purchasing power of a currency as it reduces the amount of goods and services that can be purchased with a given amount of money.
The second statement is partially correct. The RBI, through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), formulates and implements monetary policies to control inflation and achieve price stability. One of the tools used to control inflation is adjusting the money supply in the market. However, the MPC's role is not limited to controlling money supply; it also considers various other factors such as economic growth, employment, and financial stability while formulating monetary policies.
The third statement is incorrect. Inflation refers to the general increase in the prices of goods and services in an economy over time. It is not indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country. In fact, inflation erodes the purchasing power of a currency as it reduces the amount of goods and services that can be purchased with a given amount of money.
Consider the following statements regarding High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS).- HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere.
- These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
- They are intended to replace the conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS).
- HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere.
- These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
- They are intended to replace the conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
| | Srestha Deshpande answered |
Statement 1: HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere.
This statement is correct. High Altitude Pseudo Satellites (HAPS) are unmanned aerial vehicles that operate in the stratosphere, which is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere. These vehicles are designed to fly at high altitudes, typically above 20 kilometers, where they can stay stationary or move slowly for extended periods of time. HAPS are equipped with solar panels to generate power and have the ability to stay aloft for several months or even years.
Statement 2: These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
This statement is incorrect. While HAPS can be remotely controlled, they cannot be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology. BLOS technology refers to the ability to maintain control and communication with an aircraft or satellite even when it is not within the direct line of sight of the ground station. However, due to the high altitude at which HAPS operate, they are often beyond the range of direct communication with ground stations, making BLOS control challenging.
Statement 3: They are intended to replace the conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
This statement is correct. HAPS are indeed intended to replace conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) in certain applications. HAPS offer several advantages over traditional UAVs, such as longer endurance, higher altitude operation, and the ability to provide continuous coverage over a specific area. These attributes make HAPS suitable for a wide range of applications including telecommunications, surveillance, environmental monitoring, disaster response, and remote sensing. In some cases, HAPS can be a cost-effective alternative to satellites for certain missions.
In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere, and they are intended to replace conventional UAVs. However, they cannot be controlled from anywhere using BLOS technology due to the challenges posed by their high altitude operation.
This statement is correct. High Altitude Pseudo Satellites (HAPS) are unmanned aerial vehicles that operate in the stratosphere, which is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere. These vehicles are designed to fly at high altitudes, typically above 20 kilometers, where they can stay stationary or move slowly for extended periods of time. HAPS are equipped with solar panels to generate power and have the ability to stay aloft for several months or even years.
Statement 2: These satellites can be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology.
This statement is incorrect. While HAPS can be remotely controlled, they cannot be controlled from anywhere using Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) technology. BLOS technology refers to the ability to maintain control and communication with an aircraft or satellite even when it is not within the direct line of sight of the ground station. However, due to the high altitude at which HAPS operate, they are often beyond the range of direct communication with ground stations, making BLOS control challenging.
Statement 3: They are intended to replace the conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
This statement is correct. HAPS are indeed intended to replace conventional Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) in certain applications. HAPS offer several advantages over traditional UAVs, such as longer endurance, higher altitude operation, and the ability to provide continuous coverage over a specific area. These attributes make HAPS suitable for a wide range of applications including telecommunications, surveillance, environmental monitoring, disaster response, and remote sensing. In some cases, HAPS can be a cost-effective alternative to satellites for certain missions.
In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. HAPS are advanced unmanned flying systems that operate in the stratosphere, and they are intended to replace conventional UAVs. However, they cannot be controlled from anywhere using BLOS technology due to the challenges posed by their high altitude operation.
Consider the following statements.- Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure.
- Central Depositories Services India Ltd is the only state-owned share depository in India.
- Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure.
- Central Depositories Services India Ltd is the only state-owned share depository in India.
- Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Neha Verma answered |
- CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
- Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialised form.
- CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure, providing services to all market participants, including exchanges, clearing corporations, depository participants, issuers and investors.
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).- Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
- It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).
- Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
- It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
Government has modified the earlier scheme of ‘Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS) with nomenclature ‘Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY)’, for implementation during 2021-22 to 2025-26, which aims at mitigating gaps and providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having at least 50% ST population and 500 STs across States / UTs with notified STs during the period.
The main objective of this scheme is to achieve integrated socio-economic development of selected villages through convergence approach. It includes the following components.
It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having at least 50% ST population and 500 STs across States / UTs with notified STs during the period.
The main objective of this scheme is to achieve integrated socio-economic development of selected villages through convergence approach. It includes the following components.
- Preparing Village Development Plan based on the needs, potential, and aspirations;
- Maximizing the coverage of individual / family benefit schemes of the Central / State Governments;
- Improving the infrastructure in vital sectors like health, education, connectivity and livelihood;
Consider the following statements.- G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
- G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
- The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2, 3
- b)2, 3, 4
- c)1, 3, 4
- d)1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
- G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
- The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
2, 3, 4
c)
1, 3, 4
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
| | Debanshi Desai answered |
Explanation:
Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: G20 is designated as the "premier forum for international economic cooperation".
- Statement 3: The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- Statement 4: The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, and anti-corruption.
Incorrect Statements:
- Statement 1: G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007. This statement is incorrect as G20 comprises 20 members, not 19.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which includes statements 2, 3, and 4 as correct.
Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: G20 is designated as the "premier forum for international economic cooperation".
- Statement 3: The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- Statement 4: The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, and anti-corruption.
Incorrect Statements:
- Statement 1: G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007. This statement is incorrect as G20 comprises 20 members, not 19.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which includes statements 2, 3, and 4 as correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.- A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters.
- It is a system of high-speed winds blowing clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- Tropical cyclones in the formative stages of their development are very calm and does not cause any threat to life and property.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.
- A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters.
- It is a system of high-speed winds blowing clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- Tropical cyclones in the formative stages of their development are very calm and does not cause any threat to life and property.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Naveen Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is correct:
A cyclone is indeed a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters. The warm waters provide the necessary energy for the cyclone to develop and strengthen.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect:
Cyclones in the Northern Hemisphere typically have high-speed winds blowing counterclockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere, the winds blow clockwise. This is due to the Coriolis effect caused by the rotation of the Earth.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect:
Tropical cyclones, especially in their formative stages, can be very dangerous and pose a significant threat to life and property. They can bring heavy rainfall, strong winds, storm surges, and flooding, causing widespread damage and loss of life.
Therefore, the correct statement is option 'A' - "1 only".
1. Statement 1 is correct:
A cyclone is indeed a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters. The warm waters provide the necessary energy for the cyclone to develop and strengthen.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect:
Cyclones in the Northern Hemisphere typically have high-speed winds blowing counterclockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere, the winds blow clockwise. This is due to the Coriolis effect caused by the rotation of the Earth.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect:
Tropical cyclones, especially in their formative stages, can be very dangerous and pose a significant threat to life and property. They can bring heavy rainfall, strong winds, storm surges, and flooding, causing widespread damage and loss of life.
Therefore, the correct statement is option 'A' - "1 only".
Consider the following statements.- The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
- While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
- While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Muskaan Dey answered |
Explanation:
The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends. This means that the Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same. In other words, if the advice given by the Council of Ministers is constitutional, then the Governor is bound to follow it. However, if the advice is unconstitutional, the Governor is not bound to follow it.
Statement 1: The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
This statement is correct. Article 161 of the Indian Constitution grants the power to the Governor to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
Statement 2: While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
This statement is also correct. The Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, but the binding nature of the advice depends on whether it is constitutional or not. If the advice is constitutional, the Governor is bound to follow it. However, if the advice is unconstitutional, the Governor is not bound to follow it.
Therefore, both statements are correct. The correct answer should be option 'C' - Both 1 and 2. However, the given correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2, which is incorrect.
The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends. This means that the Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same. In other words, if the advice given by the Council of Ministers is constitutional, then the Governor is bound to follow it. However, if the advice is unconstitutional, the Governor is not bound to follow it.
Statement 1: The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
This statement is correct. Article 161 of the Indian Constitution grants the power to the Governor to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
Statement 2: While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
This statement is also correct. The Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, but the binding nature of the advice depends on whether it is constitutional or not. If the advice is constitutional, the Governor is bound to follow it. However, if the advice is unconstitutional, the Governor is not bound to follow it.
Therefore, both statements are correct. The correct answer should be option 'C' - Both 1 and 2. However, the given correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2, which is incorrect.
Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).- CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
- CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
- CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)1, 2, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).
- CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
- CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
- CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
1, 2, 3
d)
2, 3
 | Raghavendra Iyer answered |
Statement 1: CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
Yes, this statement is correct. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is primarily composed of methane gas (CH4), which is the main component of natural gas. Methane is a hydrocarbon gas and is the cleanest burning fossil fuel. It is widely used as a fuel for vehicles and industrial applications due to its lower carbon content and less harmful emissions compared to other fossil fuels.
Statement 2: CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
Yes, this statement is correct. CNG has a higher octane rating compared to gasoline. Octane rating is a measure of a fuel's ability to resist knocking or pinging during combustion. CNG's higher octane rating allows engines to run more smoothly and quietly. This is because CNG has a higher resistance to pre-ignition, which reduces engine knocking and noise.
Statement 3: CNG vehicles reduce harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline-powered vehicles.
Yes, this statement is correct. CNG is considered a cleaner fuel compared to gasoline. When CNG is burned, it produces lower levels of harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and nitrous oxide (N2O) compared to gasoline-powered vehicles. Studies have shown that CNG vehicles can reduce these harmful emissions by more than 90% when compared to their gasoline counterparts. This reduction in emissions helps to improve air quality and reduce the environmental impact of transportation.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. CNG's composition mainly consists of methane gas, its higher octane rating contributes to quieter engine operation, and CNG vehicles significantly reduce harmful emissions when compared to gasoline-powered vehicles.
Yes, this statement is correct. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is primarily composed of methane gas (CH4), which is the main component of natural gas. Methane is a hydrocarbon gas and is the cleanest burning fossil fuel. It is widely used as a fuel for vehicles and industrial applications due to its lower carbon content and less harmful emissions compared to other fossil fuels.
Statement 2: CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
Yes, this statement is correct. CNG has a higher octane rating compared to gasoline. Octane rating is a measure of a fuel's ability to resist knocking or pinging during combustion. CNG's higher octane rating allows engines to run more smoothly and quietly. This is because CNG has a higher resistance to pre-ignition, which reduces engine knocking and noise.
Statement 3: CNG vehicles reduce harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline-powered vehicles.
Yes, this statement is correct. CNG is considered a cleaner fuel compared to gasoline. When CNG is burned, it produces lower levels of harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and nitrous oxide (N2O) compared to gasoline-powered vehicles. Studies have shown that CNG vehicles can reduce these harmful emissions by more than 90% when compared to their gasoline counterparts. This reduction in emissions helps to improve air quality and reduce the environmental impact of transportation.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. CNG's composition mainly consists of methane gas, its higher octane rating contributes to quieter engine operation, and CNG vehicles significantly reduce harmful emissions when compared to gasoline-powered vehicles.
Consider the following statements.- In India, the Ministryof Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
- Generally Millets are high in proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
- The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- In India, the Ministryof Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
- Generally Millets are high in proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
- The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Superhit South Latest He answered |
Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the
Agriculture Ministry declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
The Story of Millets published by the Karnataka State Department of Agriculture in association with ICAR-Indian Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad, says, “
Millets contain 7-12% protein
, 2-5% fat, 65-75% carbohydrates and 15-20% dietary fibre.
On March 3, 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to declare
2023 as the International Year of Millets.
The proposal was moved by India and was supported by 72 countries.Consider the following statements.- Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth’s interior.
- Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
- Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magmathat has low viscosity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth’s interior.
- Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
- Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magmathat has low viscosity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
 | Eesha Bhat answered |
- The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat flowing from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates what geologists call ‘magma’.
- Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the Earth’s crust is referred to as lava.
- In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous. Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace, people typically have enough time to move out of the way.
- If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano.
- The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosivity of a volcano. It has a range of 1 to 8 with a higher VEI indicating more explosivity.
Consider the following statements regarding Live-attenuated Vaccines.- Live vaccines use a weakened form of the germ that causes a disease.
- They are used against Rotavirus and Smallpox.
- They are generally given to people with weakened immune systems.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Live-attenuated Vaccines.
- Live vaccines use a weakened form of the germ that causes a disease.
- They are used against Rotavirus and Smallpox.
- They are generally given to people with weakened immune systems.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
 | Raghavendra Banerjee answered |
Understanding Live-Attenuated Vaccines
Live-attenuated vaccines are a critical component of immunization strategies, and evaluating their characteristics is important for understanding their applications and limitations.
Statement 1: Live vaccines use a weakened form of the germ that causes a disease.
- This statement is correct. Live-attenuated vaccines contain a version of the living microbe that has been weakened so it cannot cause disease in healthy individuals. This allows the immune system to recognize and fight off the pathogen without causing illness.
Statement 2: They are used against Rotavirus and Smallpox.
- This statement is also correct. Live-attenuated vaccines are indeed used for diseases such as Smallpox and also for Rotavirus. These vaccines provide effective immunity by mimicking natural infection.
Statement 3: They are generally given to people with weakened immune systems.
- This statement is incorrect. Live-attenuated vaccines are not recommended for individuals with weakened immune systems (e.g., those undergoing chemotherapy, with HIV/AIDS, or on immunosuppressive medications) as they may risk developing the disease due to the live virus.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation of the statements:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': 1 and 2 only.
Live-attenuated vaccines are a critical component of immunization strategies, and evaluating their characteristics is important for understanding their applications and limitations.
Statement 1: Live vaccines use a weakened form of the germ that causes a disease.
- This statement is correct. Live-attenuated vaccines contain a version of the living microbe that has been weakened so it cannot cause disease in healthy individuals. This allows the immune system to recognize and fight off the pathogen without causing illness.
Statement 2: They are used against Rotavirus and Smallpox.
- This statement is also correct. Live-attenuated vaccines are indeed used for diseases such as Smallpox and also for Rotavirus. These vaccines provide effective immunity by mimicking natural infection.
Statement 3: They are generally given to people with weakened immune systems.
- This statement is incorrect. Live-attenuated vaccines are not recommended for individuals with weakened immune systems (e.g., those undergoing chemotherapy, with HIV/AIDS, or on immunosuppressive medications) as they may risk developing the disease due to the live virus.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation of the statements:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.- Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
- The maximum permissible investment limit will be 10 kg of gold for individual.
- Both resident and non-resident Indian entities can invest in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2, 3
- b)1, 2
- c)1 only
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
- Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
- The maximum permissible investment limit will be 10 kg of gold for individual.
- Both resident and non-resident Indian entities can invest in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2, 3
b)
1, 2
c)
1 only
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.
Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports.
It was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.
Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports.
It was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.
Key facts:
- Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
- Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8 years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
- Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time.
- Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied to the first applicant only.
- Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.
Consider the following statements.- The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be sensible and easy to apply.
- The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) seeks to achieve progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be sensible and easy to apply.
- The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) seeks to achieve progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Tanishq Choudhury answered |
The correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
Explanation:
1. The first statement states that the doctrine of progressive realization of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, sensible, and easy to apply. This statement is incorrect. The doctrine of progressive realization of rights actually refers to the obligation of states to take steps, to the maximum of their available resources, towards the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights. It does not specifically mandate that laws should be in consonance with modern ethos or be sensible and easy to apply. The doctrine recognizes that the full realization of these rights may take time and may require the allocation of resources over a period of time.
2. The second statement mentions the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and states that it seeks to achieve progressively the full realization of the rights recognized in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures. This statement is also incorrect. While the ICESCR does aim to achieve the full realization of the rights recognized in the Covenant, it does not limit the means to legislative measures alone. The Covenant recognizes that states have different political, economic, and social systems, and therefore, the methods for achieving the full realization of these rights may vary.
The ICESCR recognizes that states have an obligation to take steps to the maximum of their available resources to achieve the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights. These steps may include legislative measures, but they can also involve other measures such as administrative, budgetary, judicial, and educational measures.
In conclusion, both statements are incorrect. The doctrine of progressive realization of rights does not mandate that laws should be in consonance with modern ethos or be sensible and easy to apply. Additionally, while the ICESCR aims to achieve the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights, it does not limit the means to legislative measures alone.
Explanation:
1. The first statement states that the doctrine of progressive realization of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, sensible, and easy to apply. This statement is incorrect. The doctrine of progressive realization of rights actually refers to the obligation of states to take steps, to the maximum of their available resources, towards the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights. It does not specifically mandate that laws should be in consonance with modern ethos or be sensible and easy to apply. The doctrine recognizes that the full realization of these rights may take time and may require the allocation of resources over a period of time.
