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All questions of August 2025 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
1. Flash floods in the Himalayas are predominantly caused by cloudbursts, which are characterized by at least 100 mm of rain within one hour over a 10x10 km area.
2. The young and geologically weak nature of the Himalayas makes them more susceptible to flash floods compared to older mountain ranges.
3. Heavy traffic and construction in ecologically sensitive areas do not significantly impact the risk of flash floods during extreme rainfall events.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Mehra answered
Analysis of Statements
To assess the correctness of the statements regarding flash floods in the Himalayas, let's evaluate each one:
Statement 1: Cloudbursts as a Cause
- Flash floods in the Himalayas are indeed predominantly caused by cloudbursts.
- A cloudburst is defined as a sudden and intense rainfall event that results in at least 100 mm of rain within one hour over a localized area, typically around 10x10 km.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
Statement 2: Geological Susceptibility
- The young and geologically weak nature of the Himalayas contributes to their susceptibility to flash floods.
- The region's steep terrain, unstable geology, and rapid runoff increase the likelihood of flash floods occurring during heavy rainfall events.
- Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Statement 3: Impact of Human Activity
- Heavy traffic and construction in ecologically sensitive areas significantly impact the risk of flash floods.
- These activities can lead to soil erosion, deforestation, and alteration of natural drainage patterns, all of which exacerbate the risk of flooding during extreme rainfall events.
- Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following pairs related to flash floods and their causes:
1. Cloudburst - At least 100 mm of rain in one hour over a 10x10 km area
2. Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) - Caused by melting snow and ice at high altitudes
3. Landslide - Triggered by tectonic activity alone
4. Flash Floods - Can occur even with moderate rainfall in fragile terrains
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Cloudburst - At least 100 mm of rain in one hour over a 10x10 km area: This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) defines a cloudburst as a sudden, intense rainfall event with at least 100 mm of rain falling within an hour over a small area, typically 10x10 km.
2. Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) - Caused by melting snow and ice at high altitudes: This pair is incorrectly matched. While GLOFs are associated with glacial lakes, they are not directly caused by melting snow and ice. Instead, they typically occur when the moraine (natural dam) containing a glacial lake fails, often due to additional water from heavy rains, rapid snowmelt, or an ice avalanche.
3. Landslide - Triggered by tectonic activity alone: This pair is incorrectly matched. While tectonic activity can trigger landslides, they are more commonly initiated by heavy rains, earthquakes, volcanic activity, or human activities like deforestation and construction on slopes.
4. Flash Floods - Can occur even with moderate rainfall in fragile terrains: This pair is correctly matched. In ecologically sensitive and geologically fragile terrains like the Himalayas, even moderate rainfall can lead to flash floods due to saturated soils, steep slopes, and eroding land surfaces.
Only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making Option B: Only two pairs the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Section 79(1) of the IT Act, 2000: Provides "safe harbour" protection to intermediaries like Facebook, X, and Instagram.
2. Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000: Allows the Government to block online content for reasons such as protecting sovereignty, security, and public order.
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015): Struck down Section 66A of the IT Act and recognised privacy as a fundamental right.
4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): Recognised privacy as a fundamental right and influenced data protection measures.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnav Malik answered
Analysis of the Pairs
The provided pairs relate to significant legal provisions and landmark judgments concerning the IT Act and privacy rights in India. Let's evaluate each pair:
1. Section 79(1) of the IT Act, 2000
- This section indeed provides "safe harbour" protection to intermediaries like Facebook, X, and Instagram, shielding them from liability for third-party content.
- Correctly matched.
2. Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000
- This provision allows the Government to block online content to protect sovereignty, security, and public order.
- Correctly matched.
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
- This landmark case struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, which criminalized offensive messages, and also recognized privacy as a fundamental right.
- Correctly matched.
4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
- This case recognized privacy as a fundamental right, significantly influencing data protection measures in India, particularly regarding personal data.
- Correctly matched.
Conclusion
- All four pairs are correctly matched based on the legal provisions and landmark judgments discussed.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs. However, upon reevaluation, it seems all pairs are indeed accurately described, indicating a possible miscommunication in the provided answer options.

What was the primary objective of the Akshaya project initiated in Kerala in 2002?
  • a)
    To enhance digital literacy among senior citizens only
  • b)
    To make at least one member of every family digitally literate
  • c)
    To provide online access services to urban areas
  • d)
    To develop a platform for IT access in rural areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The primary objective of the Akshaya project, launched in Kerala in 2002, was to make at least one member of every family digitally literate. This initiative aimed to promote IT access and improve citizen service delivery throughout the state. By achieving this goal, the project sought to enhance overall digital literacy and inclusivity within Kerala, aligning with efforts to bridge the digital divide in the region.

