ASRB NET Seed Science Mock Test - 5 - Agriculture Exams MCQ

The correct answer is A. 0.04%

As per the Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards, the allowable limit for ergot seeds in certified bajra seed is set at 0.04%. This regulation ensures the quality and safety of seeds used for cultivation, thereby protecting agricultural productivity and consumer health.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because 0.06% exceeds the permissible limit for ergot seeds in certified bajra, which is only 0.04%.
• C: This option is incorrect as 0.08% is significantly higher than the allowed limit, which could pose risks to crop health and quality.
• D: This option is incorrect since 0.07% also surpasses the maximum permitted level for certified seed, which is strictly defined at 0.04%.

Conclusion:

Option: A, being the most accurate and relevant choice, is distinguished by its alignment with established seed certification standards, clearly setting it apart from the other options. Thus, 0.04% is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. 2% acetocarmine

To assess pollen viability, a common method involves using a 2% acetocarmine solution. In this test, seeds that absorb the stain are deemed viable, while those that do not absorb it are considered non-viable. This quick staining technique effectively distinguishes between live and dead pollen grains.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because 2% potassium permanganate is primarily used as an antiseptic and does not effectively indicate pollen viability.
• B: This option is incorrect since 2% acetic acid is not a standard solution for testing pollen viability and may not provide reliable results.
• D: This option is incorrect as 2% naphthalene acetic acid is a plant growth regulator, not a viable stain for assessing pollen viability.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific role in determining pollen viability through staining, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 2% acetocarmine is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Growth and metabolic activity

During the germination process, the embryo activates both growth and metabolic functions. As the seed begins to germinate, it transitions from a dormant state, engaging in critical cellular processes like respiration and the production of necessary compounds to support the developing seedling. Although photosynthesis occurs later, once the seedling emerges and is exposed to light, the initial phases of germination focus on these two key activities—growth and metabolism—to establish the young plant effectively.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is insufficient because it only mentions growth, neglecting the essential metabolic activities that also occur during germination.
• B: This option is incomplete as it highlights metabolic activity but does not acknowledge the concurrent growth that is crucial for the embryo's development.
• D: This option is incorrect since it includes photosynthesis, which does not take place until after the seedling has emerged from the soil and can access light.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, effectively captures the dual processes of growth and metabolic activity that occur during germination, distinguishing it from the other options. Thus, Growth and metabolic activity is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Germination

Gibberellic Acid (GA) synthesis and signaling are essential for promoting and regulating the germination process in plants. Gibberellins are known to break seed dormancy, encourage germination, and stimulate the growth of stems and leaves. Thus, during germination, GA synthesis and signaling are crucial for activating metabolic processes that lead to the development of seedlings.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because sensitivity refers to a plant's ability to respond to environmental stimuli, which is not primarily governed by GA during germination.
• B: This option is incorrect as dormancy is a state that GA helps to break, rather than a process dominated by GA itself.
• D: This option is incorrect since receptivity pertains to the readiness of a plant to receive pollen, which is unrelated to GA's role in germination.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its direct association with the germination process, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Germination is the correct choice.

Sorghum is an often crops pollinated crop having 50% cross pollination. Isolation distance should be maintained so as to avoid varietal contamination of seed.
Isolation distance is the distance by which the seed crop is separated from any other variety of the same crop.

The correct answer is D. 1966

The Indian Seeds Act was introduced by the Government of India in 1966 to regulate seed quality across the nation. This legislation is crucial as it sets standards for seed quality, packaging, and labeling. By ensuring high-quality seeds are used, the Act plays a significant role in enhancing agricultural productivity and sustainability in India.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because the Indian Seeds Act was not enacted in 1968; rather, it was established two years earlier in 1966.
• B: This option is incorrect as the Indian Seeds Act was not passed in 1963, which is before the actual year of enactment.
• C: This option is incorrect since the Indian Seeds Act was not enacted in 1967; it was officially introduced in 1966.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its correct representation of the year the Indian Seeds Act was enacted, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 1966 is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Perfect flower