2. The second statement mentions the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and states that it seeks to achieve progressively the full realization of the rights recognized in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures. This statement is also incorrect. While the ICESCR does aim to achieve the full realization of the rights recognized in the Covenant, it does not limit the means to legislative measures alone. The Covenant recognizes that states have different political, economic, and social systems, and therefore, the methods for achieving the full realization of these rights may vary.
The ICESCR recognizes that states have an obligation to take steps to the maximum of their available resources to achieve the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights. These steps may include legislative measures, but they can also involve other measures such as administrative, budgetary, judicial, and educational measures.
In conclusion, both statements are incorrect. The doctrine of progressive realization of rights does not mandate that laws should be in consonance with modern ethos or be sensible and easy to apply. Additionally, while the ICESCR aims to achieve the full realization of economic, social, and cultural rights, it does not limit the means to legislative measures alone.
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in - a)Sikkim
- b)Ladakh
- c)Arunachal Pradesh
- d)Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in
a)
Sikkim
b)
Ladakh
c)
Arunachal Pradesh
d)
Himachal Pradesh
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
Yangtse in the Tawang sector of Arunachal Pradesh has been repeatedly targeted by Chinese PLA troops. Yangtse is one of the 25 contested areas along the 3488-km Line of Actual Control between the two countries, stretching from the Western Sector to Middle Sector to Eastern Sector.
Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings.- In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved.
- In the In-camera proceedings, to maintain the freedom of press, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard, without the permission of the court.
- Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings.
- In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved.
- In the In-camera proceedings, to maintain the freedom of press, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard, without the permission of the court.
- Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Neha Verma answered |
- In-camera proceedings are private, unlike open court proceedings. Conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved, the proceedings are usually held through video conferencing or in closed chambers, from which the public and press are excluded.
- In an open court or open justice system, which is the usual course of proceedings, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard.
- Section 327 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera, including inquiry into and trial in rape case.
- The said section states that if the presiding judge or a magistrate thinks fit, she can order at any stage of the proceedings that the public generally, or any particular person, shall not remain present in the courtroom or the court building.
- Section 327 of the CrPC states that it shall not be lawful to publish any matter in relation to in-camera proceedings except with the previous permission of the court. It adds that the ban on publishing of trial proceedings for offence of rape may be lifted subject to maintaining confidentiality of name and address of the parties.
- In-camera proceedings are usually conducted at family courts in cases of matrimonial disputes, including judicial separation, divorce proceedings, impotence, and more. In-camera proceedings are also conducted during the deposition of witnesses of terrorist activities as per the court’s discretion, so as to protect them and maintain national security.
Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.- The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
- The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and national parks.
- Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)1 only
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.
- The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
- The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and national parks.
- Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
1 only
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Harshad Sengupta answered |
The correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2, 3.
Explanation:
Community Forest Resource (CFR) area refers to the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. It is an important concept in the context of community-based forest management and sustainable development.
Statement 1: The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
This statement is correct. The CFR area is a designated portion of forest land that is managed collectively by a community for their livelihood and well-being. It is typically governed by customary laws and practices, and the community has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and management of the resources within the area.
Statement 2: The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks.
This statement is also correct. The CFR area can include various types of forest areas, including revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks. The inclusion of these areas within the CFR depends on the specific regulations and policies of the country or region.
Statement 3: Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
This statement is correct as well. The CFR area can be used not only for timber extraction and non-timber forest produce collection but also for pastoral purposes. It can provide grazing land for livestock and support the traditional livelihood practices of the community.
In conclusion, all three statements are correct. The CFR area is a common forest land that is protected and conserved by a community for sustainable use. It can include various types of forest areas, and it can also be used for pastoral purposes.
Explanation:
Community Forest Resource (CFR) area refers to the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. It is an important concept in the context of community-based forest management and sustainable development.
Statement 1: The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
This statement is correct. The CFR area is a designated portion of forest land that is managed collectively by a community for their livelihood and well-being. It is typically governed by customary laws and practices, and the community has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and management of the resources within the area.
Statement 2: The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks.
This statement is also correct. The CFR area can include various types of forest areas, including revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks. The inclusion of these areas within the CFR depends on the specific regulations and policies of the country or region.
Statement 3: Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
This statement is correct as well. The CFR area can be used not only for timber extraction and non-timber forest produce collection but also for pastoral purposes. It can provide grazing land for livestock and support the traditional livelihood practices of the community.
In conclusion, all three statements are correct. The CFR area is a common forest land that is protected and conserved by a community for sustainable use. It can include various types of forest areas, and it can also be used for pastoral purposes.
Consider the following statements.- Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST).
- To give effect to GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended.
- The recommendations of Goods and Services Tax Council are binding on any legislative body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST).
- To give effect to GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended.
- The recommendations of Goods and Services Tax Council are binding on any legislative body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST), and that the Goods and Services Tax Council’s recommendations were just that: recommendations that could never be binding on a legislative body.
- When, in July 2017, the Union government introduced the GST regime through the 101st constitutional Amendment, it did so based on an underlying belief that tax administration across India needed unification. ‘One Nation, One Tax’, was the mantra. To give effect to this idea, many entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended.
Which of the following elements from India have been listed on the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?- Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat
- Kolkata’s Durga Puja
- Kumbh Mela
- Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur
- Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2, 3, 4
- b)1, 3, 4, 5
- c)2, 3, 4, 5
- d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following elements from India have been listed on the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
- Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat
- Kolkata’s Durga Puja
- Kumbh Mela
- Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur
- Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
1, 3, 4, 5
c)
2, 3, 4, 5
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
| | Rashi Mukherjee answered |
UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
UNESCO recognizes and lists various cultural practices and traditions as part of its Intangible Cultural Heritage program. In India, several elements have been inscribed on this prestigious list. Let's explore the options provided in the question.
Elements Listed by UNESCO
Elements Not Listed
Conclusion
Based on the elements listed above, the correct answer is option 'C', which includes Kolkata’s Durga Puja, Kumbh Mela, Sankirtana, and Buddhist chanting of Ladakh. Garba is not included in this listing, making option 'C' the accurate choice.
UNESCO recognizes and lists various cultural practices and traditions as part of its Intangible Cultural Heritage program. In India, several elements have been inscribed on this prestigious list. Let's explore the options provided in the question.
Elements Listed by UNESCO
- Kolkata’s Durga Puja: This grand festival celebrating the goddess Durga was inscribed in 2021. It showcases the rich cultural heritage of Bengal and emphasizes community participation, artistic expression, and religious significance.
- Kumbh Mela: Recognized in 2016, Kumbh Mela is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world, symbolizing the spiritual and cultural heritage of India. It emphasizes the importance of faith and ancient traditions.
- Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur: This traditional performance was inscribed in 2010, reflecting the cultural heritage of Manipuri society, showcasing its unique musical and dance expressions.
- Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: This practice was included in 2010, underlining the significance of Buddhist traditions in Ladakh’s cultural landscape.
Elements Not Listed
- Garba: While Garba is a popular folk dance from Gujarat, it has not yet been inscribed on UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
Conclusion
Based on the elements listed above, the correct answer is option 'C', which includes Kolkata’s Durga Puja, Kumbh Mela, Sankirtana, and Buddhist chanting of Ladakh. Garba is not included in this listing, making option 'C' the accurate choice.
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in - a)Sikkim
- b)Ladakh
- c)Arunachal Pradesh
- d)Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in
a)
Sikkim
b)
Ladakh
c)
Arunachal Pradesh
d)
Himachal Pradesh
 | Pragati Banerjee answered |
The Yangtse region, recently seen in the news, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India, bordered by Bhutan to the west, China to the north, and Myanmar to the east. It is a region of immense natural beauty, with breathtaking landscapes, snow-capped mountains, and rich biodiversity.
Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option C (Arunachal Pradesh):
1. Location of Arunachal Pradesh:
- Arunachal Pradesh is situated in the easternmost part of India, in the northeastern region.
- It shares its border with China (Tibet Autonomous Region) to the north and northeast, making it a strategically important state.
- The Yangtse region, which has been in the news, is located within Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Significance of the Yangtse region:
- The Yangtse region is of great strategic importance due to its proximity to the Chinese border.
- It is situated in the eastern part of Arunachal Pradesh, close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that separates India and China.
- The region has witnessed heightened tensions between the Indian and Chinese armies in recent times.
3. Border disputes between India and China:
- India and China have a long-standing border dispute in the region, with both countries claiming territories in Arunachal Pradesh.
