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APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - APSC CCE (Assam) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test APSC CCE Mock Test Series 2024 - APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 for APSC CCE (Assam) 2024 is part of APSC CCE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the APSC CCE (Assam) exam syllabus.The APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for APSC CCE (Assam) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 below.
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APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

With reference to ‘Old Pension Scheme’, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary.

  2. All citizens of India (including NRIs) aged between 18 - 70 years were allowed to join the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

- Statement 1: Correct. The Old Pension Scheme (OPS) provided a pension calculated as 50% of the last drawn salary of government employees. It was a defined benefit scheme where the pension amount was predetermined based on the employee's last salary.

- Statement 2: Incorrect. The OPS was specifically for government employees, not all citizens or NRIs. It was not open to the entire public.

Thus, the correct answer is C: 1 only.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

What is the primary purpose of the Revised Directions on Fraud Risk Management issued by the RBI?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

The Revised Directions on Fraud Risk Management by the RBI aim to mitigate fraud risks in financial transactions. This includes guidelines that help financial entities identify and prevent fraudulent activities, thereby protecting both the institutions and their customers from potential financial losses.

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APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Which initiative did NIT-Calicut launch to enhance data management?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

NIT-Calicut launched the 'Nivahika' Data Management Portal to enhance data management. This initiative is designed to streamline data processing and improve access to information, which is crucial for research and administrative purposes in educational institutions.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

What significant event occurred regarding Comet A117uUD in August 2024?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Comet A117uUD was ejected from the Solar System after its encounter with Saturn. This event is significant in astronomy as it illustrates the gravitational influence that massive planets can exert on comets, potentially altering their trajectories dramatically.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

Which project involves collaboration between India and the World Bank?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

The collaboration between India and the World Bank is focused on the Green National Highway Project. This initiative aims to promote sustainable infrastructure development by creating highways that minimize environmental impact, which is crucial for balancing development and ecological preservation.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

What new applications were launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to implement various schemes?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

The MHA launched the applications e-Sakshya, e-Summon, Nyaya Setu, and Nyaya Shruti to implement schemes such as BNS, BNSS, and BSA. These apps are designed to improve access to justice and streamline administrative processes, enhancing the efficiency of legal and governmental operations.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Which athlete holds the record for the most gold medals won at a single Olympic Games?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Michael Phelps holds the record for the most gold medals won at a single Olympic Games, achieving this feat at the 2008 Beijing Olympics where he won 8 gold medals. This remarkable accomplishment highlights his dominance in competitive swimming and makes him one of the most decorated Olympians in history.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

India's ranking in the Travel and Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2024 is:

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

India is ranked 39th among 119 countries in the Travel and Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2024. This ranking reflects India's growing appeal as a travel destination and highlights areas where improvements can be made to enhance traveler safety, security, and overall experience.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

What significant agricultural technology was announced during PM Modi's inauguration of the 32nd International Conference of Agricultural Economists?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

The conference focused on sustainable agri-food systems amidst climate change and resource challenges. This approach aims to promote practices that ensure food security while also addressing environmental sustainability, which is increasingly critical in today’s agricultural landscape.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

What is the main goal of installing Doppler radar in Lahaul-Spiti?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

The installation of Doppler radar in Lahaul-Spiti aims to enhance weather forecasting and disaster management. This technology provides accurate data on weather patterns, which is essential for timely alerts and mitigation strategies in regions prone to severe weather events.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

What was the record number of income tax returns filed in India for the fiscal year 2024-25 by July 31?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

A record 7.28 crore income tax returns were filed for the fiscal year 2024-25 by July 31. This increase reflects a growing compliance culture among taxpayers and improvements in the tax filing process, facilitated by technology and awareness campaigns.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Who became India's youngest Olympic boxing referee at the Paris Olympics 2024?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Lt Col Kabilan Sai Ashok became India's youngest Olympic boxing referee at the Paris Olympics 2024. His selection is a significant milestone, highlighting the increasing opportunities for young professionals in sports officiating at international levels.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

What is the significance of the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) announced in August 2024?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

The Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) was introduced to sell surplus stocks of wheat and rice to regulate prices in the open market. This initiative aims to manage food inventory effectively and stabilize market prices, benefiting both consumers and farmers.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

