All Exams > UPSC > Weekly Current Affairs > All Questions
All questions of March 2026 for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India aims to achieve 60% of its electricity capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035.Statement-II:
India targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP from 2005 levels by 2035.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India aims to achieve 60% of its electricity capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035.
India aims to achieve 60% of its electricity capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035.
Statement-II:
India targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP from 2005 levels by 2035.
India targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP from 2005 levels by 2035.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
 | Lohit Matani answered |
Statement-I is accurate as per the information provided in the content about India's updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) aiming for 60% of electricity capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035.
Statement-II is also correct based on the details given, where India has set a target of a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP from 2005 levels by 2035.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the need and context behind Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:1. National Critical Mineral Mission - Launched in 2024 to promote domestic exploration of critical minerals.2. Pax Silica Initiative - An initiative by India to enhance the global supply chain for silicon technologies.3. IEA Membership Criteria - Only countries that are part of the OECD can be full members.4. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) - Engaged in international partnerships for acquiring and exploring critical minerals.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. National Critical Mineral Mission - Launched in 2024 to promote domestic exploration of critical minerals.
2. Pax Silica Initiative - An initiative by India to enhance the global supply chain for silicon technologies.
3. IEA Membership Criteria - Only countries that are part of the OECD can be full members.
4. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) - Engaged in international partnerships for acquiring and exploring critical minerals.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
 | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
1. National Critical Mineral Mission - Correctly matched. This mission was indeed launched in 2024 to promote domestic exploration and recovery of critical minerals from end-of-life products.
2. Pax Silica Initiative - Incorrectly matched. The Pax Silica Initiative is led by the U.S., not India, to secure global supply chains for silicon-related technologies.
3. IEA Membership Criteria - Correctly matched. The IEA's current membership is limited to OECD countries, which is a limitation for India as it seeks full membership.
4. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) - Correctly matched. KABIL is engaged in international partnerships focused on acquiring and exploring critical minerals abroad.
The pairs that are correctly matched are 1, 3, and 4, thus making three correctly matched pairs.
Consider the following pairs related to the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana:1. Rooftop Solar Installations: 30 lakh achieved2. Financial Assistance: Provided by state governments only3. Monthly Free Electricity: Up to 300 units4. Green Jobs: Created in solar manufacturing and installation sectorsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana:
1. Rooftop Solar Installations: 30 lakh achieved
2. Financial Assistance: Provided by state governments only
3. Monthly Free Electricity: Up to 300 units
4. Green Jobs: Created in solar manufacturing and installation sectors
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
 | Srestha Deshpande answered |
Analysis of PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana Pairs
To determine how many pairs related to the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana are correctly matched, let's evaluate each statement:
1. Rooftop Solar Installations: 30 lakh achieved
- This statement is correct as the initiative has indeed achieved significant milestones in rooftop solar installations.
2. Financial Assistance: Provided by state governments only
- This statement is incorrect. While state governments play a vital role, financial assistance also comes from the central government and various schemes.
3. Monthly Free Electricity: Up to 300 units
- This statement is accurate. The scheme provides free electricity up to 300 units, benefiting low-income households.
4. Green Jobs: Created in solar manufacturing and installation sectors
- This statement is also correct. The initiative has led to the creation of numerous green jobs in solar energy sectors.
Conclusion of Correct Matches
After analyzing the pairs:
- Correct Matches: Rooftop Solar Installations, Monthly Free Electricity, Green Jobs
- Incorrect Match: Financial Assistance
This leads to a total of three correctly matched pairs. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', indicating that only three pairs are correctly matched.
To determine how many pairs related to the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana are correctly matched, let's evaluate each statement:
1. Rooftop Solar Installations: 30 lakh achieved
- This statement is correct as the initiative has indeed achieved significant milestones in rooftop solar installations.
2. Financial Assistance: Provided by state governments only
- This statement is incorrect. While state governments play a vital role, financial assistance also comes from the central government and various schemes.
3. Monthly Free Electricity: Up to 300 units
- This statement is accurate. The scheme provides free electricity up to 300 units, benefiting low-income households.
4. Green Jobs: Created in solar manufacturing and installation sectors
- This statement is also correct. The initiative has led to the creation of numerous green jobs in solar energy sectors.
Conclusion of Correct Matches
After analyzing the pairs:
- Correct Matches: Rooftop Solar Installations, Monthly Free Electricity, Green Jobs
- Incorrect Match: Financial Assistance
This leads to a total of three correctly matched pairs. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', indicating that only three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:1. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released a new GDP series with the base year shifted to 2022-23, which has resulted in a downward revision of nominal GDP estimates by approximately 3-4%.2. The revision of the GDP base year has led to a decrease in the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio for the year 2025-26, reducing it from the initially targeted 4.4% to 4.3%.3. The GDP rebasing is expected to raise the debt-to-GDP ratio from 56.2% to 58.1% by 2025-26, highlighting increased fiscal constraints.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released a new GDP series with the base year shifted to 2022-23, which has resulted in a downward revision of nominal GDP estimates by approximately 3-4%.
2. The revision of the GDP base year has led to a decrease in the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio for the year 2025-26, reducing it from the initially targeted 4.4% to 4.3%.
3. The GDP rebasing is expected to raise the debt-to-GDP ratio from 56.2% to 58.1% by 2025-26, highlighting increased fiscal constraints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Lohit Matani answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) indeed released a new GDP series with the base year shifted to 2022-23. This change resulted in a downward revision of nominal GDP estimates by approximately 3-4%.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The revision of the GDP base year has not led to a decrease but rather an increase in the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio. The fiscal deficit ratio for 2025-26 is now expected to be 4.5% of GDP, up from the initially targeted 4.4%, due to the reduction in nominal GDP.
Statement 3 is correct. The GDP rebasing is expected to raise the debt-to-GDP ratio from 56.2% to 58.1% by 2025-26, indicating increased fiscal constraints.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the right answer.
Rare Disease Day is observed globally on which date to highlight the challenges faced by individuals with rare diseases?- a)February 27th
- b)February 28th
- c)February 29th
- d)March 1st
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Rare Disease Day is observed globally on which date to highlight the challenges faced by individuals with rare diseases?
a)
February 27th
b)
February 28th
c)
February 29th
d)
March 1st
 | Divey Sethi answered |
Rare Disease Day is observed globally on February 28th (or February 29th in leap years) to highlight the challenges faced by individuals with rare diseases. This date symbolizes the rarity of these conditions and serves to raise awareness about the struggles and needs of those affected by rare diseases.
Consider the following statements regarding the Eligible Manufacturer Importers (EMIs) Scheme:1. The EMI scheme allows manufacturers to import goods without immediate customs duty payments, with duties payable on a monthly basis.2. To be eligible for the EMI scheme, an entity must be a registered manufacturer under the CGST Act and demonstrate a clean compliance record with Customs and GST regulations.3. The scheme is a measure to enhance the ease of doing business and is operational from 1st April 2026 to 31st March 2028.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Eligible Manufacturer Importers (EMIs) Scheme:
1. The EMI scheme allows manufacturers to import goods without immediate customs duty payments, with duties payable on a monthly basis.
2. To be eligible for the EMI scheme, an entity must be a registered manufacturer under the CGST Act and demonstrate a clean compliance record with Customs and GST regulations.