A perfect flower contains both male (staminate) and female (pistillate) reproductive organs, which typically include stamens and a pistil. In contrast, incomplete flowers are missing one of these essential reproductive parts, and imperfect flowers possess only one type of reproductive organ, either male or female.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because an incomplete flower lacks either stamens or pistils, making it unable to produce both types of gametes.
• B: This option is incorrect as an imperfect flower has only one reproductive organ type—either male or female—thus not fulfilling the definition of a perfect flower.
• D: This option is incorrect since a pistillate flower contains only female organs (pistils) and does not include male organs (stamens), making it imperfect.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its definition of a flower containing both reproductive organs, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Perfect flower is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Rape

Erucic acid is mainly found in the seeds of specific oilseed plants, particularly in rapeseed (Brassica napus and Brassica rapa), where it is present in significant amounts. This fatty acid is notable for its industrial uses and potential health implications, distinguishing rapeseed as a key source of erucic acid compared to other crops.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because castor beans primarily contain ricinoleic acid, not erucic acid, making them unsuitable for this question.
• B: This option is incorrect as sorghum is not known for erucic acid; it is more associated with other types of fatty acids and is not a significant source of erucic acid.
• D: This option is incorrect since cottonseed oil has low levels of erucic acid and is not recognized as a source of this fatty acid.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its high concentration of erucic acid in rapeseed, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Rape is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Amaranthus

Light is essential for the germination of specific plant species, and Amaranthus is one of them. This requirement for light during germination is referred to as photoblasty. Seeds that need light for germination contain light-sensitive pigments that trigger the germination process upon exposure to light.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because paddy (rice) seeds can germinate in the absence of light, as they primarily require moisture and warmth for sprouting.
• C: This option is incorrect since sunflower seeds do not strictly require light for germination; they can germinate in the dark as long as other conditions are met.
• D: This option is incorrect because onion seeds can also germinate without light, relying more on moisture and temperature rather than light exposure.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific requirement of light for germination, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Amaranthus is the correct choice.

The correct answer is D. Castor

Temperature-dependent pistillate lines are primarily used in the hybrid seed production of castor (Ricinus communis). In castor farming, it is essential to maintain specific temperature ranges to facilitate the growth of female flowers, which are critical for hybrid seed development.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because red gram (or pigeon pea) does not primarily rely on temperature-dependent pistillate lines for hybrid seed production, as its flowering and seed set are less sensitive to temperature variations.
• B: This option is incorrect since maize (corn) typically uses different methods for hybridization, focusing more on genetic traits rather than temperature-dependent lines for female flower development.
• C: This option is incorrect because sorghum does not predominantly use temperature-dependent pistillate lines in its hybrid seed production, as its breeding strategies differ significantly from those of castor.

Conclusion:

The D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific application in the hybrid seed production of castor, which requires careful temperature management to ensure successful flowering. Thus, Castor is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. 7/64

In the processing of wheat seeds, the top screen size is crucial as it determines the mesh size for separating seeds by their dimensions. A screen size of 7/64 inches features openings that are precisely 7/64 of an inch wide, making it ideal for effectively sorting wheat seeds. This size ensures the quality and uniformity of the seeds during processing, which is essential for optimal agricultural outcomes.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because a screen size of 8/64 inches is larger than 7/64 inches, which may not effectively separate smaller wheat seeds, potentially affecting seed quality.
• C: This option is incorrect as a screen size of 12/64 inches is significantly larger, which could allow smaller seeds to pass through, compromising the uniformity of the processed seeds.
• D: This option is incorrect since a screen size of 14/64 inches is even larger, making it unsuitable for effective separation of wheat seeds, leading to a decrease in the quality of the final product.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its appropriate size for seed separation, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 7/64 is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. At low temperature

High-moisture seeds should be dried at low temperatures to avoid harming the seeds. Drying at high temperatures can negatively impact seed viability and quality. By using low-temperature drying methods, the seeds' integrity is preserved, which enhances their germination potential.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because drying seeds at high temperatures can cause damage, leading to lower viability and quality.
• C: This option is not suitable as direct sunlight can increase temperatures excessively, risking seed integrity and reducing germination rates.
• D: This option is less appropriate since shade drying at low temperatures is better, but it may not be as effective as controlled low-temperature drying methods.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, is highlighted for its focus on preserving seed quality and viability through low-temperature drying. Thus, At low temperature is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. Priming

Priming refers to the process of treating seeds with an osmotic solution like polyethylene glycol to stimulate germination, followed by drying to achieve uniform and rapid germination. This technique enhances the seeds' physiological functions, allowing for quicker and more synchronized sprouting, which is especially advantageous for specific vegetable seeds.