Consider the following pairs regarding Snow Leopards and the African Union:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Snow Leopard - Found in 12 countries including India, China, and Russia.
This pair is correctly matched. Snow leopards are indeed found in 12 countries, including India, China, and Russia.
2. Snow Leopard - Conservation status is Least Concern by the IUCN.
This pair is incorrectly matched. The conservation status of the snow leopard is "Vulnerable" according to the IUCN.
3. African Union - Established in 2002, replacing the Organisation of African Unity.
This pair is correctly matched. The African Union was established in 2002, replacing the Organisation of African Unity.
4. African Union - Headquarters located in Nairobi, Kenya.
This pair is incorrectly matched. The headquarters of the African Union is located in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, not Nairobi, Kenya.
Two pairs (1 and 3) are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Refunds: The new Income Tax Bill, 2025, introduces restrictions on claiming refunds on belated returns.
2. Tax Collected at Source (TCS): The Bill exempts TCS for Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances for education funded by financial institutions.
3. Corporate Tax: The Bill eliminates all errors related to inter-corporate dividend deductions for companies opting for concessional tax rates.
4. House Property Income: The Bill removes the 30% standard deduction after accounting for municipal taxes.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Refunds: Incorrect. The new Income Tax Bill, 2025, actually restores the ability to claim refunds on belated returns, removing previous restrictions. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.
2. Tax Collected at Source (TCS): Correct. The Bill indeed clarifies that there is no TCS for Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances for education funded by financial institutions. This pair is correctly matched.
3. Corporate Tax: Correct. The Bill addresses and corrects errors related to inter-corporate dividend deductions for companies opting for concessional tax rates. This pair is correctly matched.
4. House Property Income: Incorrect. The Bill clarifies that a 30% standard deduction applies after accounting for municipal taxes, rather than removing it. Hence, this pair is not correctly matched.
Based on this, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs related to the Bhagirathi River and Tritium:
1. Bhagirathi River - Originates from the Alaknanda Glacier
2. Devprayag - Confluence of Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
3. Tritium - Naturally occurs in the upper atmosphere
4. Tehri Dam - Located on the Alaknanda River
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Bhagirathi River - Originates from the Alaknanda Glacier: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Bhagirathi River originates from the Gaumukh Glacier, not the Alaknanda Glacier. Alaknanda is a separate river that joins Bhagirathi at Devprayag to form the Ganges.
2. Devprayag - Confluence of Bhagirathi and Alaknanda: This pair is correctly matched. Devprayag is indeed the point where the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers meet to form the Ganges River.
3. Tritium - Naturally occurs in the upper atmosphere: This pair is correctly matched. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen that is naturally produced in the upper atmosphere through the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric gases.
4. Tehri Dam - Located on the Alaknanda River: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Tehri Dam is located on the Bhagirathi River, not the Alaknanda River.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 2 and 3.

Consider the following statements regarding CEREBO and Ionic Liquids:
1. CEREBO is a portable diagnostic device developed by ICMR that uses radiation-based technology to diagnose traumatic brain injuries quickly.
2. Ionic Liquids (ILs) are salts that remain liquid below 100°C and can potentially serve as alternative solvents for life on planets with limited water availability.
3. The development of CEREBO involved collaboration with institutions like AIIMS Bhopal and NIMHANS Bengaluru to ensure clinical validation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. CEREBO is indeed a portable diagnostic device developed by ICMR, but it does not use radiation-based technology. Instead, it utilizes near-infrared spectroscopy combined with machine learning algorithms, making it a radiation-free diagnostic tool, particularly safe for use on infants and pregnant women.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Ionic Liquids (ILs) are indeed salts that remain liquid at temperatures below 100°C. The research led by MIT suggests that ILs could serve as alternative solvents for life, especially on rocky super-Earths with volcanic activity where water might be scarce.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The development of CEREBO was a collaborative effort involving multiple institutions, including AIIMS Bhopal and NIMHANS Bengaluru. This collaboration ensured that the device underwent thorough clinical validation and received necessary regulatory approvals.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option C the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs regarding NITI Aayog's report on homestays and India's engagement with Namibia:
1. Homestay Economic Potential - Stimulates sustainable growth in rural areas
2. Cultural Value of Homestays - Promoted through heavy regulations
3. Modi's Namibia Visit - Focused on knowledge-based cooperation
4. Namibia and India - Concrete agreements on critical minerals
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Homestay Economic Potential - Stimulates sustainable growth in rural areas: This pair is correctly matched. The report emphasizes that homestays have significant economic potential by stimulating sustainable growth, creating local jobs, and encouraging entrepreneurship, particularly in rural and semi-urban regions.
2. Cultural Value of Homestays - Promoted through heavy regulations: This pair is incorrectly matched. The report suggests a light-touch regulatory framework to enhance the cultural authenticity of homestays, not heavy regulations. The aim is to simplify processes and integrate technology.
3. Modi's Namibia Visit - Focused on knowledge-based cooperation: This pair is correctly matched. One of the key takeaways from Modi's visit was the emphasis on knowledge-based cooperation, exemplified by Namibia adopting India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
4. Namibia and India - Concrete agreements on critical minerals: This pair is incorrectly matched. Although discussions on critical minerals, essential for India’s low-carbon supply chains, took place during the visit, they did not result in concrete agreements.
Therefore, two pairs are correctly matched: 1 and 3.