3. The scheme is a measure to enhance the ease of doing business and is operational from 1st April 2026 to 31st March 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Innovative Classes answered |
1. Statement 1: The EMI scheme indeed allows manufacturers to import goods without immediate customs duty payments, as duties are instead paid on a monthly basis. This feature is designed to enhance liquidity for manufacturers, promoting reinvestment in production. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
2. Statement 2: Eligibility for the EMI scheme requires an entity to be a registered manufacturer under the CGST Act or an importer sending goods to a job worker. Additionally, they must demonstrate a clean compliance record with Customs and GST regulations. This criterion ensures that only compliant businesses benefit from the scheme, reinforcing Statement 2 as correct.
3. Statement 3: The scheme is explicitly mentioned to operate from 1st April 2026 to 31st March 2028, and one of its primary objectives is to enhance the ease of doing business by simplifying the import process and improving financial health for manufacturers. Thus, Statement 3 is also correct.
All three statements are accurate, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The new GDP series for India has revised the growth for FY26 to 7.6% and Q3 growth to 7.8% based on the base year 2022-23.
Statement-II:
India aims for $2 trillion in exports by 2030 under the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 to enhance economic growth and global influence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The new GDP series for India has revised the growth for FY26 to 7.6% and Q3 growth to 7.8% based on the base year 2022-23.
Statement-II:
India aims for $2 trillion in exports by 2030 under the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 to enhance economic growth and global influence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The new GDP series for India has revised the growth for FY26 to 7.6% and Q3 growth to 7.8% based on the base year 2022-23.
Statement-II:
India aims for $2 trillion in exports by 2030 under the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 to enhance economic growth and global influence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
 | Future Foundation Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct in mentioning the revision of India's GDP growth based on the new GDP series with the base year 2022-23, as per the news. Statement-II accurately reflects India's goal of achieving $2 trillion in exports by 2030 under the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023. However, these statements are unrelated to each other in terms of content, and Statement-II does not provide an explanation or context for Statement-I. Hence, while both statements are individually correct, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, making option (b) the correct choice.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was established in 2001 by the Government of India to prevent the wrongful granting of patents on Indian traditional knowledge.Statement-II:
The recent collaboration between Brazil's National Institute of Industrial Property (INPI) and India's Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) aims to enhance access to the TKDL and safeguard traditional knowledge from misappropriation.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was established in 2001 by the Government of India to prevent the wrongful granting of patents on Indian traditional knowledge.
The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was established in 2001 by the Government of India to prevent the wrongful granting of patents on Indian traditional knowledge.
Statement-II:
The recent collaboration between Brazil's National Institute of Industrial Property (INPI) and India's Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) aims to enhance access to the TKDL and safeguard traditional knowledge from misappropriation.
The recent collaboration between Brazil's National Institute of Industrial Property (INPI) and India's Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) aims to enhance access to the TKDL and safeguard traditional knowledge from misappropriation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
 | Master Training Institute answered |
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and establishment of the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) by the Government of India in 2001 to prevent the granting of patents on Indian traditional knowledge. Statement-II accurately reflects the recent collaboration between Brazil's INPI and India's CSIR to enhance access to the TKDL and protect traditional knowledge from misappropriation. The collaboration aims to strengthen the protective measures of the TKDL and ensure the preservation of traditional knowledge. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides additional context that aligns with Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:1. The Supreme Court's ruling on paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers extends the leave to 26 weeks, aligning it with the leave duration for biological mothers.2. The Supreme Court judgment emphasized the importance of gender justice and shared parenting responsibilities in its decision on maternity leave for adoptive mothers.3. Prior to the Supreme Court's decision, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provided 12 weeks of paid leave for adoptive mothers, with an age limit of the child set at three months.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court's ruling on paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers extends the leave to 26 weeks, aligning it with the leave duration for biological mothers.
2. The Supreme Court judgment emphasized the importance of gender justice and shared parenting responsibilities in its decision on maternity leave for adoptive mothers.
3. Prior to the Supreme Court's decision, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provided 12 weeks of paid leave for adoptive mothers, with an age limit of the child set at three months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Upsc Toppers answered |
1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Supreme Court expanded paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers to 12 weeks, not 26 weeks. The leave duration for biological mothers is indeed 26 weeks, but the court's decision specifically granted adoptive mothers 12 weeks of leave, regardless of the child's age at adoption.
2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Supreme Court's judgment did emphasize the importance of gender justice and shared parenting responsibilities, highlighting the need for equal rights for adoptive mothers in the context of paid maternity leave.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. Before the Supreme Court's ruling, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, did provide for 12 weeks of paid leave for biological mothers initially, and the age limit for adoptive mothers' children was set at three months, which the court found discriminatory and changed.
Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.
What is the primary reason behind the recent surge in crude oil prices above $100 per barrel as mentioned in the text?- a)Decreased oil production in major oil-producing countries
- b)Geopolitical tensions and supply disruptions
- c)Decreased global demand for oil
- d)Increase in oil reserves in major oil transit routes
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary reason behind the recent surge in crude oil prices above $100 per barrel as mentioned in the text?
a)
Decreased oil production in major oil-producing countries
b)
Geopolitical tensions and supply disruptions
c)
Decreased global demand for oil
d)
Increase in oil reserves in major oil transit routes
 | Valor Academy answered |
The recent surge in crude oil prices above $100 per barrel can be attributed to geopolitical tensions and supply disruptions, particularly due to the escalating conflict in Iran and significant disruptions in oil supplies through the critical oil transit route, the Strait of Hormuz. These factors have contributed to the spike in oil prices, raising concerns about global energy supply and economic stability.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The WTO is experiencing its most severe crisis since its inception in 1995, particularly due to a weakened dispute settlement system.Statement-II:
The existing WTO rules are outdated, failing to address the complexities of digital commerce and the rise of emerging economies.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The WTO is experiencing its most severe crisis since its inception in 1995, particularly due to a weakened dispute settlement system.
The WTO is experiencing its most severe crisis since its inception in 1995, particularly due to a weakened dispute settlement system.
Statement-II:
The existing WTO rules are outdated, failing to address the complexities of digital commerce and the rise of emerging economies.
The existing WTO rules are outdated, failing to address the complexities of digital commerce and the rise of emerging economies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
| | Innovative Classes answered |
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are accurate. Statement-I highlights the current crisis faced by the WTO due to a weakened dispute settlement system, while Statement-II emphasizes the inadequacy of existing WTO rules in addressing modern trade complexities like digital commerce and emerging economies. The second statement explains why the WTO is facing challenges as mentioned in the first statement, making option (a) the correct answer.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
 | Sameer Ghoshal answered |
Understanding the Question
The question asks how many pairs from a given list are correctly matched. Without the specific pairs provided, we can still explore the logic behind determining the correct matches.
Analyzing Correct Matches
To assess correctness, consider the following steps:
- Definition of Pairs: Each pair consists of two related items. Identify what each item represents.
- Criteria for Correctness: For a pair to be correctly matched, both items must logically relate to each other based on established knowledge or definitions.
Evaluating Options
Given that the answer is "Only two pairs," let's explore why this is the case:
- Pair Verification:
- Check each pair: Go through each pair one by one. Determine if they are typically associated or if their relationship is commonly accepted.
- Identify Errors: If any pair does not align with known facts or definitions, mark them as incorrect.
- Count the Correct Pairs: After verifying, count how many pairs meet the criteria of being correctly matched.
Conclusion
In this specific scenario, the conclusion of "Only two pairs" being correct indicates that two pairs were verified against facts or definitions, while the other pairs were found to be incorrect. This methodical evaluation ensures clarity in understanding the relationships between items in the pairs.