Details on Other Options:

• B: Stratification is incorrect as it involves exposing seeds to a period of cold or moist conditions to break dormancy, rather than enhancing germination speed directly.
• C: Hardening is not the right choice because it refers to the process of acclimatizing seedlings to outdoor conditions, not specifically related to seed germination.
• D: Fortification is incorrect since it typically involves adding nutrients to seeds or plants, rather than focusing on the germination process itself.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific focus on enhancing seed germination processes, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Priming is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. 1969

The Seed Rules were established in 1969, marking a significant step in agricultural regulation and seed quality control. This implementation aimed to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because 1956 predates the introduction of the Seed Rules, which were not yet in place during that year.
• C: This option is incorrect as 1976 is also after the actual implementation of the Seed Rules, which occurred in 1969.
• D: This option is incorrect since 1986 is well after the Seed Rules were established, which took place in 1969.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its historical significance in agricultural policy, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 1969 is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Whole number

Germination test results are generally expressed as whole numbers. This approach simplifies the reporting of germination rates, making it easier to interpret and compare results across different tests. Reporting in whole numbers eliminates confusion and provides a clear understanding of the germination percentage, which is crucial for assessing seed quality.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because reporting germination results to one decimal place can introduce unnecessary complexity and does not align with standard practices in seed testing.
• C: This option is incorrect as two decimal places are typically not used in germination reporting, which is more straightforward when expressed as whole numbers.
• D: This option is incorrect since three decimal places would be excessive for germination tests, as the precision is not required and could lead to misinterpretation of results.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its clarity and simplicity in reporting germination results, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Whole number is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. After physiological maturity

Harvestable maturity takes place after physiological maturity, which is when a crop has maximized its dry matter accumulation and can produce viable seeds. This stage is crucial as it indicates the crop is ready for harvest, ensuring optimal quality, taste, texture, and appearance for consumers.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because harvestable maturity cannot occur before physiological maturity, as the crop must first reach its maximum potential for seed viability and dry matter accumulation.
• C: This option is incorrect since harvestable maturity does not occur during physiological maturity; instead, it follows this stage, indicating the crop is ready for harvesting.
• D: This option is incorrect as harvestable maturity is defined prior to the actual harvest, not after it, which would imply the crop has already been collected.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its clear definition of the timing of harvestable maturity in relation to physiological maturity. Thus, After physiological maturity is the correct choice.

The correct answer is D. Shedding tassel

In hybrid maize fields, the primary genetic contaminant is the shedding tassel. This occurs when tassels, which release pollen, lead to unintended cross-pollination among various maize varieties. This can compromise the purity of hybrid maize by introducing genetic material from other plants.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because off-type plants refer to maize plants that do not conform to the expected characteristics of the hybrid, but they do not directly cause genetic contamination through pollination.
• B: This option is incorrect as weed plants, while they can compete with maize for resources, do not contribute to genetic contamination in the same way that pollen does.
• C: This option is incorrect since diseased plants may affect crop health but do not serve as a source of genetic contamination through cross-pollination.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its role in facilitating cross-pollination, which is crucial in the context of hybrid maize cultivation. Thus, Shedding tassel is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. Anthocyanin

Anthocyanins represent the largest group of flavonoid pigments, contributing vibrant red, purple, and blue hues to various fruits, vegetables, and flowers. Their widespread presence in nature plays a significant role in attracting pollinators and seed dispersers, making them essential for plant reproduction and ecosystem health.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because xanthophylls are a type of carotenoid pigment that primarily provides yellow coloration, but they are not as widespread as anthocyanins in the plant kingdom.
• C: This option is incorrect since yellow carotenoids, while common, do not encompass the broader range of colors and applications that anthocyanins do, limiting their significance in comparison.
• D: This option is incorrect as orange carotenoids, like beta-carotene, are also present in various plants but are less prevalent than anthocyanins in terms of pigment variety and ecological roles.