- China claims the entire state of Arunachal Pradesh as part of its territory and refers to it as "South Tibet."
- The border dispute between the two countries has led to occasional standoffs and tensions in the region.
4. Importance of the region for India:
- Arunachal Pradesh is strategically important for India due to its location.
- It serves as a buffer state between India and China, providing a protective barrier for the rest of the country.
- The region is also rich in natural resources, including hydropower potential, which makes it economically significant.
In conclusion, the Yangtse region, which has been in the news, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The region holds strategic importance due to its proximity to the Chinese border and the ongoing border disputes between India and China. Arunachal Pradesh, as a whole, is a beautiful state in northeastern India, known for its stunning landscapes and rich biodiversity.
Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option C (Arunachal Pradesh):
1. Location of Arunachal Pradesh:
- Arunachal Pradesh is situated in the easternmost part of India, in the northeastern region.
- It shares its border with China (Tibet Autonomous Region) to the north and northeast, making it a strategically important state.
- The Yangtse region, which has been in the news, is located within Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Significance of the Yangtse region:
- The Yangtse region is of great strategic importance due to its proximity to the Chinese border.
- It is situated in the eastern part of Arunachal Pradesh, close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) that separates India and China.
- The region has witnessed heightened tensions between the Indian and Chinese armies in recent times.
3. Border disputes between India and China:
- India and China have a long-standing border dispute in the region, with both countries claiming territories in Arunachal Pradesh.
- China claims the entire state of Arunachal Pradesh as part of its territory and refers to it as "South Tibet."
- The border dispute between the two countries has led to occasional standoffs and tensions in the region.
4. Importance of the region for India:
- Arunachal Pradesh is strategically important for India due to its location.
- It serves as a buffer state between India and China, providing a protective barrier for the rest of the country.
- The region is also rich in natural resources, including hydropower potential, which makes it economically significant.
In conclusion, the Yangtse region, which has been in the news, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The region holds strategic importance due to its proximity to the Chinese border and the ongoing border disputes between India and China. Arunachal Pradesh, as a whole, is a beautiful state in northeastern India, known for its stunning landscapes and rich biodiversity.
Consider the following statements regarding Share buyback.- According to SEBI proceeds, a loss-making company cannot repurchase its shares.
- To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Share buyback.
- According to SEBI proceeds, a loss-making company cannot repurchase its shares.
- To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- While a company can go for repurchase of its shares when it is sitting on a lot of cash but does not have many avenues to invest and prefers to return cash to shareholders, the case of Paytm is different – it’s sitting on huge losses and now using part of investors’ proceeds for the buyback.
- To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement. The share also needs to be held in the demat form.
- As many as 56 companies, including Infosys, TCS, Bajaj Auto and ACC, had opted for share buybacks in 2022.
Consider the following statements.- The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
- Scarborough Shoal is located south of Spratly Islands.
- More than two nations are involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)3 only
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
- Scarborough Shoal is located south of Spratly Islands.
- More than two nations are involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
3 only
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
China not only challenges international maritime laws in the South China Sea, but also confronts Japan over the Senkaku Islands. Six nations, including China and Taiwan, are involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands, which are supposedly sitting on vast reserves of oil and natural gas. China has vigorously militarised some portions of the disputed isles, islets and coral reefs; and countries like Vietnam and the Philippines are anxious not to be left behind.
Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.- Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
- Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
- Usually Tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2, 3
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.
- Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
- Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
- Usually Tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2, 3
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Jaya Mehta answered |
Tarballs
Statement 1: Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not necessarily dark-colored. They can vary in color depending on the type and age of the oil they are formed from. While some tarballs may appear dark, others can be lighter in color.
Statement 2: Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
This statement is correct. Tarballs are formed through the weathering process of crude oil in marine environments. When crude oil is spilled or leaked into the ocean, it undergoes various physical and chemical processes such as evaporation, oxidation, and emulsification. These processes break down the oil into smaller droplets, which can then aggregate and form tarballs.
Statement 3: Usually, tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not typically washed away from beaches during the monsoon season. Instead, they can be deposited on beaches and shorelines as a result of ocean currents and wave action. Tarballs may accumulate along the high tide line or get buried in the sand, posing a threat to marine life and ecosystems.
Conclusion:
From the analysis of the statements, it can be concluded that only Statement 2 is correct. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
Statement 1: Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not necessarily dark-colored. They can vary in color depending on the type and age of the oil they are formed from. While some tarballs may appear dark, others can be lighter in color.
Statement 2: Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
This statement is correct. Tarballs are formed through the weathering process of crude oil in marine environments. When crude oil is spilled or leaked into the ocean, it undergoes various physical and chemical processes such as evaporation, oxidation, and emulsification. These processes break down the oil into smaller droplets, which can then aggregate and form tarballs.
Statement 3: Usually, tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not typically washed away from beaches during the monsoon season. Instead, they can be deposited on beaches and shorelines as a result of ocean currents and wave action. Tarballs may accumulate along the high tide line or get buried in the sand, posing a threat to marine life and ecosystems.
Conclusion:
From the analysis of the statements, it can be concluded that only Statement 2 is correct. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
Recently the Uttarakhand Assembly passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women in state government services. Consider the following statements in this context.- A vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
- Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
- Horizontal reservation refer to reservations for the beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Recently the Uttarakhand Assembly passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women in state government services. Consider the following statements in this context.
- A vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
- Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
- Horizontal reservation refer to reservations for the beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- The Uttarakhand Assembly recently passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women in state government services.
- In simple terms, while a vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law, the horizontal quota is always applied separately to each vertical category, and not across the board.
- Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to the equal opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
- For example, if women have 50 per cent horizontal quota, then half of the selected candidates will have to necessarily be women in each vertical quota category — i.e., half of all selected SC candidates will have to be women, half of the unreserved or general category will have to be women, and so on.
Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in - a)Cricket
- b)Chess
- c)Football
- d)Tennis
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in
a)
Cricket
b)
Chess
c)
Football
d)
Tennis
| | Alok Shah answered |
Semi-automated offside technology in Football
Football has seen several advancements in technology in recent years, and one such innovation is the semi-automated offside technology. This technology has gained attention and has been widely discussed in the news, especially in relation to its use in football.
Explanation:
The semi-automated offside technology in football is primarily used to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions during a match. Offside is a crucial rule in football that determines whether a player is in an offside position when the ball is passed to them. If a player is offside, it can lead to a free-kick or penalty for the opposing team.
How does semi-automated offside technology work?
Semi-automated offside technology involves the use of video technology and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. Here's how it works:
1. Camera System: Multiple high-definition cameras are strategically placed around the football field to capture different angles and perspectives of the game.
2. Video Analysis Software: The footage from these cameras is then analyzed by sophisticated video analysis software. This software can track the movement of players and the ball in real-time.
3. Offside Line: The software uses computer algorithms to draw a virtual offside line across the field. This line represents the position of the second-to-last defender when the ball is played.
4. Offside Decision: When a potential offside situation occurs, the software analyzes the video footage and determines whether a player is in an offside position at the moment the ball is played. It compares the position of the attacker with the virtual offside line.
5. Assisting the Referee: The semi-automated offside technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the position of the player in question. This information is displayed to the referee on a monitor or through an earpiece.
6. Referee's Decision: The final decision regarding the offside is still made by the referee. However, the semi-automated offside technology assists the referee in making a more informed and accurate decision.
Benefits of semi-automated offside technology:
- Accuracy: The use of video technology and computer algorithms significantly reduces the margin of error in offside decisions, ensuring greater accuracy in determining whether a player is offside or not.
- Speed: The semi-automated offside technology provides real-time information to the referee, allowing for quicker decision-making and minimizing disruptions to the flow of the game.
- Transparency: The technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the player's position, making it easier for both players and spectators to understand and accept the referee's decision.
- Minimizes controversies: Offside decisions have often been a subject of controversy in football. The use of semi-automated offside technology helps in reducing disputes and arguments related to offside calls.
In conclusion, the semi-automated offside technology is primarily used in football to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions. It utilizes video analysis software and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. While the
Football has seen several advancements in technology in recent years, and one such innovation is the semi-automated offside technology. This technology has gained attention and has been widely discussed in the news, especially in relation to its use in football.
Explanation:
The semi-automated offside technology in football is primarily used to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions during a match. Offside is a crucial rule in football that determines whether a player is in an offside position when the ball is passed to them. If a player is offside, it can lead to a free-kick or penalty for the opposing team.
How does semi-automated offside technology work?