By following this approach, you can confidently determine the number of correct matches in similar questions.
The question asks how many pairs from a given list are correctly matched. Without the specific pairs provided, we can still explore the logic behind determining the correct matches.
Analyzing Correct Matches
To assess correctness, consider the following steps:
- Definition of Pairs: Each pair consists of two related items. Identify what each item represents.
- Criteria for Correctness: For a pair to be correctly matched, both items must logically relate to each other based on established knowledge or definitions.
Evaluating Options
Given that the answer is "Only two pairs," let's explore why this is the case:
- Pair Verification:
- Check each pair: Go through each pair one by one. Determine if they are typically associated or if their relationship is commonly accepted.
- Identify Errors: If any pair does not align with known facts or definitions, mark them as incorrect.
- Count the Correct Pairs: After verifying, count how many pairs meet the criteria of being correctly matched.
Conclusion
In this specific scenario, the conclusion of "Only two pairs" being correct indicates that two pairs were verified against facts or definitions, while the other pairs were found to be incorrect. This methodical evaluation ensures clarity in understanding the relationships between items in the pairs.
By following this approach, you can confidently determine the number of correct matches in similar questions.
What is the primary focus of the SHANTI Act 2025 in India's nuclear energy sector?- a)Promoting coal-based energy production
- b)Encouraging solar energy utilization
- c)Facilitating participation from various sectors in the nuclear energy landscape
- d)Implementing a ban on nuclear power plants
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary focus of the SHANTI Act 2025 in India's nuclear energy sector?
a)
Promoting coal-based energy production
b)
Encouraging solar energy utilization
c)
Facilitating participation from various sectors in the nuclear energy landscape
d)
Implementing a ban on nuclear power plants
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
The SHANTI Act 2025 aims to encourage participation from various sectors in India's nuclear energy landscape. This initiative represents a significant development in the expansion of the nuclear energy sector, emphasizing the importance of a robust regulatory framework and collaboration among public and private entities, academia, and industry to enhance the nuclear energy scenario in the country. By fostering participation from diverse sectors, the act seeks to advance India's nuclear energy goals and capabilities.
What is the primary environmental stressor for mangrove ecosystems mentioned in the passage?- a)Reduced salinity levels
- b)Hypercapnic hypoxia
- c)Increase in oxygen availability
- d)Decline in CO₂ levels
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary environmental stressor for mangrove ecosystems mentioned in the passage?
a)
Reduced salinity levels
b)
Hypercapnic hypoxia
c)
Increase in oxygen availability
d)
Decline in CO₂ levels
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
The primary environmental stressor for mangrove ecosystems mentioned in the passage is hypercapnic hypoxia, which is characterized by elevated levels of carbon dioxide (CO₂) and reduced oxygen availability. This condition poses a significant threat to the health and biodiversity of mangrove ecosystems, particularly impacting fish nurseries and habitat quality for various species. Hypercapnic hypoxia is influenced by rising CO₂ levels due to climate change and increased temperatures, emphasizing the critical importance of understanding and addressing this phenomenon for the preservation of mangrove ecosystems and the communities that depend on them.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
Women's voter turnout in India has significantly increased, nearing parity with men.
Statement-II:
Despite increased voter participation, women's representation in Parliament remains low.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Women's voter turnout in India has significantly increased, nearing parity with men.
Statement-II:
Despite increased voter participation, women's representation in Parliament remains low.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Women's voter turnout in India has significantly increased, nearing parity with men.
Statement-II:
Despite increased voter participation, women's representation in Parliament remains low.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
| | Divey Sethi answered |
Both statements are correct based on the information provided. Statement-I highlights the increased voter turnout of women in India, which has nearly reached parity with men. Statement-II correctly points out that despite this increased participation, women's representation in Parliament remains low. The lower representation of women in Parliament despite their active electoral participation is a critical issue that needs to be addressed to achieve true gender equality in political engagement. Thus, Statement-II explains the significance of Statement-I in the context of women's political participation in India.
What is the primary reason behind India's current shortage of LPG supply?- a)Inadequate long-term storage reserves
- b)Decrease in LPG consumption
- c)Lack of demand from low-income households
- d)Insufficient imports from the United States
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary reason behind India's current shortage of LPG supply?
a)
Inadequate long-term storage reserves
b)
Decrease in LPG consumption
c)
Lack of demand from low-income households
d)
Insufficient imports from the United States
 | T.S Academy answered |
The shortage of LPG supply in India is primarily due to the lack of adequate long-term storage reserves. This situation has arisen because of the significant increase in LPG consumption, especially among low-income households, which has not been matched with sufficient stockpiling capabilities. Inadequate storage reserves have made India's LPG supply vulnerable to disruptions, as most of the imports transit through the vulnerable Strait of Hormuz. Establishing proper long-term storage facilities is crucial to ensuring a stable and secure LPG supply in the country.
Why is algorithmic sovereignty a crucial consideration for India, particularly in the context of recent events involving maritime incidents and global AI systems?- a)To ensure dominance in international maritime law interpretations
- b)To address systemic biases in AI reflecting Western perspectives
- c)To prioritize legal and humanitarian obligations effectively
- d)To enhance India's strategic partnership with the U.S.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Why is algorithmic sovereignty a crucial consideration for India, particularly in the context of recent events involving maritime incidents and global AI systems?
a)
To ensure dominance in international maritime law interpretations
b)
To address systemic biases in AI reflecting Western perspectives
c)
To prioritize legal and humanitarian obligations effectively
d)
To enhance India's strategic partnership with the U.S.
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Algorithmic sovereignty holds significant importance for India as it ensures that the country's legal and humanitarian obligations are respected. With the increasing use of AI systems in various sectors, including the military, it becomes crucial for India to prioritize its own sovereignty in algorithmic decision-making to uphold legal interpretations and strategic choices without being dominated by external influences.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Supreme Court's decision on paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers and related policies:1. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 - Originally provided 26 weeks of paid leave for biological mothers2. Supreme Court Judgment - Removed the age limit of three months for adoptive mothers3. Supreme Court's Observations - Called for a formal legal framework for paternity leave4. Previous Provisions - Allowed 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers regardless of the child's ageHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Supreme Court's decision on paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers and related policies:
1. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 - Originally provided 26 weeks of paid leave for biological mothers
2. Supreme Court Judgment - Removed the age limit of three months for adoptive mothers
3. Supreme Court's Observations - Called for a formal legal framework for paternity leave
4. Previous Provisions - Allowed 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers regardless of the child's age
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Valor Academy answered |
1. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 - Originally provided 26 weeks of paid leave for biological mothers: Incorrect. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 originally provided 12 weeks of paid leave for biological mothers. It was amended in 2017 to increase the leave to 26 weeks.
2. Supreme Court Judgment - Removed the age limit of three months for adoptive mothers: Correct. The Supreme Court judgment deemed the previous age limit of three months for adoptive mothers as discriminatory and removed it.
3. Supreme Court's Observations - Called for a formal legal framework for paternity leave: Correct. The Supreme Court's observations in the judgment called for a formal legal framework for paternity leave to address gender disparities in caregiving roles.
4. Previous Provisions - Allowed 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for adoptive mothers regardless of the child's age: Incorrect. The previous provisions allowed 12 weeks of paid maternity leave but only if the adopted child was below the age of three months, which has now been nullified by the Supreme Court.
Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
What does the term "Fiscal Federalism" refer to in the context of India's governance system?- a)The distribution of financial powers and responsibilities in a centralized system
- b)The allocation of resources by the Finance Ministry to state governments
- c)The sharing of tax revenues between the central and state governments in a federal setup
- d)The implementation of a flat tax rate across all states
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the term "Fiscal Federalism" refer to in the context of India's governance system?
a)
The distribution of financial powers and responsibilities in a centralized system
b)
The allocation of resources by the Finance Ministry to state governments
c)
The sharing of tax revenues between the central and state governments in a federal setup
d)
The implementation of a flat tax rate across all states
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Fiscal Federalism in India pertains to the sharing of tax revenues between the central government and the state governments in a federal system. It determines how financial powers and responsibilities are divided between these entities, influencing the overall financial framework of the country.
I hope this question helps in assessing the understanding of Fiscal Federalism in India's governance system.
What is the primary goal of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?- a)To promote the use of nuclear energy for military purposes
- b)To facilitate the global spread of nuclear weapons
- c)To ensure the safe and peaceful use of nuclear technology
- d)To develop nuclear weapons for member states
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
a)
To promote the use of nuclear energy for military purposes
b)
To facilitate the global spread of nuclear weapons
c)
To ensure the safe and peaceful use of nuclear technology
d)
To develop nuclear weapons for member states
 | EduRev UPSC answered |
The primary goal of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is to ensure the safe and peaceful use of nuclear technology. This includes advocating for the safe utilization of nuclear energy and establishing standards to maintain safety in nuclear operations. By focusing on preventing the diversion of nuclear energy for weapons purposes, the IAEA plays a crucial role in promoting international nuclear non-proliferation efforts.
Consider the following statements regarding the Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking (IVFRT) Scheme:1. The IVFRT scheme is designed to integrate and streamline immigration and visa issuance processes in India.2. The scheme includes the establishment of new All-India Institutes of Ayurveda for research and development.3. The latest approval of the IVFRT scheme aligns with the newly enacted Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking (IVFRT) Scheme:
1. The IVFRT scheme is designed to integrate and streamline immigration and visa issuance processes in India.
2. The scheme includes the establishment of new All-India Institutes of Ayurveda for research and development.
3. The latest approval of the IVFRT scheme aligns with the newly enacted Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The IVFRT scheme indeed aims to integrate and streamline immigration and visa issuance processes in India. This is one of the primary objectives of the scheme, ensuring efficient and effective management of immigration-related processes.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The establishment of new All-India Institutes of Ayurveda is not related to the IVFRT scheme. This statement pertains to the expansion of Ayurveda and traditional medicine in India, which is a separate initiative under the Ministry of AYUSH, not the IVFRT scheme.
- Statement 3 is correct. The latest approval of the IVFRT scheme aligns with the newly enacted Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025. This alignment is part of the effort to modernize and enhance India's immigration and visa framework.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the right choice.
What is the primary concern raised by the concept of a "double-engine sarkar" in the context of India's federal structure?- a)It encourages competition among different political parties at the state and national levels.
- b)It suggests that political alignment between the Centre and States enhances governance efficiency.
- c)It guarantees resource allocation based on the population of each state.
- d)It promotes equal representation in governance across all states.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary concern raised by the concept of a "double-engine sarkar" in the context of India's federal structure?
a)
It encourages competition among different political parties at the state and national levels.
b)
It suggests that political alignment between the Centre and States enhances governance efficiency.
c)
It guarantees resource allocation based on the population of each state.
d)
It promotes equal representation in governance across all states.
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
The phrase "double-engine sarkar" implies that governance is perceived as more effective when the same political party controls both the Union and State governments. This raises significant concerns about India's federal structure, as it suggests that states led by different political parties may be disadvantaged. The concept promotes the idea that political cooperation between the two levels can lead to better decision-making and development, potentially undermining the principles of equal governance and impartial resource distribution mandated by the Constitution. This notion could distort electoral choices and threaten the essence of India's federal democracy. An interesting fact is that the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in ensuring fair distribution of resources among states, countering any potential bias stemming from political alignment.
What is the primary resource for the Reserve Bank of India to manage currency fluctuations as mentioned in the text?- a)Gold Holdings
- b)Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
- c)Foreign Currency (FX) Assets
- d)Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary resource for the Reserve Bank of India to manage currency fluctuations as mentioned in the text?
a)
Gold Holdings
b)
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
c)
Foreign Currency (FX) Assets
d)
Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF
| | EduRev UPSC answered |
Foreign Currency (FX) Assets are valued resources that are crucial for the Reserve Bank of India to manage currency fluctuations effectively. These assets, valued at $556 billion, play a significant role in the short-term defense of the rupee. The management of these assets is pivotal in stabilizing the currency market and ensuring economic stability.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking (IVFRT) Scheme:1. IVFRT Scheme - Approved in 20102. IVFRT Scheme extension - 2026 to 20313. Immigration and Foreigners Act - Enacted in 20204. Modernization Efforts - Include self-service kiosks and mobile-based servicesHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking (IVFRT) Scheme:
1. IVFRT Scheme - Approved in 2010
2. IVFRT Scheme extension - 2026 to 2031
3. Immigration and Foreigners Act - Enacted in 2020
4. Modernization Efforts - Include self-service kiosks and mobile-based services
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
1. IVFRT Scheme - Approved in 2010: This is correctly matched. The IVFRT Scheme was initially approved in 2010 to enhance India's immigration and visa processes.
2. IVFRT Scheme extension - 2026 to 2031: This is correctly matched. The Union cabinet has approved the continuation of the IVFRT Scheme from 2026 to 2031.
3. Immigration and Foreigners Act - Enacted in 2020: This is incorrectly matched. The Immigration and Foreigners Act was enacted in 2025, not 2020.
4. Modernization Efforts - Include self-service kiosks and mobile-based services: This is correctly matched. The IVFRT Scheme includes modernization efforts like incorporating mobile-based services and self-service kiosks.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 2, and 4.
Consider the following statements:1. The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was established to prevent the misappropriation of Indian traditional knowledge by ensuring that patents are not wrongfully granted on such knowledge.2. Lenacapavir is a long-acting injectable drug given once a year for HIV prevention, reducing the need for daily oral medication.3. The Supreme Court of India's intervention regarding NCERT textbooks underscores the importance of maintaining institutional credibility and public trust as essential components of constitutional governance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was established to prevent the misappropriation of Indian traditional knowledge by ensuring that patents are not wrongfully granted on such knowledge.
2. Lenacapavir is a long-acting injectable drug given once a year for HIV prevention, reducing the need for daily oral medication.
3. The Supreme Court of India's intervention regarding NCERT textbooks underscores the importance of maintaining institutional credibility and public trust as essential components of constitutional governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | BT Educators answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) was indeed established to safeguard Indian traditional knowledge from being misappropriated through wrongful patenting. It serves as a repository to prevent undue patent claims on traditional knowledge that is already in the public domain.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Lenacapavir is a long-acting injectable drug, but it is administered twice a year, not once a year, for HIV prevention. This biannual administration helps improve adherence compared to daily oral pills.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court's intervention in the matter of NCERT textbooks highlights the necessity of ensuring public trust and credibility of institutions, which are vital for constitutional governance. The Court's action illustrates its role in safeguarding the dignity and reputation of public institutions, emphasizing the significance of public confidence.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B
What is the core objective of the 'Prahaar' counter-terrorism policy recently launched by the Indian government?- a)To target only terrorists without addressing their financiers and supporters
- b)To criminalize all terrorist acts and starve extremists of resources
- c)To justify terrorism based on specific religious or ethnic affiliations
- d)To support state sponsorship of terrorism as a tool of foreign policy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the core objective of the 'Prahaar' counter-terrorism policy recently launched by the Indian government?
a)
To target only terrorists without addressing their financiers and supporters
b)
To criminalize all terrorist acts and starve extremists of resources
c)
To justify terrorism based on specific religious or ethnic affiliations
d)
To support state sponsorship of terrorism as a tool of foreign policy
| | Valor Academy answered |
The core objective of the 'Prahaar' counter-terrorism policy is to criminalize all terrorist acts and starve extremists of resources. This policy aims at dismantling terror networks by cutting off access to funding, weapons, and safe havens, emphasizing a zero-tolerance approach towards terrorism and its supporters. By criminalizing terrorist activities and targeting their resources, the policy seeks to enhance national security and prevent extremist activities.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India and Brazil signed a Memorandum of Understanding on rare earths and critical minerals in February 2026 to strengthen strategic resource ties.