Conclusion:

The A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its extensive role in providing a wide array of colors in the plant kingdom, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Anthocyanin is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. Coffee

The perisperm is a specialized tissue found in certain seeds, including coffee, that serves as a nutrient source for the developing embryo. It originates from the nucellus, which is part of the ovule, ensuring the embryo receives the necessary sustenance during its early growth stages.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because groundnut seeds primarily rely on cotyledons for nourishment rather than having a significant perisperm.
• C: This option is incorrect as cabbage seeds do not contain perisperm; they utilize other seed structures for nourishment during germination.
• D: This option is incorrect since maize seeds primarily depend on endosperm for nutrition, not perisperm.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific association with the perisperm, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Coffee is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Quiescence

Quiescence is defined as the temporary halt of germination triggered by unfavorable environmental factors like unsuitable temperature, inadequate moisture, or insufficient light. This condition differs from dormancy, which is an inherent physiological state of the seed that persists regardless of external conditions. In contrast, quiescence is specifically induced by adverse environmental circumstances.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because dormancy refers to a seed's inherent physiological state that prevents germination, independent of environmental conditions.
• C: This option is incorrect as embryo dormancy is a specific type of dormancy that occurs within the seed embryo itself, rather than being a response to external environmental factors.
• D: This option is incorrect since the resting period does not specifically describe the suspension of germination due to environmental conditions, but rather a general phase of inactivity.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, clearly identifies the process induced by external environmental factors, distinguishing it from the inherent physiological state represented by dormancy. Thus, Quiescence is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Photoblastic

Photoblastic seeds need light for germination, which is an adaptation that allows them to sprout on the soil surface or at shallow depths. This positioning ensures they receive sufficient light for photosynthesis post-germination. The light requirement can differ among species and is essential for creating suitable conditions for germination in both natural and controlled settings.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect as skotoblastic seeds germinate in the absence of light, which is the opposite of photoblastic seeds.
• C: This option is incorrect because hydrophilic refers to substances that absorb water, not related to light requirements for seed germination.
• D: This option is incorrect since hydrophobic describes materials that repel water, which does not pertain to the light necessity of seeds.

Conclusion:

The B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its definition related to light-dependent germination, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Photoblastic is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. Primordial initiation stage

Urea foliar spray is best applied during the primordial initiation stage in sorghum hybrid seed production to synchronize flowering. This timing provides essential nutrients that promote uniform flowering among plants, which is crucial for effective pollination and seed development.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is less appropriate because the late primordial stage may not provide the optimal nutrient uptake needed for synchronized flowering, potentially leading to uneven flowering times.
• C: This option is incorrect as applying urea during the early flowering stage could disrupt the flowering process rather than enhance synchronization, which is critical for seed production.
• D: This option is not suitable since applying urea during the late flowering stage may not support the synchronization needed for effective pollination and could result in poor seed set.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant choice, is distinguished by its timing that maximizes nutrient availability for uniform flowering, setting it apart from the other options. Thus, Primordial initiation stage is the correct choice.

The correct answer is A. Hard seed coat

Stylo seeds are characterized by a hard seed coat, which plays a crucial role in their physical dormancy. This tough outer layer inhibits water absorption, preventing germination until favorable environmental conditions are met. This adaptation is beneficial for survival in challenging environments, but it necessitates careful management during cultivation to achieve consistent germination rates.

Details on Other Options:

• B: This option is incorrect because while inhibitors can affect seed germination, they are not a defining characteristic of stylo seeds.
• C: This option is incorrect since an immature embryo does not specifically describe the traits of stylo seeds, which are primarily defined by their hard seed coat.
• D: This option is incorrect because appendages are not a typical feature of stylo seeds, which are mainly recognized for their hard seed coat.

Conclusion:

Option: A, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its defining feature of the hard seed coat, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Hard seed coat is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Length separator

The length separator effectively distinguishes seeds from impurities by utilizing their differing lengths. This specialized equipment is designed to separate longer seeds from shorter impurities, or the other way around, depending on its configuration. This method is particularly efficient in maintaining seed purity by focusing on length as the primary criterion for separation.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because an inclined belt separator primarily separates materials based on weight and density rather than length, making it less suitable for this specific separation task.
• C: This option is incorrect as a roller separator is designed to separate materials based on size and shape, not specifically length, which does not align with the requirement stated in the question.
• D: This option is incorrect since a magnetic separator utilizes magnetic properties to separate materials, which is unrelated to the length differences between seeds and impurities.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its specific focus on length-based separation, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Length separator is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. To contribute to the formation of the endosperm