What was the main theme of the idiom shared on August 3, 2024?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

The idiom "The proof of the pudding is in the eating" emphasizes that the true value of something can only be judged by experiencing it. This concept encourages practical engagement rather than mere speculation, reinforcing the idea that outcomes matter more than promises.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

What notable achievement did Mary Kom accomplish in her boxing career?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Mary Kom is recognized as the only woman to have won the World Amateur Boxing Championship 6 times. Her achievements in the sport not only highlight her skill and determination but also inspire many young athletes, particularly women, to pursue their dreams in sports.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

What is the main function of Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH)?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) functions as a method of storing and generating hydroelectric energy. It uses two water reservoirs at different elevations to pump water during low electricity demand and release it to generate power during peak demand, thus balancing energy supply and demand.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Which rock band announced their early retirement from touring in August 2024?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Aerosmith announced their early retirement from touring due to frontman Steven Tyler's vocal injury. This decision marks the end of an era for the iconic rock band, which has been a significant force in the music industry since 1970, leaving behind a rich legacy of music.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

With reference to the ‘break in monsoon’, consider the following statements:

1. It happens due to the northward shift of the ITCZ over the foothills of Himalayas.

2. It occurs over the west coast due to wind blowing parallel to the coast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 18
  • During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common during the rainy season. These breaks in the different regions are due to different reasons:

  • Statement 1 is correct (i) In northern India rains are likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are not very frequent along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ over this region. It also occurs if the ITCZ shifts northward over the foothills of Himalayas and causes heavy rainfall along the foothills of himalayas.

  • This northward shift of the ITCZ creates a high pressure over the plains and thus the South West monsoon winds are not able to flow Statement 2 is correct (ii) Over the west coast the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the coast. This fails to produce an orographic effect and thus leads to a break in monsoon. Such breaks are likely to occur in the month of August.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

If you want to see your full image then the, minimum size of the plane mirror

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

In order to see full image of a person, the minimum size of the mirror should be one half the person's height. This is so because, in reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Consider the following statements with reference to sweet crude oil and sour crude oil:

  1. Sweet crude contains a higher amount of sulfur than sour crude.

  2. While Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude, the Appalachian Basin in North America is a major sweet-crude location.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 20
Classification of crude oil:
  • Crude oil may be referred to as sweet crude if it contains relatively little sulfur (0.5%) or sour crude if it contains substantial amounts of sulfur.

  • Iraq is one of the leading producers of sweet crude.

  • Major locations where sweet crude is found include the Appalachian Basin in Eastern North America, Western Texas, the Bakken Formation of North Dakota and Saskatchewan, the North Sea of Europe, North Africa, Australia, and the Far East including Indonesia.

  • Sour crude, on the other hand, has a high level of impurities in it, namely sulfur, which must first be removed before being processed into gas and other petroleum-based products.

  • Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude oil. Sour crude is more common in the Gulf of Mexico, Mexico, South America, and Canada.

  • Crude produced by OPEC Member Nations also tends to be relatively sour, with an average sulfur content of 1.77%.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding 123rd Constitutional Amendment bill:

  1. It grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

  2. It states that the Governor may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in their respective states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 21
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Central government has proposed to constitute a new backward classes commission after the term of National Commission for Other Backward Classes (NCBC) ended.

Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has passed the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill which grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, however a law of Parliament will be required if the list of backward classes is to be amended.

The commission will have a chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members and hear the grievances of socially and educationally backward classes, a function discharged so far by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

The bill also provides NCBC with the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

NCBC will also have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

From which of the following event, peasants from East Bengal began settling down in the riverine tracts (char) of the Brahmaputra valley as encouraged by the British to increase agricultural production?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 22
Event: Partition of Bengal (1905)

  • Background: The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was a major administrative reorganization by the British in India.

  • Impact on Peasants: The partition resulted in the creation of East Bengal and Assam, which led to unrest among the people, particularly the peasants.

  • Encouragement by the British: To increase agricultural production in the newly formed East Bengal, the British encouraged peasants to settle down in the riverine tracts (char) of the Brahmaputra valley.