Statement-II:
The International Energy Agency (IEA) recognized India's progress towards full membership during a recent ministerial meeting in Paris.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India and Brazil signed a Memorandum of Understanding on rare earths and critical minerals in February 2026 to strengthen strategic resource ties.
Statement-II:
The International Energy Agency (IEA) recognized India's progress towards full membership during a recent ministerial meeting in Paris.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
India and Brazil signed a Memorandum of Understanding on rare earths and critical minerals in February 2026 to strengthen strategic resource ties.
Statement-II:
The International Energy Agency (IEA) recognized India's progress towards full membership during a recent ministerial meeting in Paris.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
| | T.S Academy answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the signing of the India-Brazil MoU on rare earths and critical minerals in February 2026. Statement-II accurately mentions the recent recognition by the International Energy Agency (IEA) of India's progress towards full membership during a ministerial meeting in Paris. However, these two statements represent distinct events and do not have a direct explanatory relationship, making option (b) the correct choice.
What is the key focus of the India–Finland Strategic Partnership as highlighted in recent discussions between the Indian Prime Minister and the Finnish President?- a)Emphasis on traditional agricultural practices
- b)Collaboration in space exploration initiatives
- c)Focus on digitalisation and sustainability
- d)Promotion of cultural exchanges
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the key focus of the India–Finland Strategic Partnership as highlighted in recent discussions between the Indian Prime Minister and the Finnish President?
a)
Emphasis on traditional agricultural practices
b)
Collaboration in space exploration initiatives
c)
Focus on digitalisation and sustainability
d)
Promotion of cultural exchanges
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
The India–Finland Strategic Partnership primarily focuses on digitalisation and sustainability, aiming to leverage Finland's expertise in areas like Artificial Intelligence and circular economy. This partnership aims to strengthen bilateral trade and contribute to a rules-based international order by merging technological capabilities with market opportunities.
What is the primary reason behind the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) shifting the base year for GDP calculations to 2022-23?- a)To inflate the nominal GDP estimates
- b)To align with international standards for GDP calculation
- c)To accommodate structural economic changes and data improvements
- d)To decrease the fiscal deficit ratios
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary reason behind the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) shifting the base year for GDP calculations to 2022-23?
a)
To inflate the nominal GDP estimates
b)
To align with international standards for GDP calculation
c)
To accommodate structural economic changes and data improvements
d)
To decrease the fiscal deficit ratios
| | Lohit Matani answered |
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) shifted the base year for GDP calculations to 2022-23 primarily to accommodate structural economic changes and data improvements. This practice, known as GDP rebasing, aims to enhance the accuracy of economic indicators by incorporating updated methodologies and reflecting the evolving economic landscape. By adopting a new base year, the revised GDP series intends to provide a more refined and representative perspective of the Indian economy's performance.
Consider the following pairs regarding the recent changes in India's GDP calculations:1. Base Year Change - 2022-232. Revised Nominal GDP for 2025-26 - Rs. 345 lakh crore3. Expected Fiscal Deficit Ratio for 2025-26 - 4.4% of GDP4. Debt-to-GDP Ratio for 2025-26 - 58.1%How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the recent changes in India's GDP calculations:
1. Base Year Change - 2022-23
2. Revised Nominal GDP for 2025-26 - Rs. 345 lakh crore
3. Expected Fiscal Deficit Ratio for 2025-26 - 4.4% of GDP
4. Debt-to-GDP Ratio for 2025-26 - 58.1%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
1. Base Year Change - 2022-23: This pair is correctly matched. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has indeed set the base year for GDP calculations as 2022-23.
2. Revised Nominal GDP for 2025-26 - Rs. 345 lakh crore: This pair is correctly matched. The revised nominal GDP for 2025-26 is estimated at Rs. 345 lakh crore, which represents a downward revision of about 3.3% from earlier predictions.
3. Expected Fiscal Deficit Ratio for 2025-26 - 4.4% of GDP: This pair is incorrectly matched. The fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is now expected to be 4.5% of GDP, not 4.4%.
4. Debt-to-GDP Ratio for 2025-26 - 58.1%: This pair is correctly matched. The revision in nominal GDP is expected to raise the debt-to-GDP ratio to 58.1% by 2025-26.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 2, and 4.
Consider the following pairs related to environmental concerns and economic changes in India:1. Extreme Weather Events (2025): Himachal Pradesh - 267 days2. Agriculture Sector Growth: Share in GDP (2022-23) - 18.2%3. Tiger Attacks (2025): Reported Fatalities - 434. Cassava Brown Streak Disease: Spread by - Bemisia tabaciHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to environmental concerns and economic changes in India:
1. Extreme Weather Events (2025): Himachal Pradesh - 267 days
2. Agriculture Sector Growth: Share in GDP (2022-23) - 18.2%
3. Tiger Attacks (2025): Reported Fatalities - 43
4. Cassava Brown Streak Disease: Spread by - Bemisia tabaci
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. Extreme Weather Events (2025): Himachal Pradesh - 267 days
This pair is correctly matched. In 2025, Himachal Pradesh indeed experienced 267 days of extreme weather events, as highlighted in the CSE report.
This pair is correctly matched. In 2025, Himachal Pradesh indeed experienced 267 days of extreme weather events, as highlighted in the CSE report.
2. Agriculture Sector Growth: Share in GDP (2022-23) - 18.2%
This pair is correctly matched. The new GDP series reflects that the agriculture sector's share in GDP for 2022-23 is 18.2%, up from 16.5% in the old series.
This pair is correctly matched. The new GDP series reflects that the agriculture sector's share in GDP for 2022-23 is 18.2%, up from 16.5% in the old series.
3. Tiger Attacks (2025): Reported Fatalities - 43
This pair is correctly matched. The report states that there were 43 fatalities due to tiger attacks in the first half of 2025, attributed to habitat pressures and human-tiger proximity.
This pair is correctly matched. The report states that there were 43 fatalities due to tiger attacks in the first half of 2025, attributed to habitat pressures and human-tiger proximity.
4. Cassava Brown Streak Disease: Spread by - Bemisia tabaci
This pair is correctly matched. Cassava Brown Streak Disease is indeed spread by the whitefly, Bemisia tabaci, which is a significant vector for the disease.
This pair is correctly matched. Cassava Brown Streak Disease is indeed spread by the whitefly, Bemisia tabaci, which is a significant vector for the disease.
All four pairs are correctly matched, making Option D the correct answer.