Semi-automated offside technology involves the use of video technology and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. Here's how it works:
1. Camera System: Multiple high-definition cameras are strategically placed around the football field to capture different angles and perspectives of the game.
2. Video Analysis Software: The footage from these cameras is then analyzed by sophisticated video analysis software. This software can track the movement of players and the ball in real-time.
3. Offside Line: The software uses computer algorithms to draw a virtual offside line across the field. This line represents the position of the second-to-last defender when the ball is played.
4. Offside Decision: When a potential offside situation occurs, the software analyzes the video footage and determines whether a player is in an offside position at the moment the ball is played. It compares the position of the attacker with the virtual offside line.
5. Assisting the Referee: The semi-automated offside technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the position of the player in question. This information is displayed to the referee on a monitor or through an earpiece.
6. Referee's Decision: The final decision regarding the offside is still made by the referee. However, the semi-automated offside technology assists the referee in making a more informed and accurate decision.
Benefits of semi-automated offside technology:
- Accuracy: The use of video technology and computer algorithms significantly reduces the margin of error in offside decisions, ensuring greater accuracy in determining whether a player is offside or not.
- Speed: The semi-automated offside technology provides real-time information to the referee, allowing for quicker decision-making and minimizing disruptions to the flow of the game.
- Transparency: The technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the player's position, making it easier for both players and spectators to understand and accept the referee's decision.
- Minimizes controversies: Offside decisions have often been a subject of controversy in football. The use of semi-automated offside technology helps in reducing disputes and arguments related to offside calls.
In conclusion, the semi-automated offside technology is primarily used in football to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions. It utilizes video analysis software and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. While the
Consider the following statements.- Article 246A states that, the Parliament and the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
- Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Article 246A states that, the Parliament and the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
- Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Anagha Iyer answered |
Explanation:
The given statements are related to the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislatures with respect to the goods and services tax (GST) in India. Let's analyze each statement individually.
Statement 1: Article 246A states that the Parliament and the Legislature of every State have the power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
This statement is correct. Article 246A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. It confers concurrent powers on both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on the subject of GST. This means that both the central and state governments have the authority to legislate on GST matters.
Statement 2: Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
This statement is incorrect. The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. IGST is a component of the GST that deals with the taxation of inter-state supplies of goods and services. It is governed by the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, which was enacted by the Parliament. However, the State Legislatures also have the power to make laws on IGST, as per Article 246A.
Therefore, both statements are correct and the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
Summary:
- Article 246A grants concurrent powers to the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
- Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. Both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws on IGST.
The given statements are related to the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislatures with respect to the goods and services tax (GST) in India. Let's analyze each statement individually.
Statement 1: Article 246A states that the Parliament and the Legislature of every State have the power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
This statement is correct. Article 246A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. It confers concurrent powers on both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on the subject of GST. This means that both the central and state governments have the authority to legislate on GST matters.
Statement 2: Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
This statement is incorrect. The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. IGST is a component of the GST that deals with the taxation of inter-state supplies of goods and services. It is governed by the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, which was enacted by the Parliament. However, the State Legislatures also have the power to make laws on IGST, as per Article 246A.
Therefore, both statements are correct and the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
Summary:
- Article 246A grants concurrent powers to the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
- Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. Both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws on IGST.
Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.- Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
- Bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide.
- All bomb cyclones are hurricanes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.
- Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
- Bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide.
- All bomb cyclones are hurricanes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
2, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- A bomb cyclone is simply a storm that intensifies very rapidly. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
- All bomb cyclones are not hurricanes. But sometimes, they can take on characteristics that make them look an awful lot like hurricanes, with very strong winds, heavy precipitation and well-defined eye-like features in the middle.
- Hurricanes tend to form in tropical areas and are powered by warm seas. For this reason, they’re most common in summer or early fall, when seawater is warmest.
- In contrast, bomb cyclones don’t need balmy ocean waters in order to form. While they sometimes arise over the ocean, they can also appear over land — as was the case with the cyclone that hit the northern Plains in March 2019.
- Unlike hurricanes, bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide. They rarely strike in summer, when the weather is generally warm across the Northern Hemisphere. Rather, they form between late fall and early spring, when warm tropical air bumps up against frigid Arctic air.
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).- Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
- It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).
- Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
- It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
 | Akshara Mukherjee answered |
Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2014 to improve the quality of life of people living in tribal areas. Let's discuss the given statements one by one:
Statement 1: Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
This statement is correct. PMAAGY is the modified version of the Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS), which was launched in 1974-75. The objective of SCA to TSS was to provide financial assistance to Scheduled Tribe families living below the poverty line to improve their living standards. PMAAGY aims to improve the overall development of villages with a substantial tribal population, including education, health, and basic infrastructure.
Statement 2: It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
This statement is also correct. PMAAGY aims to provide basic infrastructure such as roads, drinking water facilities, sanitation, electrification, etc., in villages with a substantial tribal population. The scheme intends to converge the funds available under different schemes in the Central Scheduled Tribe Component to ensure that the benefits of the scheme reach the targeted beneficiaries.
Statement 3: It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
This statement is also correct. The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY). The Ministry works in coordination with other ministries and departments to ensure the effective implementation of the scheme.
Therefore, all the given statements are correct, and the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2, 3.
Statement 1: Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
This statement is correct. PMAAGY is the modified version of the Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS), which was launched in 1974-75. The objective of SCA to TSS was to provide financial assistance to Scheduled Tribe families living below the poverty line to improve their living standards. PMAAGY aims to improve the overall development of villages with a substantial tribal population, including education, health, and basic infrastructure.
Statement 2: It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
This statement is also correct. PMAAGY aims to provide basic infrastructure such as roads, drinking water facilities, sanitation, electrification, etc., in villages with a substantial tribal population. The scheme intends to converge the funds available under different schemes in the Central Scheduled Tribe Component to ensure that the benefits of the scheme reach the targeted beneficiaries.
Statement 3: It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
This statement is also correct. The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY). The Ministry works in coordination with other ministries and departments to ensure the effective implementation of the scheme.
Therefore, all the given statements are correct, and the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2, 3.
Which of the following taxes are considered as Direct taxes?- Personal Income Tax
- Minimum Alternate Tax
- Corporation Tax
- Securities Transaction Tax
- Value-added tax
Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 3, 4, 5
- b)1, 2, 3, 4
- c)1, 2, 3, 5
- d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following taxes are considered as Direct taxes?
- Personal Income Tax
- Minimum Alternate Tax
- Corporation Tax
- Securities Transaction Tax
- Value-added tax
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 3, 4, 5
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
1, 2, 3, 5
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
| | Ashish Datta answered |
Direct taxes refer to the taxes that are levied directly on individuals or organizations and cannot be transferred to someone else. In the given options, the following taxes are considered as direct taxes:
1. Personal Income Tax: Personal income tax is levied directly on the income earned by individuals. It is based on their income slab and rates specified by the government.
2. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Minimum Alternate Tax is a direct tax levied on companies that are enjoying tax benefits or exemptions. It is calculated on their book profits if they are lower than the taxable income.
3. Corporation Tax: Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the income of companies and other corporate entities. It is levied on the profits earned by these entities during a financial year.
4. Securities Transaction Tax (STT): Securities Transaction Tax is a direct tax levied on the purchase or sale of securities such as stocks, mutual funds, bonds, and derivatives. It aims to collect tax from the transaction itself rather than from the income generated from the transaction.
Value-added tax (VAT) is not considered a direct tax. It is an indirect tax levied on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of goods and services. VAT is ultimately borne by the end consumer and can be passed on from one party to another.
Based on the above explanations, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 2, 3, 4.
1. Personal Income Tax: Personal income tax is levied directly on the income earned by individuals. It is based on their income slab and rates specified by the government.
2. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Minimum Alternate Tax is a direct tax levied on companies that are enjoying tax benefits or exemptions. It is calculated on their book profits if they are lower than the taxable income.
3. Corporation Tax: Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the income of companies and other corporate entities. It is levied on the profits earned by these entities during a financial year.
4. Securities Transaction Tax (STT): Securities Transaction Tax is a direct tax levied on the purchase or sale of securities such as stocks, mutual funds, bonds, and derivatives. It aims to collect tax from the transaction itself rather than from the income generated from the transaction.
Value-added tax (VAT) is not considered a direct tax. It is an indirect tax levied on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of goods and services. VAT is ultimately borne by the end consumer and can be passed on from one party to another.
Based on the above explanations, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 2, 3, 4.
Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was launched by which state? - a)Uttar Pradesh
- b)Jharkhand
- c)Bihar
- d)West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was launched by which state?
a)
Uttar Pradesh
b)
Jharkhand
c)
Bihar
d)
West Bengal
| | Sakshi Nambiar answered |
Har Ghar Gangajal Project in Bihar
Answer:
Overview:
The Har Ghar Gangajal project was launched by the state of Bihar.
Objective:
The main aim of this project is to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
Implementation:
- Under this project, households in Bihar will have access to clean and safe drinking water sourced from the Ganga river.
- The project involves setting up pipelines and water treatment facilities to ensure the supply of potable water to every household.
Benefits:
- The Har Ghar Gangajal project will help in addressing the water scarcity issues in the state and improve the overall health and well-being of the residents.
- It will also reduce the dependency on groundwater sources, which are often contaminated and unsafe for consumption.
Significance:
- The project is a significant step towards achieving the goal of providing access to clean drinking water to all households in Bihar.
- It showcases the commitment of the state government towards improving the quality of life of its citizens through sustainable water management practices.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Bihar is a commendable initiative that will have a positive impact on the lives of the people by ensuring access to safe and reliable drinking water.
Answer:
Overview:
The Har Ghar Gangajal project was launched by the state of Bihar.
Objective:
The main aim of this project is to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
Implementation:
- Under this project, households in Bihar will have access to clean and safe drinking water sourced from the Ganga river.
- The project involves setting up pipelines and water treatment facilities to ensure the supply of potable water to every household.
Benefits:
- The Har Ghar Gangajal project will help in addressing the water scarcity issues in the state and improve the overall health and well-being of the residents.
- It will also reduce the dependency on groundwater sources, which are often contaminated and unsafe for consumption.
Significance:
- The project is a significant step towards achieving the goal of providing access to clean drinking water to all households in Bihar.
- It showcases the commitment of the state government towards improving the quality of life of its citizens through sustainable water management practices.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Bihar is a commendable initiative that will have a positive impact on the lives of the people by ensuring access to safe and reliable drinking water.
Which of the following are India’s aircraft carriers?- INS Vikrant
- INS Viraat
- INS Vagir
- INS Vikramaditya
Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2, 3
- b)1, 2, 4
- c)1, 3, 4
- d)1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are India’s aircraft carriers?
- INS Vikrant
- INS Viraat
- INS Vagir
- INS Vikramaditya
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
1, 2, 4
c)
1, 3, 4
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
| | Shivani Desai answered |
However, India is a country located in South Asia.
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen.- Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table.
- Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
- Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen.
- Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table.
- Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
- Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Tejas Verma answered |
Statement 1: Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table.
This statement is correct. Hydrogen is the lightest element and has an atomic number of 1, making it the first element on the periodic table. It consists of a single proton and a single electron.
Statement 2: Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
This statement is incorrect. While hydrogen is highly combustible and can be used as a fuel in internal combustion engines, it is also widely used in spacecraft propulsion. In fact, hydrogen is often used as a propellant in rocket engines due to its high energy content and the fact that it can be easily stored in liquid form.
Statement 3: Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
This statement is correct. Molecular hydrogen (H2) is a gas that is not readily available in convenient natural reservoirs on Earth. It is a highly reactive and lightweight gas, which means that it tends to escape from the Earth's atmosphere over time. However, hydrogen can be produced through various methods such as electrolysis of water or by reforming hydrocarbons.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 1 and 3 only.
This statement is correct. Hydrogen is the lightest element and has an atomic number of 1, making it the first element on the periodic table. It consists of a single proton and a single electron.
Statement 2: Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
This statement is incorrect. While hydrogen is highly combustible and can be used as a fuel in internal combustion engines, it is also widely used in spacecraft propulsion. In fact, hydrogen is often used as a propellant in rocket engines due to its high energy content and the fact that it can be easily stored in liquid form.
Statement 3: Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
This statement is correct. Molecular hydrogen (H2) is a gas that is not readily available in convenient natural reservoirs on Earth. It is a highly reactive and lightweight gas, which means that it tends to escape from the Earth's atmosphere over time. However, hydrogen can be produced through various methods such as electrolysis of water or by reforming hydrocarbons.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 1 and 3 only.
Consider the following statements regarding Green Turtles.- Green turtles are named because of the greenish color of their shells.
- They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
- Unlike other sea turtles, they do not migrate long distances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)2 only
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Green Turtles.
- Green turtles are named because of the greenish color of their shells.
- They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
- Unlike other sea turtles, they do not migrate long distances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
2 only
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles are in fact named for the greenish color of their cartilage and fat, not their shells. In the Eastern Pacific, a group of green turtles that have darker shells are called black turtles by the local community. Green turtles are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. Like other sea turtles, they migrate long distances between feeding grounds and the beaches from where they hatched.
Consider the following statements.- The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
- While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
- While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
The power under Article 161 is exercisable in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 163), the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are on average several thousand times more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
- Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding with mandatory HFC reduction targets for countries.
- HFCs have very high potential to deplete the stratospheric ozone layer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2, 3
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are on average several thousand times more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
- Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding with mandatory HFC reduction targets for countries.
- HFCs have very high potential to deplete the stratospheric ozone layer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2, 3
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- HFCs are on average several thousand times more potent than carbon dioxide.
- Kigali Amendment is a legally binding agreement designed to create rights and obligations in international law.
- While HFCs do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, they have high global warming potential, which has an adverse impact on climate.
Consider the following statements.- A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
- When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
- Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2 only
- b)2, 3
- c)1, 2
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
- When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
- Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2 only
b)
2, 3
c)
1, 2
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Neha Verma answered |
- A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
- The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.” The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.
Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.- Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
- The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
- After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1 only
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.
- Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
- The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
- After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1 only
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Neha Verma answered |
- Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
- The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss.
- After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from the profit.
- However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.
- Private banks wrote off loans worth Rs 2,74,772 crore in the last five years in their effort to bring down NPAs and whitewash their balance sheets.
- Public sector banks reported the lion’s share of write-offs at Rs 734,738 crore accounting for 72.78 per cent of the exercise.
Consider the following statements.- According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject.
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentions about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes.
- More than 10 states in India has total prohibition of sale of alcohol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)2 only
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject.
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentions about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes.
- More than 10 states in India has total prohibition of sale of alcohol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
2 only
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 3
 | Shounak Desai answered |
1. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India:
- According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject. This means that both the central government and state governments have the power to make laws regarding alcohol.
- The central government can enact laws related to the production, supply, and distribution of alcohol, while the state governments can regulate the sale and consumption of alcohol within their respective states.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mention about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes. These principles are guidelines for the state to promote the welfare of the people.
- While the DPSP is not enforceable by the courts, it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
3. Prohibition of sale of alcohol in states:
- More than 10 states in India have total prohibition of the sale of alcohol. These states have enacted laws to ban the sale and consumption of alcohol within their borders.
- States like Gujarat, Bihar, and Nagaland have implemented total prohibition, while other states have partial prohibition or restrictions on the sale of alcohol.
Therefore, the correct statement among the given options is "2 only".
- According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject. This means that both the central government and state governments have the power to make laws regarding alcohol.
- The central government can enact laws related to the production, supply, and distribution of alcohol, while the state governments can regulate the sale and consumption of alcohol within their respective states.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mention about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes. These principles are guidelines for the state to promote the welfare of the people.
- While the DPSP is not enforceable by the courts, it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
3. Prohibition of sale of alcohol in states:
- More than 10 states in India have total prohibition of the sale of alcohol. These states have enacted laws to ban the sale and consumption of alcohol within their borders.
- States like Gujarat, Bihar, and Nagaland have implemented total prohibition, while other states have partial prohibition or restrictions on the sale of alcohol.
Therefore, the correct statement among the given options is "2 only".
Bhasha Samman awards are given by the Sahitya Akademi. Which of the following statements best describes the Bhasha Samman awards? - a)It recognises young writers under the age of 35
- b)It is conferred on persons in recognition of their substantial contribution in the field of Persian, Arabic, Pali and Prakrit languages
- c)It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of classical and medieval literature
- d)It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of tribal languages
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Bhasha Samman awards are given by the Sahitya Akademi. Which of the following statements best describes the Bhasha Samman awards?
a)
It recognises young writers under the age of 35
b)
It is conferred on persons in recognition of their substantial contribution in the field of Persian, Arabic, Pali and Prakrit languages
c)
It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of classical and medieval literature
d)
It recognises scholars who have done valuable work in the field of tribal languages
| | Amrutha Kulkarni answered |
Understanding Bhasha Samman Awards
The Bhasha Samman is an esteemed award presented by the Sahitya Akademi, primarily aimed at acknowledging significant contributions to the fields of classical and medieval literature.