  • Migration: As a result, many peasants from East Bengal began migrating to these riverine tracts to engage in agricultural activities.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Consider the following statements about the Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs):

  1. This sector is the largest employer of human resources in India.

  2. It generates more employment opportunities per unit of capital invested compared to large industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 23
  • Small Scale Industries in India have a large share of contribution to the socio-economic and balanced regional development of the country. These industries in India account for 95% of the industrial units in the country.

  • Statement 1 is not correct: Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) have the second-largest share in terms of human resource employability after the Agriculture sector. It supplies an enormous variety of mass consumption products which includes readymade garments, hosiery goods, stationery items, soaps and detergents, plastic and rubber goods, processed foods and vegetables, etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct: MSMEs sector generates more employment opportunities per unit of capital invested compared to large-scale industries. That is why they are considered to be less capital intensive and more labour intensive. This is a boon for a labour surplus country like India.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

In the third period of the periodic table the element having smallest size is        

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

The correct answer is option 3: Cl (chlorine). Among the elements listed, chlorine (Cl) has the smallest size in the third period of the periodic table. Sodium (Na) and silicon (Si) are in the third period as well but have larger atomic sizes. Argon (Ar) is a noble gas and is not in the same period as the other elements mentioned.

 

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

Which of the following Varman King formed an alliance with Maukhari dynasty to fight against the Gaur Kings?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

Mahasenagupta of East Malwa, the predecessor of Shasanka was fighting with Varman dynasty when Susthita Varman was the king, then Varman dynasty formed an alliance with Maukhari dynasty.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

With reference to ‘Jan Jagrukta Abhiyaan campaign’, consider the following statements:

1. The campaign is launched by Ministry of Jal Shakti.

2. This campaign is launched to sensitize and mobilise the community on measures for prevention and control of Vector Borne Diseases (VBDs).

3. For the first time that the local bodies have also joined the campaign with state and central government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 26
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched a Jan Jagrukta Abhiyaan in Delhi to accelerate vector control measures.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is all set to launch a special campaign in Delhi to sensitize and mobilise the community on measures for prevention and control of Vector Borne Diseases (VBDs) like Malaria, Dengue and Chikungunya.

  • Statement 3 is correct. This is probably the first time that three governments-national, state and local bodies- will converge in their efforts to mobilise the community for a public health activity. All Members of Parliament of Delhi and Mayors of all three Delhi Municipal Corporations for their active involvement in this campaign. A total of 286 ward-wise teams (in all 272 Municipal wards and 14 locations of NDMC) have been constituted with 20-25 members per team including officers of the Municipal Corporation along with officers from Central Government and Government of NCTD. The Northern Railways and Delhi Cantonment Board will also carry out the activities in campaign mode for prevention and control of VBDs in their areas.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

To work properly, wind-electric generators need wind speeds of at least about

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 27
Wind Speed Requirements for Wind-Electric Generators:
To work properly, wind-electric generators require a certain minimum wind speed. Let's explore the options given and determine which one is correct.
A: 1.5 km/h
- This wind speed is too low for wind-electric generators to function properly. It is not sufficient to generate significant power.
B: 15 km/h
- This wind speed is the correct answer. Wind-electric generators typically require a wind speed of at least 15 km/h to start generating power. It is the minimum threshold for efficient operation.
C: 150 km/h
- This wind speed is too high for wind-electric generators. While they can withstand strong winds, 150 km/h is beyond their operational limit and may cause damage.
D: 1500 km/h
- This wind speed is extremely high and far beyond the capability of wind-electric generators. Such wind speeds are typically associated with severe storms and hurricanes.
Therefore, the correct answer is B: 15 km/h. Wind-electric generators need wind speeds of at least 15 km/h to work properly.
APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

1. The chiefs of Southern coastal kingdoms did not collect regular taxes.

2. Satvahanas were also known as lords of the

dakshinapatha, a route leading to South.

3. Sangam poems mention a Tamil word ‘muvendar’ which means sacred river.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
Sangam poems mention the muvendar, a Tamil word meaning three chiefs of the Cholas, Cheras, and Pandyas who became powerful in south India around 2300 years ago.