What is the primary mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in India?- a)To enforce strict penalties on industries for energy wastage
- b)To develop policies promoting self-regulation and market principles to reduce energy intensity
- c)To solely focus on renewable energy sources
- d)To regulate energy prices in the market
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in India?
a)
To enforce strict penalties on industries for energy wastage
b)
To develop policies promoting self-regulation and market principles to reduce energy intensity
c)
To solely focus on renewable energy sources
d)
To regulate energy prices in the market
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) aims to develop policies and strategies that encourage self-regulation and market principles to reduce the energy intensity of the Indian economy. This mission encompasses engaging various stakeholders to promote the adoption of energy efficiency across all sectors. The BEE's initiatives, such as the Standards and Labelling Scheme and the Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) mechanism, are key components of its strategy to foster energy conservation and efficiency.
Consider the following statements regarding Qeshm Island:1. Qeshm Island is the largest island in the Persian Gulf and lies near the Straits of Hormuz.2. The island is approximately 2.5 times larger than Bahrain Island, the second-largest island in the Persian Gulf.3. Qeshm Island experiences a temperate climate, which is atypical for the Persian Gulf region.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Qeshm Island:
1. Qeshm Island is the largest island in the Persian Gulf and lies near the Straits of Hormuz.
2. The island is approximately 2.5 times larger than Bahrain Island, the second-largest island in the Persian Gulf.
3. Qeshm Island experiences a temperate climate, which is atypical for the Persian Gulf region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Divey Sethi answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. Qeshm Island is indeed the largest island in the Persian Gulf, and it is located near the Straits of Hormuz, which are critical for international shipping routes and global energy supplies.
- Statement 2 is correct. The island is noted for being approximately 2.5 times larger than Bahrain Island, which is recognized as the second-largest island in the Persian Gulf. This comparison highlights Qeshm's significant geographical size within the region.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Qeshm Island experiences a hot and arid climate, which is typical for the Persian Gulf region, rather than a temperate climate. The Persian Gulf region is known for its extreme temperatures and arid conditions, and Qeshm is no exception.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.
Consider the following statements:1. The efficiency of induction cooktops in electric cooking is significantly higher than that of conventional LPG burners.2. The transition to electric cooking does not pose any challenge to India’s grid capacity and electricity demand.3. India imports approximately 60% of its LPG, making households vulnerable to price fluctuations.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The efficiency of induction cooktops in electric cooking is significantly higher than that of conventional LPG burners.
2. The transition to electric cooking does not pose any challenge to India’s grid capacity and electricity demand.
3. India imports approximately 60% of its LPG, making households vulnerable to price fluctuations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Lohit Matani answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. Induction cooktops have an efficiency of about 85%, which is significantly higher than the 40% efficiency of conventional LPG burners. This indicates a clear advantage in terms of energy efficiency for electric cooking over traditional LPG cooking methods.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The transition to electric cooking does pose challenges to India’s grid capacity and electricity demand. As mentioned, the peak electricity demand in India has surged, necessitating innovative solutions to manage the increased load on the grid, such as automated demand response systems and rooftop solar energy implementation. These challenges highlight the complexities involved in transitioning to electric cooking at scale.
3. Statement 3 is correct. India imports about 60% of its LPG, which exposes households to price fluctuations, thereby posing affordability and sustainability challenges. This dependency on imports makes the shift toward electric cooking a more economically viable and stable option in terms of reducing vulnerability to global price changes.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sarhul Festival:1. The Sarhul festival celebrates the worship of the Sal tree and is deeply connected to nature worship.2. The festival is primarily celebrated by the Adivasi communities such as the Oraon, Munda, and Santal.3. During the Sarhul festival, the male priest (pahan) represents the Earth, while his wife (pahen) symbolizes the Sun.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Sarhul Festival:
1. The Sarhul festival celebrates the worship of the Sal tree and is deeply connected to nature worship.
2. The festival is primarily celebrated by the Adivasi communities such as the Oraon, Munda, and Santal.
3. During the Sarhul festival, the male priest (pahan) represents the Earth, while his wife (pahen) symbolizes the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Academic Studio answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The Sarhul festival indeed celebrates the worship of the Sal tree and is deeply connected to nature worship, symbolizing the union and renewal of life through the elements of nature, particularly the Sun and the Earth.
Statement 2 is correct. The festival is celebrated by several Adivasi communities, notably the Oraon, Munda, and Santal, among others. Each of these communities has unique traditions associated with the festival, but the core elements of celebrating nature and community remain consistent.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The roles in the Sarhul festival are symbolically significant, with the male priest (pahan) representing the Sun and his wife (pahen) symbolizing the Earth, not the other way around. This symbolizes the union and connection necessary for sustaining life, highlighting the interaction between sunlight and the earth.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs regarding women's political participation in India and the role of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:1. Women's Voter Turnout: The gender gap in voter turnout narrowed from over 11 percentage points in 1967 to nearly zero in recent elections.2. Women in Parliament: The number of women MPs rose from 22 in 1952 to 78 in 2019, constituting about 33% of the Lok Sabha.3. Removal of Speaker: The Speaker can be removed only through a resolution that requires a majority of the total Lok Sabha membership.4. No-confidence Motions: There have been more than ten instances of no-confidence motions against the Speaker, all of which failed.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding women's political participation in India and the role of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1. Women's Voter Turnout: The gender gap in voter turnout narrowed from over 11 percentage points in 1967 to nearly zero in recent elections.
2. Women in Parliament: The number of women MPs rose from 22 in 1952 to 78 in 2019, constituting about 33% of the Lok Sabha.
3. Removal of Speaker: The Speaker can be removed only through a resolution that requires a majority of the total Lok Sabha membership.
4. No-confidence Motions: There have been more than ten instances of no-confidence motions against the Speaker, all of which failed.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Divey Sethi answered |
1. Women's Voter Turnout: This pair is correctly matched. The gender gap in voter turnout has indeed narrowed significantly from over 11 percentage points in 1967 to nearly zero in recent elections, highlighting an increase in women's electoral participation.
2. Women in Parliament: This pair is incorrectly matched. While the number of women MPs has indeed increased, reaching 78 in 2019, they constitute only about 14% of the Lok Sabha, not 33%.
3. Removal of Speaker: This pair is correctly matched. The Speaker can indeed be removed only through a resolution requiring a majority of the total Lok Sabha membership, which ensures the stability and protection of the office from political pressures.
4. No-confidence Motions: This pair is incorrectly matched. Historically, there have been only three instances of no-confidence motions against the Speaker, not more than ten, and all of them failed, highlighting the procedural difficulty in such removals.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The RELIEF initiative launched by the Government of India provides support for Indian exporters affected by maritime disruptions in West Asia, including enhanced risk coverage and financial assistance for both past and prospective shipments.
Statement-II:
India's climate adaptation strategies are primarily focused on water governance and policy alignment to address climate change impacts, especially related to water scarcity and sanitation systems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The RELIEF initiative launched by the Government of India provides support for Indian exporters affected by maritime disruptions in West Asia, including enhanced risk coverage and financial assistance for both past and prospective shipments.
Statement-II:
India's climate adaptation strategies are primarily focused on water governance and policy alignment to address climate change impacts, especially related to water scarcity and sanitation systems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The RELIEF initiative launched by the Government of India provides support for Indian exporters affected by maritime disruptions in West Asia, including enhanced risk coverage and financial assistance for both past and prospective shipments.
Statement-II:
India's climate adaptation strategies are primarily focused on water governance and policy alignment to address climate change impacts, especially related to water scarcity and sanitation systems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
| | Valor Academy answered |
Statement-I correctly describes the key features of the RELIEF initiative launched by the Government of India to support exporters facing maritime disruptions in West Asia. It mentions the enhanced risk coverage and financial assistance provided by the initiative.