Consider the following statements regarding SC/ST scholarships in India:
1. The parental income limit for SC/ST post-matric scholarships is proposed to be raised to Rs. 4.5 lakh starting from FY 2026-27.
2. The scholarships are centrally sponsored schemes with a funding ratio of 50:50 between the Union and State governments for most states.
3. The number of SC pre-matric scholarship beneficiaries has increased by over 30% from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. It is proposed that the parental income limit for ST scholarships be raised to Rs. 4.5 lakh for both pre-matric and post-matric scholarships starting from FY 2026-27. This is part of the broader effort to increase accessibility to these scholarships.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scholarships are indeed centrally sponsored schemes, but the typical funding ratio is 60:40 between the Union and State governments, and 90:10 for Northeastern states, not 50:50.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The number of SC pre-matric scholarship beneficiaries has actually decreased by 30.63% from 2020-21 to 2024-25, indicating a decline rather than an increase.
Hence, only Statement 1 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Cess - Levied for a specific purpose and must be used for that purpose only.
2. Surcharge - Credited to the Consolidated Fund of India and shared with the states.
3. GST Rationalisation - Involves simplifying tax compliance and reducing costs for essential goods.
4. Red Fort - UNESCO World Heritage Site, symbolizing India's sovereignty.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Cess - Levied for a specific purpose and must be used for that purpose only. - This is correctly matched. Cess is indeed levied for a specific purpose, such as education or sanitation, and the funds collected are supposed to be used solely for that designated purpose.
2. Surcharge - Credited to the Consolidated Fund of India and shared with the states. - This is incorrectly matched. While the surcharge is indeed credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, it is not shared with the states. The surcharge remains under the control of the Union government.
3. GST Rationalisation - Involves simplifying tax compliance and reducing costs for essential goods. - This is correctly matched. GST rationalisation refers to efforts to make tax compliance easier and reduce the tax burden on essential goods, which aligns with the stated purpose.
4. Red Fort - UNESCO World Heritage Site, symbolizing India's sovereignty. - This is correctly matched. The Red Fort is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and serves as a powerful symbol of India's sovereignty, particularly highlighted during Independence Day celebrations.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Halman Apricot - Indigenous to Himachal Pradesh
2. Halman Apricot - Renowned for its rich flavor and use in traditional medicine
3. International Criminal Court (ICC) - Established in 2002 under the Rome Statute
4. International Criminal Court (ICC) - Headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Halman Apricot - Indigenous to Himachal Pradesh: Incorrect. The Halman apricot is indigenous to Ladakh, not Himachal Pradesh. It is a variety of apricot that thrives in various regions of Ladakh.
2. Halman Apricot - Renowned for its rich flavor and use in traditional medicine: Correct. Halman apricots are known for their rich flavor and are used in traditional medicine, as well as in Ladakhi cuisine and festive rituals.
3. International Criminal Court (ICC) - Established in 2002 under the Rome Statute: Correct. The ICC was indeed established in 2002 under the Rome Statute, making it the first permanent international court to prosecute individuals for serious crimes like genocide and war crimes.
4. International Criminal Court (ICC) - Headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland: Incorrect. The headquarters of the ICC is in The Hague, Netherlands, not Geneva, Switzerland.
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of the State Health Regulatory Excellence Index (SHRESTH) recently launched by the Union Health Secretary in India?
  • a)
    To regulate the prices of essential drugs across all states
  • b)
    To benchmark and enhance state drug regulatory systems
  • c)
    To establish new drug manufacturing units across the country
  • d)
    To promote alternative medicine practices in rural areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The State Health Regulatory Excellence Index (SHRESTH) is a pioneering national initiative aimed at benchmarking and improving state drug regulatory systems across various states in India. By setting standards and monitoring performance based on predefined metrics, this initiative seeks to ensure consistent drug safety and quality across the nation. It plays a crucial role in identifying areas for improvement in human resources, infrastructure, and digital processes to enhance drug safety for citizens throughout the country.

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)?
  • a)
    To provide housing loans to poor people at cheaper interest rates
  • b)
    To promote women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas
  • c)
    To promote financial inclusion in the country
  • d)
    To provide financial help to marginalized communities
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched with the objective of promoting financial inclusion in the country. It aims to provide banking services to the unbanked, insurance to the unsecured, and credit to the unfunded population. By offering Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) accounts with various benefits and features like zero balance, minimal paperwork, and e-KYC facility, the scheme seeks to bring more individuals into the formal banking system, thereby enhancing financial literacy and access to banking services in India.

Consider the following pairs related to Africa's pushback against China's mining dominance:
1. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) - Cancelled the sale of Chemaf Resources to China’s Norin Mining.
2. Namibia - Implemented export bans on unprocessed lithium to encourage local beneficiation.
3. Zimbabwe - Enforced environmental standards on Huayou Cobalt's lithium plant.
4. Zambia - Renegotiated contracts with Sinohydro and China Railway Group.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) - Cancelled the sale of Chemaf Resources to China’s Norin Mining. This is correctly matched. The DRC indeed cancelled the sale of Chemaf Resources to China’s Norin Mining following pushback from the state miner Gecamines.
2. Namibia - Implemented export bans on unprocessed lithium to encourage local beneficiation. This is correctly matched. Namibia has banned the export of unprocessed lithium in an effort to promote local value addition and beneficiation.
3. Zimbabwe - Enforced environmental standards on Huayou Cobalt's lithium plant. This is incorrectly matched. While Zimbabwe has implemented export bans on unprocessed lithium, the statement about enforcing environmental standards specifically on Huayou Cobalt's plant does not align with the given details.
4. Zambia - Renegotiated contracts with Sinohydro and China Railway Group. This is incorrectly matched. The DRC is the country that has been renegotiating deals with Sinohydro and China Railway Group, not Zambia.
Thus, only the first and second pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of the Income-tax Bill, 2025, as outlined in the provided content?
  • a)
    Introduction of complex tax structures
  • b)
    Modernization and simplification of the tax framework
  • c)
    Increase in the number of tax sections
  • d)
    Implementation of the Bill in 2030
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The primary objective of the Income-tax Bill, 2025, is to modernize and simplify the tax framework, making it more accessible and understandable for taxpayers. By introducing a modernized structure and streamlining the legal framework, the Bill aims to enhance tax administration efficiency and effectiveness, ultimately benefiting taxpayers and ensuring a more coherent tax system.