Enrich Your Learning:

  • New kingdoms along the coasts of India Each of the three chiefs of the Cholas, Cheras, and Pandyas had two centres of power: one inland, and one on the coast. Of the six cities, two were very important: Puhar or Kaveripattinam, the port of the Cholas, and Madurai, the capital of the Pandyas. The chiefs did not collect regular taxes. Instead, they demanded and received gifts from the people. They also went on military expeditions and collected tribute from neighbouring areas. They kept some of the wealth and distributed the rest amongst their supporters, including members of their family, soldiers, and poets.

  • Many poets whose compositions are found in the Sangam collection composed poems in praise of chiefs who often rewarded them with precious stones, gold, horses, elephants, chariots, and fine cloth. Around 200 years later a dynasty known as the Satavahanas became powerful in western India. The most important ruler of the Satavahanas was Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni. He and other Satavahana rulers were known as lords of the dakshinapatha, literally the route leading to the south, which was also used as a name for the entire southern region. He sent his army to the eastern, western and southern coasts.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

Which of the following are characteristics of Hindustani music:

  1. Improvisations are not allowed.

  2. Influenced by Persian music.

  3. More emphasis on vocal music than on instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: There is scope for improvisations and variations in Hindustani music. Whereas in Carnatic music, it is not present.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Hindustani music is influenced by Arab, Persian and Afghan music. Carnatic music is indigenous.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Vocal music and instruments are equally important in Hindustani music. In Carnatic music, more emphasis is given on vocal music in comparison to instruments. Hindustani classical music is an Indian classical music tradition. It originated in North India around the 13th and 14th centuries. In contrast to Carnatic music, the other main Indian classical music tradition from South India, Hindustani classical music was not only influenced by ancient Hindu musical traditions and Vedic philosophy but also by the Persian elements. Hindustani classical music is the most popular stream of Indian music. Hindustani music is based on the raga system.

  • The Raga is a melodic scale, comprising of notes from the basic seven- Sa, Re, Ga, Ma Pa, Dha and Ni. On the basis of notes included in it, each raga attains a different character. The form of the raga is also determined by the particular pattern of ascent and descent of the notes, which may not be strictly linear. Hindustani classical music is primarily vocal-centric. The major vocal forms associated with Hindustani classical music are the khayal, Ghazal, dhrupad, dhammar, tarana and thumri. Dhrupad style of singing is traditionally performed by men with a tanpura and pakhawaj. The lyrics sung in Dhrupad are in a medieval form of Hindi and typically heroic in theme, or in praise of a particular deity.

  • A more adorned form is called dhamar. The place of dhrupad has been taken by somewhat less austere and more free-form khayal. Khayal consists of about 4-8 lines of lyrics set to a tune. The performer uses these few lines as the base for improvisation. The Khayal form of Hindustani classical music is ascribed to Hussain Shah Sharqui, the 15th century ruler of the Sharqi dynasty. It was made popular by the 18th century rule of Mohammed Shah. Some of the modern day vocalists are Bhimsen Joshi, Nagraj Havaldar, Kishori Amonkar, Ulhas Kashalkar, Ajoy Chakraborty, Prabakar Karekar, Pandit Jasraj, Rashid Khan, Aslam Khan, Shruti Sadolikar, Chandrasekhar Swami and Mashkoor Ali Khan. Another vocal form of Hindustani music is Tarana.

  • Tarana are songs that are used to convey a feeling of joy and are usually performed towards the end of a concert. Thumri is an informal vocal form of Hindustani classical music and is said to have begun with the court of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, the Nawab of Oudh. Originally, a Persian form of vocal music, Ghazal is an important part of Hindustani Classical music. Ghazal exists in multiple variations, including folk and pop forms. Some notable Ghazal performers include Ghulam Ali, Jagjit Singh, Mehndi Hassan and Pankaj Udhas. The themes of Ghazals range from love, joy and piety.

APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

Which among the following is correct about the Hemkosh?
I. It is the first Assamese language dictionary
II. It is the second Assamese language dictionary
III. It is the first Assamese language dictionary based on Sanskrit spellings.

Detailed Solution for APSC CCE Prelims Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

Hemkosh was the first Assamese language based dictionary on Sanskrit spelling. Assamese and English dictionary by Miles Bronson was the first dictionary of Assamese language.

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