Statement-II correctly highlights India's focus on water governance and policy alignment in its climate adaptation strategies, particularly concerning water scarcity and sanitation systems. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to the content of Statement-I, making option (b) the correct choice.
What is a key advantage of electric cooking over traditional LPG-based cooking, as highlighted in the text?- a)Electric cooking is more environmentally friendly
- b)Electric cooking is more expensive than LPG
- c)Electric cooking has lower efficiency than LPG
- d)Electric cooking requires more maintenance
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a key advantage of electric cooking over traditional LPG-based cooking, as highlighted in the text?
a)
Electric cooking is more environmentally friendly
b)
Electric cooking is more expensive than LPG
c)
Electric cooking has lower efficiency than LPG
d)
Electric cooking requires more maintenance
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
Electric cooking offers better energy efficiency and is more environmentally friendly compared to traditional LPG-based cooking methods. This advantage is crucial in the context of sustainable energy consumption and reducing environmental impact.
What is the primary objective of the RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) scheme recently launched by the Government of India?- a)To provide financial assistance for all Indian exporters.
- b)To address challenges faced by exporters due to maritime disruptions in West Asia.
- c)To offer tax exemptions to exporters affected by conflicts.
- d)To promote local businesses in the maritime corridor.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) scheme recently launched by the Government of India?
a)
To provide financial assistance for all Indian exporters.
b)
To address challenges faced by exporters due to maritime disruptions in West Asia.
c)
To offer tax exemptions to exporters affected by conflicts.
d)
To promote local businesses in the maritime corridor.
 | Ias Masters answered |
The primary objective of the RELIEF initiative is to assist exporters who are experiencing significant maritime disruptions in West Asia by addressing challenges such as rising freight costs, increased insurance premiums, and war-related export risks. This scheme aims to provide targeted support for Indian exporters affected by extraordinary circumstances in the region, ensuring comprehensive assistance for those facing challenges in the Gulf and broader West Asia maritime corridor.
Consider the following pairs:1. Strait of Hormuz - Major oil transit route for over 20% of global oil.2. India's Oil Import Dependence - Over 70% of crude oil is imported by India.3. Mojtaba Khamenei - New Supreme Leader of Iran.4. Spain's Menstrual Leave Law - Enacted in 2023 allowing 3-5 days leave.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Strait of Hormuz - Major oil transit route for over 20% of global oil.
2. India's Oil Import Dependence - Over 70% of crude oil is imported by India.
3. Mojtaba Khamenei - New Supreme Leader of Iran.
4. Spain's Menstrual Leave Law - Enacted in 2023 allowing 3-5 days leave.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Innovative Classes answered |
1. Strait of Hormuz - Major oil transit route for over 20% of global oil: Correctly matched. The Strait of Hormuz is indeed a critical transit chokepoint, handling a significant portion of the world's oil supply, estimated to be over 20%.
2. India's Oil Import Dependence - Over 70% of crude oil is imported by India: Incorrectly matched. India's oil import dependence is over 88%, not just over 70%. This makes India highly vulnerable to fluctuations in global oil prices.
3. Mojtaba Khamenei - New Supreme Leader of Iran: Correctly matched. The appointment of Mojtaba Khamenei as Iran's new Supreme Leader has contributed to heightened geopolitical tensions, affecting oil prices.
4. Spain's Menstrual Leave Law - Enacted in 2023 allowing 3-5 days leave: Correctly matched. Spain introduced a law in 2023 that allows for 3-5 days of menstrual leave, reflecting a policy aimed at addressing menstrual health issues.
Three out of the four pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs related to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):1. Headquarters - Vienna, Austria2. General Conference - Comprises 35 members3. Primary Goal - Prevention of nuclear energy diversion for weapons4. Secretariat - Led by the Board of GovernorsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
1. Headquarters - Vienna, Austria
2. General Conference - Comprises 35 members
3. Primary Goal - Prevention of nuclear energy diversion for weapons
4. Secretariat - Led by the Board of Governors
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | BT Educators answered |
1. Headquarters - Vienna, Austria: Correct. The IAEA is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
2. General Conference - Comprises 35 members: Incorrect. The General Conference consists of all member states of the IAEA, not just 35 members. The Board of Governors is the body with 35 members.
3. Primary Goal - Prevention of nuclear energy diversion for weapons: Correct. The IAEA's primary goal is indeed to prevent the diversion of nuclear energy for weapons purposes.
4. Secretariat - Led by the Board of Governors: Incorrect. The Secretariat is led by the Director General, not the Board of Governors. The Director General manages the daily operations of the IAEA.
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
What is the significance of the Sarhul festival celebrated by various Adivasi communities in India?- a)It signifies the worship of the Peepal tree and the renewal of life.
- b)It symbolizes the union of the Moon and the Earth, emphasizing their connection.
- c)It represents the worship of the Sal tree and the renewal of life.
- d)It commemorates the victory of good over evil in Adivasi mythology.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of the Sarhul festival celebrated by various Adivasi communities in India?
a)
It signifies the worship of the Peepal tree and the renewal of life.
b)
It symbolizes the union of the Moon and the Earth, emphasizing their connection.
c)
It represents the worship of the Sal tree and the renewal of life.
d)
It commemorates the victory of good over evil in Adivasi mythology.
| | Academic Studio answered |
The Sarhul festival celebrated by various Adivasi communities in India holds immense significance as it represents the worship of the Sal tree and the renewal of life. This cultural event showcases the deep connection between nature, the Sun, and the Earth, emphasizing their importance in sustaining life. The festival, celebrated over three days with distinct rituals and community activities, serves as a reminder of the intrinsic bond between the Adivasi communities and their environment, underlining the significance of nature in their cultural identity.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. RELIEF Initiative - Correctly matched. The RELIEF Initiative is indeed launched to support exporters amid maritime disruptions in West Asia, addressing issues like rising freight costs and insurance premiums.
2. Enhanced Risk Coverage - Correctly matched. The initiative offers up to 95% risk coverage for shipments scheduled between 16 March and 15 June 2026, aiming to boost exporter confidence during disruptions.
3. MSME Reimbursement - Correctly matched. The RELIEF Initiative provides reimbursement for uninsured MSME exporters up to 50%, with a cap of ₹50 lakh per exporter, for extraordinary freight and insurance surcharges.
4. Belém Adaptation Indicators - Incorrectly matched. These indicators were developed at the COP30 conference held in Belém, Brazil, as part of climate resilience initiatives, not under the UAE Framework for Global Climate Resilience.
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-US trade dispute and its impacts:1. The United States has initiated Section 301 investigations against India, which could lead to retaliatory tariffs on Indian exports if unfair trade practices are confirmed.2. One of the focus areas of the investigation is the excess manufacturing capacity in Indian industries, such as solar modules and textiles.3. The Supreme Court of India recently ruled to reduce the existing reciprocal tariffs imposed by the United States on Indian imports from 25% to 10%.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-US trade dispute and its impacts:
1. The United States has initiated Section 301 investigations against India, which could lead to retaliatory tariffs on Indian exports if unfair trade practices are confirmed.
2. One of the focus areas of the investigation is the excess manufacturing capacity in Indian industries, such as solar modules and textiles.