Consider the following statements regarding the Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) and the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR):
1. The Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) can carry up to 27 tonnes to the Moon, designed specifically for India's first human mission to the Moon by 2040.
2. The UNHCR was established in 1950 and operates under the governance of the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
3. The LMLV features a cryogenic propellant in its first stage, which is unique compared to its previous models.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


1. Statement 1 is correct. The Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) is indeed capable of carrying up to 27 tonnes to the Moon and is specifically designed to support India's first human mission to the Moon by 2040. This aligns with the information that the LMLV is developed for significant lunar exploration missions, including the human lunar mission.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) was established in 1950 and is governed by the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). This is a key aspect of the UNHCR's operational framework and governance structure, highlighting its international mandate to protect refugees.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The LMLV's first two stages utilize liquid propellants, while the third stage operates on cryogenic propellant, not the first stage. This distinction is crucial in understanding the design and operation of the LMLV. The cryogenic stage is typically used in the upper stages of rockets to achieve higher efficiency in space.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the right answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Shipki-La Pass:
1. Shipki-La Pass is one of the highest motorable passes in the world, situated at an altitude of 3,930 meters.
2. The Sutlej River, known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, enters India through Shipki-La Pass.
3. Shipki-La Pass has always been open for trade and tourism between India and China since its inception.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Shipki-La Pass is indeed one of the highest motorable passes in the world, located at an altitude of 3,930 meters. This is a significant geographical feature that enhances its importance both strategically and for trade purposes.
- Statement 2 is correct. The Sutlej River, which is known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, does enter India through this pass. This river is a critical waterway and contributes to the strategic importance of the pass as a trade route.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Shipki-La Pass has not always been open for trade and tourism. Historically, it has been an important trade corridor, but its status has changed over time due to various geopolitical reasons, including the closure after the 1962 Sino-Indian War. The recent news about discussions to resume trade through this pass indicates that it has not been continuously open.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Prairies:
1. Prairies are flat, temperate grasslands primarily found in South America.
2. Prairie vegetation is dominated by grasses that have deep root systems and are adapted to conserve moisture.
3. Prairies are maintained by natural factors such as grazing, fire, and drought.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Statement 1: Prairies are actually flat, temperate grasslands primarily found in North America, not South America. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. In South America, similar grasslands are known as Pampas.
2. Statement 2: This statement correctly identifies that prairie vegetation is dominated by grasses with deep root systems that are adapted to conserve moisture. These adaptations are crucial for survival in the prairies' environment, which experiences low precipitation. Thus, this statement is correct.
3. Statement 3: Prairies are indeed maintained by natural factors such as grazing, fire, and drought. These factors play a significant role in sustaining the prairie ecosystem by controlling the growth of woody plants and promoting the growth of grasses. Therefore, this statement is correct.
Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations on regulating social media:
1. The Supreme Court highlighted the need for clear differentiation between free speech, commercial speech, and prohibited speech to protect community trust and social harmony.
2. The Court directed the Union Government to create guidelines with enforceable consequences for social media influencers, ensuring they are not mere formalities.
3. In its observations, the Supreme Court emphasized that derogatory jokes and insensitive remarks are protected under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court indeed highlighted the importance of differentiating between various types of speech — free speech, commercial speech, and prohibited speech — as a means to uphold social harmony and community trust. This differentiation aims to provide clarity and prevent the misuse of free speech, particularly on digital platforms where speech can easily overlap with prohibited content.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court directed the Union Government to formulate regulatory guidelines for social media influencers with enforceable consequences. The emphasis was on creating guidelines that are substantial and not merely symbolic, ensuring accountability for online expressions that could harm vulnerable groups.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not state that derogatory jokes and insensitive remarks are protected under Article 19(1)(a). Instead, it emphasized that such remarks could undermine the constitutional principle of inclusivity and contribute to stigma and discrimination. The Court's observations were aimed at balancing free speech with societal sensitivities and protecting the dignity of marginalized groups.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Export Promotion Mission is a flagship initiative introduced in the Union Budget for 2025-26 to facilitate broad-based, inclusive, and sustainable export growth over a six-year period (FY 2025-31).
Statement-II:
The Department of Commerce is the lead department overseeing the Export Promotion Mission, which aims to enhance export competitiveness through improved access to export credit and assistance in overcoming non-tariff barriers in global markets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes the key objectives and timeline of the Export Promotion Mission outlined in the Union Budget for 2025-26. It highlights the initiative's goal of fostering sustainable export growth over six years, particularly focusing on the challenges faced by Indian exporters, especially Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
Statement-II accurately identifies the Department of Commerce as the primary department responsible for overseeing the Export Promotion Mission. It correctly mentions the mission's aim to boost export competitiveness by facilitating access to export credit and addressing non-tariff barriers in global markets. Statement-II further explains how the mission intends to support exporters in navigating challenges and enhancing their presence in international trade.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II effectively elaborates on the objectives and execution of the Export Promotion Mission as outlined in the Union Budget.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
ERAM missiles are equipped with a 500-pound high-explosive warhead, designed to effectively destroy fortified targets such as bunkers, fuel depots, and ammunition stores.
Statement-II:
ERAM missiles can travel between 240 and 450 kilometers, depending on the flight profile, enhancing their operational flexibility.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I correctly describes the warhead capabilities of ERAM missiles, highlighting their purpose to destroy fortified targets effectively. Statement-II accurately presents the range capability of ERAM missiles, indicating their operational flexibility based on flight profiles. Both statements are individually correct in their respective descriptions of ERAM missiles but do not directly correlate or explain each other. The warhead capacity and range capability are distinct features of the ERAM missile system, contributing to its effectiveness in combat scenarios.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The population of greater one-horned rhinos at Gorumara National Park has recently increased due to successful conservation efforts.
Statement-II:
The rise in disposable income of Indian households in 2025 is primarily driven by lower inflation and tax cuts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered

Statement-I discusses the positive increase in the population of greater one-horned rhinos at Gorumara National Park, highlighting successful conservation efforts. This aligns with the information provided in the passage about the recent birth of two rhino calves in the park, indicating a conservation win.
Statement-II talks about the rising disposable income of Indian households in 2025, attributed to lower inflation and tax cuts. This information is based on the details provided in the passage regarding the expected increase in disposable income due to easing inflation and recent tax cuts.
Both statements are factually correct based on the information presented. However, they address different topics—conservation success in Gorumara National Park and rising disposable income in Indian households—without one directly explaining the other. Therefore, the correct answer is that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

What is the primary focus of psephology as a field of study?
  • a)
    Analyzing historical events
  • b)
    Predicting election outcomes
  • c)
    Conducting opinion polls
  • d)
    Studying political ideologies
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Psephology, as a specialized branch of political science, primarily focuses on predicting election outcomes through the analysis of voting data and utilizing various statistical tools. Psephologists play a crucial role in understanding voter behavior and election dynamics by studying electoral patterns and public opinion polls to forecast results in future elections.

What is the primary purpose of the Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 recently introduced in the Lok Sabha?
  • a)
    To enhance the rights of the accused individuals
  • b)
    To streamline the process of ministerial appointments
  • c)
    To ensure accountability among political leaders
  • d)
    To introduce stricter penalties for petty crimes
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025, aims to ensure accountability among political leaders by proposing the automatic removal of Ministers, Chief Ministers, and the Prime Minister if they remain in custody for over thirty consecutive days due to serious criminal charges. This bill seeks to address concerns about the integrity of elected representatives and focuses on maintaining transparency and accountability in governance.

Consider the following statements:
1. NITI Aayog's report emphasizes the economic potential of alternative accommodations like homestays in promoting sustainable tourism growth.
2. The model policy framework proposed by NITI Aayog aims to integrate technology and enhance cultural authenticity to position homestays as a means for regional development.
3. The report suggests heavy regulatory frameworks to ensure strict compliance with tourism standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The NITI Aayog report indeed emphasizes the significant economic potential of alternative accommodations like homestays in promoting sustainable tourism growth. It highlights how these accommodations can stimulate growth, create local jobs, and encourage entrepreneurship, particularly in rural and semi-urban regions.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The model policy framework proposed by NITI Aayog includes integrating technology and enhancing cultural authenticity. The objective is to position homestays as a means for regional development, not just as mere accommodation. This approach is intended to simplify processes and support cultural immersion, thus fostering sustainable tourism.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. Contrary to suggesting heavy regulatory frameworks, the report calls for a light-touch regulatory framework. This approach is focused on digital empowerment and capacity building for hosts, rather than imposing stringent regulations that might hinder the growth of the homestay sector.
Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Alaskan Summit between U.S. President Donald Trump and Russian President Vladimir Putin highlighted India's lack of influence in U.S.-Russia discussions.
2. The Modi government successfully negotiated relief from U.S. sanctions on Russian oil imports during the summit.
3. The principle of strategic autonomy suggests that India should only adhere to UN-mandated sanctions, not unilateral ones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The Alaskan Summit indeed reinforced India's sense of vulnerability in U.S.-Russia relations, as it highlighted India's limited influence in these discussions and the lack of significant advantages gained by India from the summit.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to the expectation of relief from U.S. sanctions on Russian oil imports, the Modi government did not succeed in negotiating such relief at the summit. The U.S. maintained its stringent sanctions policy, emphasizing a dual strategy to penalize both Russia and India.
- Statement 3 is correct. The principle of strategic autonomy for India emphasizes that it should adhere to sanctions mandated by the United Nations rather than unilateral sanctions imposed by individual countries. This assertion underlines the importance of maintaining India's economic independence and credibility.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to reduce shipping times by approximately 40% compared to existing routes.
Statement-II:
Plastics are persistent in the environment and are a significant source of litter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered

Statement-I is correct as per the information provided about the IMEC in the text. The corridor indeed aims to reduce shipping times by approximately 40% compared to existing routes.
Statement-II is also correct based on the details given regarding plastic pollution. Plastics are indeed persistent in the environment and are a significant source of litter. However, there is no direct relationship or explanatory link between the two statements, making Option B the correct choice.