Key Features of Bhasha Samman Awards:
- Focus on Classical and Medieval Literature:
The award is specifically designed to honor individuals who have made substantial contributions to the understanding, preservation, and promotion of classical and medieval literature in various languages.
- Recognition of Scholars:
It is not aimed at young writers or contemporary authors but rather at scholars who have demonstrated exceptional insight and effort in exploring literature from earlier eras.
- Broader Linguistic Spectrum:
While it does encompass a wide range of languages, the emphasis is on classical and medieval texts, making it distinct from awards that focus on modern or spoken languages.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
- Option A (Young Writers):
This option is misleading as the Bhasha Samman does not have an age criterion focused on young writers under 35.
- Option B (Persian, Arabic, Pali, Prakrit):
While these languages can fall within the scope of classical literature, the award is not restricted to them and focuses more broadly on classical and medieval contributions.
- Option D (Tribal Languages):
Although tribal languages are important, the Bhasha Samman is not specifically aimed at recognizing contributions in this area.
Conclusion:
The Bhasha Samman is a prestigious recognition for scholars dedicated to classical and medieval literature, making option C the most accurate description of the award's purpose and scope.
The Bhasha Samman is an esteemed award presented by the Sahitya Akademi, primarily aimed at acknowledging significant contributions to the fields of classical and medieval literature.
Key Features of Bhasha Samman Awards:
- Focus on Classical and Medieval Literature:
The award is specifically designed to honor individuals who have made substantial contributions to the understanding, preservation, and promotion of classical and medieval literature in various languages.
- Recognition of Scholars:
It is not aimed at young writers or contemporary authors but rather at scholars who have demonstrated exceptional insight and effort in exploring literature from earlier eras.
- Broader Linguistic Spectrum:
While it does encompass a wide range of languages, the emphasis is on classical and medieval texts, making it distinct from awards that focus on modern or spoken languages.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
- Option A (Young Writers):
This option is misleading as the Bhasha Samman does not have an age criterion focused on young writers under 35.
- Option B (Persian, Arabic, Pali, Prakrit):
While these languages can fall within the scope of classical literature, the award is not restricted to them and focuses more broadly on classical and medieval contributions.
- Option D (Tribal Languages):
Although tribal languages are important, the Bhasha Samman is not specifically aimed at recognizing contributions in this area.
Conclusion:
The Bhasha Samman is a prestigious recognition for scholars dedicated to classical and medieval literature, making option C the most accurate description of the award's purpose and scope.
Consider the following statements.- Indian Constitution can be described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’.
- Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede from the federation.
- The term ‘Federation’ has been used in Article 1 of the Constitution, where it describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 3
- b)1, 2
- c)2, 3
- d)2 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Indian Constitution can be described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’.
- Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede from the federation.
- The term ‘Federation’ has been used in Article 1 of the Constitution, where it describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 3
b)
1, 2
c)
2, 3
d)
2 only
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K C Wheare.
Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K C Wheare.
Consider the following statements.- G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
- G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
- The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2, 3
- b)2, 3, 4
- c)1, 3, 4
- d)1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
- G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
- The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
2, 3, 4
c)
1, 3, 4
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
| | Debanshi Sengupta answered |
Overview of G20
The G20, or Group of Twenty, is an important international forum that plays a significant role in global economic governance.
Correctness of Statements
- Statement 1: "G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007."
- This statement is correct. The G20 was established in 1999 and gained prominence after the 2008 financial crisis, focusing on global economic stability.
- Statement 2: "G20 is designated as the 'premier forum for international economic cooperation'."
- This statement is also correct. The G20 is recognized for its role in promoting international economic cooperation among major economies.
- Statement 3: "The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency."
- This statement is correct as well. Each year, the presidency rotates among its member countries, hosting the summit.
- Statement 4: "The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, and anti-corruption."
- This statement is also correct. The G20 has indeed broadened its focus beyond macroeconomic issues to include various global challenges.
Conclusion
Since all statements are accurate, the correct answer should actually be option 'D' (1, 2, 3, 4), not 'B'. Each statement reflects the G20's foundational purpose and its evolution to address a wider range of global issues.
The G20, or Group of Twenty, is an important international forum that plays a significant role in global economic governance.
Correctness of Statements
- Statement 1: "G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007."
- This statement is correct. The G20 was established in 1999 and gained prominence after the 2008 financial crisis, focusing on global economic stability.
- Statement 2: "G20 is designated as the 'premier forum for international economic cooperation'."
- This statement is also correct. The G20 is recognized for its role in promoting international economic cooperation among major economies.
- Statement 3: "The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency."
- This statement is correct as well. Each year, the presidency rotates among its member countries, hosting the summit.
- Statement 4: "The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, and anti-corruption."
- This statement is also correct. The G20 has indeed broadened its focus beyond macroeconomic issues to include various global challenges.
Conclusion
Since all statements are accurate, the correct answer should actually be option 'D' (1, 2, 3, 4), not 'B'. Each statement reflects the G20's foundational purpose and its evolution to address a wider range of global issues.
Consider the following statements regarding Golden rice.- Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta carotene content.
- It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
- India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 3
- c)1, 2
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Golden rice.
- Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta carotene content.
- It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
- India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 3
c)
1, 2
d)
2, 3
| | Anand Chakraborty answered |
Statement 1: Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta carotene content.
Statement 2: It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
Statement 3: India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.
Explanation:
Statement 1: Golden rice is indeed a variety of rice that has been genetically modified to include genes that increase the beta carotene content. Beta carotene is a precursor of Vitamin A, and this modification aims to address Vitamin A deficiency in populations that heavily rely on rice as a staple food. The introduction of golden rice is a potential solution to combat this deficiency.
Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Golden rice primarily targets Vitamin A deficiency, not Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is not related to the beta carotene content in golden rice.
Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. India has not yet approved commercial production of genetically modified golden rice. While India has been involved in research and trials of genetically modified crops, including golden rice, it has not granted approval for commercial production as of now.
In conclusion, only Statement 1 is correct. Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to increase the beta carotene content, primarily aiming to address Vitamin A deficiency.
Statement 2: It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
Statement 3: India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.
Explanation:
Statement 1: Golden rice is indeed a variety of rice that has been genetically modified to include genes that increase the beta carotene content. Beta carotene is a precursor of Vitamin A, and this modification aims to address Vitamin A deficiency in populations that heavily rely on rice as a staple food. The introduction of golden rice is a potential solution to combat this deficiency.
Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Golden rice primarily targets Vitamin A deficiency, not Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is not related to the beta carotene content in golden rice.
Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. India has not yet approved commercial production of genetically modified golden rice. While India has been involved in research and trials of genetically modified crops, including golden rice, it has not granted approval for commercial production as of now.
In conclusion, only Statement 1 is correct. Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to increase the beta carotene content, primarily aiming to address Vitamin A deficiency.
The Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary that was recently seen in news is located in - a)Andhra Pradesh
- b)Himachal Pradesh
- c)Rajasthan
- d)Sikkim
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary that was recently seen in news is located in
a)
Andhra Pradesh
b)
Himachal Pradesh
c)
Rajasthan
d)
Sikkim
 | Rajeev Datta answered |
The correct answer is option 'C) Rajasthan'.
The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan. It is a wildlife sanctuary that is specifically dedicated to the conservation and protection of the blackbuck, a critically endangered species.
Here are some key details about the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary:
1. Location: The sanctuary is situated in the Churu district of Rajasthan, which is in the northwestern part of India. It is approximately 210 kilometers from Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan.
2. Area and Landscape: The sanctuary covers an area of about 7.19 square kilometers. It is characterized by a semi-arid landscape with flat grasslands, sand dunes, and scattered shrubs.
3. Blackbuck Population: The sanctuary is known for its significant population of blackbucks, which are medium-sized antelopes. The blackbuck is considered as one of the fastest running animals and known for its beautiful spiraling horns. Tal Chhapar has a high density of blackbucks, making it an important habitat for their conservation.
4. Other Fauna: Apart from blackbucks, the sanctuary is also home to various other wildlife species. These include Indian gazelles, desert foxes, desert cats, jackals, and a variety of bird species.
5. Avian Diversity: Tal Chhapar is a haven for birdwatchers as it attracts a wide range of avian species. It is particularly known for its resident and migratory bird populations. Some of the commonly sighted birds include harriers, eagles, kestrels, sandgrouse, larks, and coursers.