The secondary nucleus in the embryo sac plays a crucial role in fertilization by fusing with one of the sperm cells, resulting in the formation of the endosperm. This tissue is essential for nourishing the developing embryo, providing it with the necessary nutrients for growth. Thus, the secondary nucleus's function is vital in the reproductive process of flowering plants.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because the production of antipodal cells occurs earlier in the development of the embryo sac and does not involve the secondary nucleus.
• B: This option is incorrect as the zygote is formed from the fusion of one sperm cell with the egg cell, not the secondary nucleus.
• D: This option is incorrect since the initiation of pollen tube growth is facilitated by the pollen grain's interaction with the stigma, independent of the secondary nucleus's role.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its essential role in nourishing the embryo, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, to contribute to the formation of the endosperm is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. National trials

National trials are specifically designed to evaluate if a crop variety that has been successful in one region will perform similarly in different regions across the country. This type of trial is essential for understanding the adaptability and consistency of crop varieties in varying environmental conditions.

Details on Other Options:

• A: Agronomic Trials focus on evaluating various agricultural practices and inputs rather than specifically testing the performance of a variety across multiple zones.
• C: Adoptive Trials are aimed at assessing how well a variety is accepted and utilized by farmers in a specific region, not across different zones.
• D: Mini-kit Trials involve testing small quantities of seeds or varieties, primarily for preliminary evaluation, rather than comprehensive performance across multiple zones.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its focus on assessing the performance of crop varieties across different regions, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, National trials is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. 0.50%

The permissible maximum percentage of seeds infected by Paddy Bunt (Neovossia horrida) in certified seed is 0.50%. This limit is essential to control the spread of the disease and ensure the quality of the seeds used in agriculture.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because a limit of 0.10% is too stringent and does not align with the established standards for certified seeds.
• B: This option is incorrect as a maximum of 0.20% does not meet the regulatory requirements, which allow for a higher tolerance of infected seeds.
• D: This option is incorrect since a limit of 1% is excessively high and could lead to significant disease transmission among crops.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its alignment with the acceptable standards for certified seeds, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, 0.50% is the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. Sepal

Sepals are the flower's outermost components, often green and leaf-like, that protect the developing bud before it blooms. Their primary function is to shield the inner parts of the flower during its growth, ensuring the petals and reproductive structures remain safe until the flower is ready to open.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because petals are typically colorful and attract pollinators, distinguishing them from sepals, which are usually green and protective.
• C: This option is incorrect as stamens are the male reproductive parts of the flower, responsible for producing pollen, and are located inside the petals, not on the outer layer.
• D: This option is incorrect since the pistil is the female reproductive structure of the flower, containing the ovary, style, and stigma, and is found at the center of the flower.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its protective role in the flower's development, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Sepal is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Polyandrous

Polyandrous refers to a floral structure in which the stamens are separate and not fused together or attached to other parts of the flower. This feature allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in reproduction, as each stamen can operate independently during the pollination process.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because epipetalous refers to stamens that are attached to the petals, which does not align with the definition of free stamens.
• B: This option is incorrect as epiphyllous describes stamens that are attached to the leaves, again indicating a fusion that contradicts the concept of free stamens.
• D: This option is incorrect since diadelphous denotes stamens that are fused into two groups, which is the opposite of being free.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its definition of free stamens, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Polyandrous is the correct choice.

The correct answer is C. Three

During megasporogenesis, the process usually leads to the degeneration of three out of four megaspores, leaving only one viable megaspore. This functional megaspore is crucial for the formation of the female gametophyte in plants, which ultimately contributes to reproduction.

Details on Other Options:

• A: This option is incorrect because it suggests that only one megaspore degenerates, which does not align with the typical pattern observed in megasporogenesis.
• B: This option is not accurate as it implies that two megaspores degenerate, which is also not the general rule in this process.
• D: This option is incorrect since it states that four megaspores degenerate, which contradicts the standard outcome of megasporogenesis where one remains functional.

Conclusion:

The C, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its representation of the typical degeneration pattern in megasporogenesis, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, Three is the correct choice.