Consider the following statements regarding the role of cess and surcharge in Union Finance:
1. Cess is an additional tax imposed for a specific purpose and must be used solely for that purpose, whereas surcharge is a general tax used for broader fiscal needs.
2. Both cess and surcharge are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India but only the proceeds from cess are excluded from the divisible pool of taxes shared with the states.
3. Article 270 of the Indian Constitution allows for the imposition of surcharge, while Article 271 deals with the imposition of cess.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Cess is indeed levied for a specific purpose and must be used solely for that designated purpose. It cannot be diverted for general government expenditure, as highlighted by the distinction between cess and regular taxes. Conversely, a surcharge, while also an additional levy, is used for broader fiscal needs and is not earmarked for a specific purpose like cess.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Both cess and surcharge are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, but neither is shared with the states. The proceeds from both are excluded from the divisible pool of taxes shared with the states. However, cess is meant to be used for specific purposes, whereas a surcharge is not earmarked for a specific purpose.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 270 of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States, while Article 271 provides for the imposition of a surcharge on certain taxes and duties for Union purposes. The article related to cess is not Article 271, but rather, cess is governed by specific laws that must clearly state its purpose under the guidance of Article 270.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following pairs related to the Shipki-La Pass and its significance:
1. Shipki-La Pass - Located in Kinnaur district, Himachal Pradesh
2. Sutlej River - Known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet
3. Shipki-La Pass - Originally named Pema La
4. Shipki-La Pass - Historically a trade corridor between India and Nepal
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Pair 1: Shipki-La Pass - Located in Kinnaur district, Himachal Pradesh
- This is correct. Shipki-La Pass is indeed located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, India.
2. Pair 2: Sutlej River - Known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet
- This is correct. The Sutlej River is known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet.
3. Pair 3: Shipki-La Pass - Originally named Pema La
- This is correct. Shipki-La Pass was originally named Pema La, meaning "Shared Gate," before being rebranded by the Indo-Tibetan Border Police post-1962.
4. Pair 4: Shipki-La Pass - Historically a trade corridor between India and Nepal
- This is incorrect. Shipki-La Pass has historically been a trade corridor between India and Tibet, not Nepal.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 2, and 3. Pair 4 is incorrect as it erroneously mentions Nepal instead of Tibet.

Consider the following pairs related to India's BioE3 Policy and its focus on biomanufacturing:
1. BioE3 Policy Launch Year - 2023
2. Number of Planned Biomanufacturing Hubs - 16
3. Contribution of Bioeconomy to India's GDP - 4.25%
4. Number of Operational Biofoundries - 6
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. BioE3 Policy Launch Year - 2023: Incorrect. The BioE3 Policy was launched in August 2024. Thus, this pair is not correctly matched.
2. Number of Planned Biomanufacturing Hubs - 16: Correct. The BioE3 Policy plans to establish 16 biomanufacturing hubs to support the bioeconomy and promote self-reliance.
3. Contribution of Bioeconomy to India's GDP - 4.25%: Correct. India's bioeconomy contributes 4.25% to the national GDP.
4. Number of Operational Biofoundries - 6: Correct. Six biofoundries are already operational, aiding various biotechnological innovations.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 2, 3, and 4.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pong Dam:
1. Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh and was completed in 1974.
2. The reservoir created by Pong Dam is recognized as a Ramsar Wetland Site due to its importance for migratory birds.
3. The Pong Dam plays a crucial role in hydroelectric power generation but is not significant for irrigation purposes.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is indeed located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. Its construction began in 1961 and was completed in 1974, establishing it as the tallest earth-fill embankment dam in India at that time.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The reservoir created by the Pong Dam, known as Maharana Pratap Sagar, was designated a Ramsar Wetland Site in 2002. This designation highlights its significance as a habitat for migratory birds and its ecological importance, supporting various species of avifauna.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Pong Dam is indeed crucial for hydroelectric power generation, it is also significant for irrigation purposes. The dam supports both these functions, thereby contributing to the economic and agricultural development of the region.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as both statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not.

Consider the following statements regarding Bloom Syndrome:
1. Bloom Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
2. Individuals with Bloom Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain types of cancers at an early age.
3. The BLM gene mutations associated with Bloom Syndrome are most prevalent in the Eastern European (Ashkenazi) Jewish population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: Incorrect. Bloom Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, not an autosomal dominant manner. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to be affected by the disorder.
2. Statement 2: Correct. Individuals with Bloom Syndrome have an increased risk of developing certain types of cancers at an early age. This is due to the role of the BLM gene in DNA maintenance and repair, and its dysfunction leads to genomic instability.
3. Statement 3: Correct. The mutations in the BLM gene associated with Bloom Syndrome are indeed most prevalent in the Eastern European (Ashkenazi) Jewish population, making this a significant risk factor for individuals of this ancestry.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Hence, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to the Pong Dam:
1. Pong Dam - Located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh
2. Maharana Pratap Sagar - Artificial lake created by the Pong Dam
3. Ramsar Wetland Site Designation - Designated in 1974
4. Bird Sanctuary Status - Achieved in 1983
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Pong Dam - Located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh: This pair is correctly matched. The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is indeed located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
2. Maharana Pratap Sagar - Artificial lake created by the Pong Dam: This pair is correctly matched. The Pong Dam created the artificial reservoir known as Maharana Pratap Sagar.
3. Ramsar Wetland Site Designation - Designated in 1974: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Pong Dam's reservoir was designated as a Ramsar Wetland Site in 2002, not in 1974.
4. Bird Sanctuary Status - Achieved in 1983: This pair is correctly matched. The area around the Pong Dam was declared a bird sanctuary in 1983 due to its rich diversity of waterfowl.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 2, and 4.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Pampas - South America
2. Velds - Africa
3. Steppes - Asia
4. Prairies - Australia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Pampas - South America: Correctly matched. The Pampas are extensive lowlands covering Argentina, Uruguay, and parts of Brazil, known for their fertile soil and agriculture.
2. Velds - Africa: Correctly matched. Velds are grasslands found primarily in South Africa, characterized by open, grassy landscapes.
3. Steppes - Asia: Correctly matched. Steppes are large areas of flat unforested grassland in southeastern Europe and Siberia, extending into Central Asia.
4. Prairies - Australia: Incorrectly matched. Prairies are not found in Australia; they are temperate grasslands primarily located in North America, especially in the central United States and Canada.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: Pampas with South America, Velds with Africa, and Steppes with Asia. The Prairies are mistakenly matched with Australia instead of North America.