6. Vegetation: The sanctuary has a unique ecosystem with vegetation dominated by grasses, shrubs, and thorny trees. The landscape is adapted to the arid climatic conditions of the region.
7. Conservation Efforts: The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is managed by the Rajasthan Forest Department. Various conservation measures are undertaken to protect the blackbucks and their habitat. These include anti-poaching patrols, habitat management, and raising awareness among local communities.
Overall, the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary in Rajasthan plays a crucial role in the conservation of blackbucks and the preservation of the unique ecosystem of the region.
The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan. It is a wildlife sanctuary that is specifically dedicated to the conservation and protection of the blackbuck, a critically endangered species.
Here are some key details about the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary:
1. Location: The sanctuary is situated in the Churu district of Rajasthan, which is in the northwestern part of India. It is approximately 210 kilometers from Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan.
2. Area and Landscape: The sanctuary covers an area of about 7.19 square kilometers. It is characterized by a semi-arid landscape with flat grasslands, sand dunes, and scattered shrubs.
3. Blackbuck Population: The sanctuary is known for its significant population of blackbucks, which are medium-sized antelopes. The blackbuck is considered as one of the fastest running animals and known for its beautiful spiraling horns. Tal Chhapar has a high density of blackbucks, making it an important habitat for their conservation.
4. Other Fauna: Apart from blackbucks, the sanctuary is also home to various other wildlife species. These include Indian gazelles, desert foxes, desert cats, jackals, and a variety of bird species.
5. Avian Diversity: Tal Chhapar is a haven for birdwatchers as it attracts a wide range of avian species. It is particularly known for its resident and migratory bird populations. Some of the commonly sighted birds include harriers, eagles, kestrels, sandgrouse, larks, and coursers.
6. Vegetation: The sanctuary has a unique ecosystem with vegetation dominated by grasses, shrubs, and thorny trees. The landscape is adapted to the arid climatic conditions of the region.
7. Conservation Efforts: The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is managed by the Rajasthan Forest Department. Various conservation measures are undertaken to protect the blackbucks and their habitat. These include anti-poaching patrols, habitat management, and raising awareness among local communities.
Overall, the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary in Rajasthan plays a crucial role in the conservation of blackbucks and the preservation of the unique ecosystem of the region.
The India Development Report, was recently released by - a)NITI Ayog
- b)Reserve Bank of India
- c)World Bank
- d)International Monetary Fund
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The India Development Report, was recently released by
a)
NITI Ayog
b)
Reserve Bank of India
c)
World Bank
d)
International Monetary Fund
 | Abhijeet Shah answered |
India Development Report Overview:
The India Development Report is an annual publication that provides an in-depth analysis of India's economic and social development. It is released by the World Bank, a global financial institution that provides financial and technical assistance to developing countries.
Significance of the Report:
- The report offers valuable insights into key development challenges facing India and suggests policy recommendations to address them.
- It serves as a crucial resource for policymakers, researchers, and development practitioners to understand the country's progress and areas needing improvement.
Content of the Report:
- The India Development Report covers a wide range of topics such as economic growth, poverty reduction, infrastructure development, social protection, and environmental sustainability.
- It presents data-driven analysis, case studies, and policy discussions to offer a comprehensive view of India's development landscape.
Key Findings in the Report:
- The report may highlight specific challenges or opportunities in key sectors like education, healthcare, agriculture, and urban development.
- It may also shed light on emerging trends, policy implications, and potential areas for future research and intervention.
Impact of the Report:
- The India Development Report plays a critical role in shaping public discourse, guiding decision-making, and influencing development policies at the national and state levels.
- Its recommendations and insights can help stakeholders prioritize investments, allocate resources efficiently, and design effective interventions to promote inclusive and sustainable development in India.
Consider the following statements.- The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
- Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
- Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
- Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
- Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Anshika Basak answered |
The correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.
Explanation:
The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world. On the other hand, the Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America, but rather in Russia. Mount Elbrus, on the other hand, is indeed the highest peak in Russia.
Let's break down each statement:
1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
- This statement is true. The Vasyugan Swamp is located in western Siberia, Russia, and it is known for being the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere. It covers an area of about 53,000 square kilometers and is also the largest peatland in the world.
2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
- This statement is false. The Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America but rather in Russia. It is situated in the western Siberian Plain, which is part of the Asian continent.
3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
- This statement is true. Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains, which stretch between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. It is the highest peak in Russia, standing at an elevation of 5,642 meters (18,510 feet) above sea level.
In conclusion, based on the given statements, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.
Explanation:
The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world. On the other hand, the Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America, but rather in Russia. Mount Elbrus, on the other hand, is indeed the highest peak in Russia.
Let's break down each statement:
1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
- This statement is true. The Vasyugan Swamp is located in western Siberia, Russia, and it is known for being the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere. It covers an area of about 53,000 square kilometers and is also the largest peatland in the world.
2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
- This statement is false. The Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America but rather in Russia. It is situated in the western Siberian Plain, which is part of the Asian continent.
3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
- This statement is true. Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains, which stretch between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. It is the highest peak in Russia, standing at an elevation of 5,642 meters (18,510 feet) above sea level.
In conclusion, based on the given statements, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.
Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).- They are infections that are common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
- They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic worms.
- HIV-AIDS, malaria and Tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).
- They are infections that are common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
- They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic worms.
- HIV-AIDS, malaria and Tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Shivani Desai answered |
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are infections that primarily affect marginalized communities in developing regions of Africa and Asia. These diseases are caused by a variety of pathogens including bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms. Some of the prominent NTDs include HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis.
Let's break down the statements and analyze them individually:
1. They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
This statement is correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases disproportionately affect populations living in poverty and lacking access to basic healthcare services. These communities often reside in remote areas with limited resources and infrastructure, making them more vulnerable to these diseases.
2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.
This statement is also correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases encompass a wide range of infectious diseases caused by various pathogens. Examples include dengue fever, leprosy, Chagas disease, schistosomiasis, lymphatic filariasis, and others. Each disease is caused by a specific pathogen or group of pathogens.
3. HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
This statement is incorrect. While HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are significant global health concerns, they are not classified as Neglected Tropical Diseases. NTDs are a distinct group of diseases that primarily affect tropical and subtropical regions, whereas HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are prevalent worldwide.
In conclusion, the correct statements are:
- They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
- They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 2.
Let's break down the statements and analyze them individually:
1. They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
This statement is correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases disproportionately affect populations living in poverty and lacking access to basic healthcare services. These communities often reside in remote areas with limited resources and infrastructure, making them more vulnerable to these diseases.
2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.
This statement is also correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases encompass a wide range of infectious diseases caused by various pathogens. Examples include dengue fever, leprosy, Chagas disease, schistosomiasis, lymphatic filariasis, and others. Each disease is caused by a specific pathogen or group of pathogens.
3. HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
This statement is incorrect. While HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are significant global health concerns, they are not classified as Neglected Tropical Diseases. NTDs are a distinct group of diseases that primarily affect tropical and subtropical regions, whereas HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are prevalent worldwide.
In conclusion, the correct statements are:
- They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
- They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 2.
Consider the following statements.- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties.
- The Constitution of India provides Election Commission of India (ECI) the power to deregister political parties.
- Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties.
- The Constitution of India provides Election Commission of India (ECI) the power to deregister political parties.
- Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2, 3
| | Jaya Nair answered |
- The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act-1951”.
- The EC generally does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an electoral reform to the government many times.
- On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Consider the following statements.- CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
- CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
- The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
- India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2, 3
- b)2, 3, 4
- c)1, 3, 4
- d)2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
- CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
- The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
- India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
2, 3, 4
c)
1, 3, 4
d)
2, 3
| | Jaya Nair answered |
- CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
- The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix I. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix II in 1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
- The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.
Which of the following technologies can be used at the airports for the detection of explosives in the electronic devices?- Dual x-ray
- Computer tomography
- Neutron beam technology
Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following technologies can be used at the airports for the detection of explosives in the electronic devices?
- Dual x-ray
- Computer tomography
- Neutron beam technology
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Deepak Kapoor answered |
- Technologies such as dual x-ray, computer tomography and neutron beam technology will eliminate the need for passengers to remove laptops and other electronic devices.
- While the traditional x-ray machines currently used at airports produce a 2-D image, newer technologies such as computer tomography produce a 3-D image with a higher resolution, and have better automated detection of explosives.
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