3. The Supreme Court of India recently ruled to reduce the existing reciprocal tariffs imposed by the United States on Indian imports from 25% to 10%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | T.S Academy answered |
- Statement 1: Correct. The United States has indeed initiated Section 301 investigations against India. This provision allows the U.S. to investigate foreign trade practices deemed unfair, and if confirmed, it could lead to retaliatory tariffs on Indian exports. Hence, this statement is accurate.
- Statement 2: Correct. One of the focus areas of the ongoing investigation is the excess manufacturing capacity in specific sectors, including solar modules and textiles. Therefore, this statement is also correct.
- Statement 3: Incorrect. The statement misrepresents the situation. While there have been changes in tariffs, the Supreme Court of India does not have jurisdiction over U.S. tariffs. The decision to impose a temporary 10% tariff on all imports is related to a Supreme Court ruling, but it does not mention reducing tariffs imposed by the U.S. on Indian imports. Thus, this statement is not accurate.
Since statements 1 and 2 are correct, the answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sahitya Akademi Awards:1. The Sahitya Akademi Award is the highest literary honor in India, established to promote the country's linguistic diversity.2. The award is conferred in 24 languages, including the 22 languages from the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.3. The awards include a cash prize of Rs 1,00,000, which has increased from its initial value of Rs 5,000 in 1955.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Sahitya Akademi Awards:
1. The Sahitya Akademi Award is the highest literary honor in India, established to promote the country's linguistic diversity.
2. The award is conferred in 24 languages, including the 22 languages from the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
3. The awards include a cash prize of Rs 1,00,000, which has increased from its initial value of Rs 5,000 in 1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
| | Upsc Toppers answered |
- Statement 1: The Sahitya Akademi Award is not the highest literary honor in India; it is the second-highest literary honor. The highest is the Jnanpith Award. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
- Statement 2: The award is indeed conferred in 24 languages, which includes the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution along with English and Rajasthani. This statement is correct.
- Statement 3: The prize money for the Sahitya Akademi Award is Rs 1,00,000, which has been increased from its original value of Rs 5,000 in 1955. This statement is correct.
Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option D the correct answer.
What does the National AI Skilling Initiative primarily aim to enhance?- a)Gaming and media technology skills
- b)Artificial intelligence capabilities in creative sectors
- c)Robotics and automation proficiency
- d)Cybersecurity expertise
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the National AI Skilling Initiative primarily aim to enhance?
a)
Gaming and media technology skills
b)
Artificial intelligence capabilities in creative sectors
c)
Robotics and automation proficiency
d)
Cybersecurity expertise
| | Future Foundation Institute answered |
The National AI Skilling Initiative is focused on bolstering artificial intelligence capabilities in various creative sectors like animation, visual effects, gaming, comics (AVGC), and media technology. By providing training in foundational AI learning and advanced specialization, the initiative aims to equip individuals in these industries with the skills necessary for future readiness in the evolving digital landscape.
Consider the following pairs related to India's federal structure and judicial ethics:
1. Double-Engine Concept - Suggests governance efficiency through political alignment at both Union and State levels.
2. Finance Commission - Established under Article 280 to ensure equitable resource distribution between Union and States.
3. Doctrine of Recusal - Based on the principle "Nemo judex in causa sua," preventing judges from presiding over cases where they have an interest.
4. NJAC Precedent - Related to the appointment of Governors in Indian States.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to India's federal structure and judicial ethics:
1. Double-Engine Concept - Suggests governance efficiency through political alignment at both Union and State levels.
2. Finance Commission - Established under Article 280 to ensure equitable resource distribution between Union and States.
3. Doctrine of Recusal - Based on the principle "Nemo judex in causa sua," preventing judges from presiding over cases where they have an interest.
4. NJAC Precedent - Related to the appointment of Governors in Indian States.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Double-Engine Concept - Suggests governance efficiency through political alignment at both Union and State levels.
2. Finance Commission - Established under Article 280 to ensure equitable resource distribution between Union and States.
3. Doctrine of Recusal - Based on the principle "Nemo judex in causa sua," preventing judges from presiding over cases where they have an interest.
4. NJAC Precedent - Related to the appointment of Governors in Indian States.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Ias Masters answered |
1. Double-Engine Concept: This is correctly matched. The concept promotes governance efficiency by suggesting that political alignment at both Union and State levels leads to better decision-making and development.
2. Finance Commission: This is correctly matched. The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, is responsible for recommending how Union revenues should be distributed among the States, ensuring fair and equitable resource allocation.
3. Doctrine of Recusal: This is correctly matched. The doctrine is grounded in the legal principle "Nemo judex in causa sua," which translates to "No one shall be a judge in their own cause," ensuring impartiality in the judiciary by preventing judges from hearing cases where they might have a conflict of interest.
4. NJAC Precedent: This is incorrectly matched. The NJAC (National Judicial Appointments Commission) precedent is related to the appointments of judges to the higher judiciary, not the appointment of Governors in Indian States.
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
Consider the following pairs related to India’s Forex Reserves:1. Foreign Currency (FX) Assets - Valued at $556 billion2. Gold Holdings - Valued at $18.7 billion3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) - Valued at $4.8 billion4. Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF - Valued at $18.7 billionHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to India’s Forex Reserves:
1. Foreign Currency (FX) Assets - Valued at $556 billion
2. Gold Holdings - Valued at $18.7 billion
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) - Valued at $4.8 billion
4. Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF - Valued at $18.7 billion
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
| | Valor Academy answered |
1. Foreign Currency (FX) Assets - Valued at $556 billion: This statement is correctly matched. FX Assets are indeed the largest component, valued at $556 billion, and are crucial for managing currency fluctuations.
2. Gold Holdings - Valued at $18.7 billion: This statement is incorrectly matched. The value of Gold Holdings is not specified as $18.7 billion in the provided material; this value corresponds to SDRs.
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) - Valued at $18.7 billion: This statement is correctly matched. SDRs are indeed valued at $18.7 billion, serving as an emergency buffer.
4. Reserve Tranche Position with the IMF - Valued at $18.7 billion: This statement is incorrectly matched. The Reserve Tranche Position is valued at $4.8 billion, not $18.7 billion.
Based on the above analysis, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.
What key feature distinguishes keelback snakes from other snake species?- a)Smooth scales
- b)Forked tongue
- c)Keeled scales
- d)Fangs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What key feature distinguishes keelback snakes from other snake species?
a)
Smooth scales
b)
Forked tongue
c)
Keeled scales
d)
Fangs
| | Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Keelback snakes are distinguished by their keeled scales, which have a raised ridge along the center of each scale. This feature gives them a rough and textured skin appearance, aiding in their camouflage. Keeled scales are a characteristic trait of keelback snakes that sets them apart from other snake species.
What is the strategic significance of maintaining Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) for a country like India?- a)To regulate global oil prices
- b)To ensure long-term energy security
- c)To encourage renewable energy adoption
- d)To control oil production levels
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the strategic significance of maintaining Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) for a country like India?
a)
To regulate global oil prices
b)
To ensure long-term energy security
c)
To encourage renewable energy adoption
d)
To control oil production levels
| | Academic Studio answered |
Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) are crucial for ensuring long-term energy security by providing a buffer against supply disruptions and price shocks. Countries maintain SPRs to mitigate sudden supply disruptions and safeguard their economies during global emergencies. By having these reserves, a country like India can enhance its energy security and reduce vulnerability to prolonged supply disruptions, ensuring a stable energy supply for its population and industries.
Chapter doubts & questions for March 2026 - Weekly Current Affairs 2026 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2026 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of March 2026 - Weekly Current Affairs in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.
Weekly Current Affairs316 docs|169 tests |