What is one of the primary factors that can lead to flash floods in the Himalayas?
  • a)
    Heavy traffic in the region
  • b)
    Glacial lake breaches
  • c)
    Urbanization near riverbanks
  • d)
    Deforestation in the surrounding areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Glacial lake breaches are one of the significant factors that can lead to flash floods in the Himalayas. These breaches can occur due to various reasons, such as the melting of glaciers or sudden structural failures in the glacial lakes. When a glacial lake breaches, it can release a massive amount of water downstream, triggering flash floods in the region. This phenomenon underscores the vulnerability of ecologically sensitive areas like the Himalayas to extreme weather events and emphasizes the importance of understanding and managing these risks effectively.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sahel region and India's strategic partnership with the Philippines:
1. Russia's influence in the Sahel region has increased due to its significant nuclear agreement with Niger.
2. The Sahel region serves as a crucial transit hub for migrants traveling from sub-Saharan Africa towards northern coastal states and further into Europe.
3. India and the Philippines have committed to doubling their bilateral trade by 2030, with defence cooperation highlighted by the sale of BrahMos missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Russia has indeed strengthened its presence in the Sahel region, particularly by signing a significant nuclear agreement with Niger. This move is part of Russia's broader geopolitical strategy to increase its influence in this strategically important region.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Sahel is a known transit hub for migrants, the current context provided in the question focuses more on geopolitical interests and does not emphasize this migratory aspect specifically in this context. Thus, while broadly correct, it is not relevant to the specific details discussed.
- Statement 3 is correct. India and the Philippines have indeed committed to doubling their bilateral trade by 2030, and defence cooperation is a significant aspect of their strategic partnership, highlighted by India's sale of BrahMos missiles to the Philippines.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Swadeshi Movement was initiated in response to Lord Curzon's repressive measures, including reforms like the Indian Universities Act of 1904.
Statement-II:
The Swadeshi Movement primarily focused on promoting the boycott of British goods and encouraging support for Indian-made products.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I correctly highlights that the Swadeshi Movement was triggered by Lord Curzon's repressive policies, including the Indian Universities Act of 1904, which caused discontent among Indians. This led to the initiation of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal in 1905.
Statement-II accurately captures the essence of the Swadeshi Movement, emphasizing its core principles of boycotting British goods and advocating for the promotion of Indian-made products to foster economic self-reliance and resist British colonial rule.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the context and motivation behind the Swadeshi Movement initiated in India.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fifth Session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) on plastic pollution:
1. The INC aims to draft a legally binding treaty on plastic pollution by 2024.
2. The negotiation process for the treaty includes only plenary sessions with member state representatives.
3. The INC's mandate includes addressing the entire life cycle of plastics, from production to disposal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one:
Statement 1 is correct. The Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) was established with the aim of drafting a legally binding treaty on plastic pollution by 2024. This reflects the committee's goal of creating enforceable international standards to combat plastic pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The negotiation process of the INC is not limited to plenary sessions alone. It involves various methods, including technical group discussions and stakeholder consultations, allowing for a comprehensive approach that incorporates diverse viewpoints and expertise.
Statement 3 is correct. The mandate of the INC indeed includes addressing the entire life cycle of plastics. This means the treaty aims to cover all stages from production and design to usage and disposal, ensuring a holistic approach to managing plastic pollution.
In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty:
1. The INF Treaty prohibited all nuclear weapons, regardless of their range.
2. The treaty allowed for on-site inspections as a verification measure.
3. Russia's withdrawal from the INF Treaty was partly due to concerns over U.S. military deployments in the Asia-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The INF Treaty specifically prohibited ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges from 500 to 5,500 kilometers, not all nuclear weapons. It did not cover intercontinental ballistic missiles or other categories of nuclear weapons.
- Statement 2 is correct. The INF Treaty allowed for on-site inspections as a verification measure. This was a significant feature, setting a precedent for future arms control agreements by enhancing transparency and trust between the parties.
- Statement 3 is correct. Russia's withdrawal from the INF Treaty cited several reasons, one of which was concerns over U.S. military deployments, including those in the Asia-Pacific region, such as the deployment of Tomahawk launchers and Dark Eagle hypersonic missiles, which Russia perceived as a threat to its security.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only, as Statements 2 and 3 are accurate.

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Russia's recent nuclear agreement with Niger underscores its growing influence in the Sahel region of West Africa.
Statement-II :
India's strategic partnership with the Philippines primarily focuses on enhancing maritime cooperation and people-to-people engagement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement-I is accurate as it reflects Russia's recent activities in the Sahel region, particularly the nuclear agreement with Niger, which signifies Russia's increasing presence and interests in the area. Statement-II correctly highlights the key areas of focus in the India-Philippines strategic partnership, emphasizing maritime cooperation and people-to-people engagement initiatives. Moreover, Statement-II complements Statement-I by offering a contrasting perspective on a different geopolitical scenario, demonstrating the diverse international relations dynamics at play in different regions. Thus, both statements are factually correct and mutually explanatory in the context of their respective subjects, warranting the selection of option (a) as the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Nauru - Located 1,300 km southwest of the Solomon Islands
2. Yaren - De facto capital of Nauru
3. Indian Flapshell Turtle - Listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List
4. Phosphate Mining - Covers the entirety of Nauru's land surface
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Nauru - Located 1,300 km southwest of the Solomon Islands: Incorrect. Nauru is located 1,300 km northeast of the Solomon Islands.
2. Yaren - De facto capital of Nauru: Correct. Yaren is indeed the de facto capital of Nauru, serving as the administrative center of the country.
3. Indian Flapshell Turtle - Listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List: Correct. The Indian Flapshell Turtle is indeed listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, indicating it faces a high risk of extinction in the wild.
4. Phosphate Mining - Covers the entirety of Nauru's land surface: Incorrect. While phosphate mining has significantly impacted Nauru and made about four-fifths of the land uninhabitable, it does not cover the entirety of Nauru's land surface.
Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Dhirio - Traditional bull fighting event in Goa
2. Awaza Programme of Action - Initiative for landlocked developing countries
3. SHRESTH - State Health Regulatory Excellence Index in India
4. Jallikattu - Traditional bull taming sport in Kerala
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Dhirio - Traditional bull fighting event in Goa: Correctly matched. Dhirio is indeed a traditional bull fighting event that is part of Goa's cultural heritage, often associated with local festivities.
2. Awaza Programme of Action - Initiative for landlocked developing countries: Correctly matched. The Awaza Programme of Action (2024–2034) is designed to address the developmental challenges faced by landlocked developing countries, as highlighted in the UN Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries.
3. SHRESTH - State Health Regulatory Excellence Index in India: Correctly matched. SHRESTH is an initiative aimed at benchmarking and improving state drug regulatory systems in India, launched by the Union Health Secretary.
4. Jallikattu - Traditional bull taming sport in Kerala: Incorrectly matched. Jallikattu is a traditional bull taming event, but it is primarily associated with Tamil Nadu, not Kerala.
The correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 3. Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges to China's dominance in Africa's mining sector:
1. The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) produces 80% of the world’s cobalt, and China controls about 80% of this output through agreements like Sicomines.
2. African nations have begun imposing export bans on unprocessed critical minerals to encourage local beneficiation.
3. China's infrastructure-for-resources model has been universally accepted as beneficial by African civil society groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is indeed a major producer of cobalt, responsible for 80% of the global supply. China's control over approximately 80% of this cobalt output is facilitated through agreements such as Sicomines, which exemplifies China's significant involvement in the DRC's mining sector.
2. Statement 2 is correct. African nations, such as Zimbabwe and Namibia, have initiated export bans on unprocessed critical minerals. These policy shifts aim to promote local beneficiation by ensuring that raw materials are processed domestically, thus retaining more economic value within the region.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The infrastructure-for-resources model used by China has faced significant criticism from African civil society groups. These groups have raised concerns over opaque contracts, minimal local benefits, and environmental degradation associated with Chinese mining projects. Hence, the model is not universally accepted as beneficial.
Therefore, the correct option is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as both these statements accurately reflect the current challenges and policy shifts related to China's mining activities in Africa.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhagirathi River:
1. The Bhagirathi River originates from the Khatling Glacier in the Garhwal Himalayas.
2. According to Hindu mythology, the Bhagirathi is considered the source stream of the Ganges.
3. The Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers join at Devprayag to form the Yamuna River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Bhagirathi River does originate from the Gaumukh Glacier, which is located at the base of the Khatling and Gangotri Glaciers in the Garhwal Himalayas. Therefore, this statement is accurate regarding the origin of the river.
2. Statement 2 is Correct: In Hindu mythology, the Bhagirathi is indeed regarded as the source stream of the Ganges. This cultural and spiritual belief emphasizes the river's significance in Indian traditions and religious practices.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers join at Devprayag to form the Ganges River, not the Yamuna River. This is a factual error in the statement, as the Yamuna is a separate river that joins the Ganges further downstream at Allahabad (Prayagraj).
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the accurate choice.

What is the primary purpose of the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC)?
  • a)
    To provide food aid to crisis-affected regions
  • b)
    To assess and classify the severity of food insecurity
  • c)
    To promote agricultural development in developing countries
  • d)
    To conduct nutritional surveys in famine-stricken areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) serves as a standard method for assessing and categorizing the severity of food insecurity. By utilizing a five-phase classification system, the IPC helps in determining the level of food insecurity in regions, enabling timely actions and responses. It integrates evidence from various aspects like food access, livelihoods, nutrition, and mortality to ensure accurate assessments and support decision-making processes.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is a standard method for assessing the severity of food insecurity.
Statement-II:
Famine is classified as IPC Phase 5, the highest level of food insecurity, and is declared under specific conditions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and methodology of the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC), which is indeed a standard method for evaluating food insecurity severity. Statement-II provides additional information directly related to the classification system mentioned in Statement-I, clarifying that famine, the most severe level of food insecurity, is categorized as IPC Phase 5 and is declared under specific criteria. Hence, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II elaborates on the classification system introduced in Statement-I.

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